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Introduction to RPD Diagnosis

Total questions: 39

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which sequence best represents core categories in initial diagnostic procedures for removable partial denture planning?

a)

Clinical exam, treatment plan, investigations, patient history

b)

Investigations, treatment plan, patient history, clinical exam

c)

Patient history, clinical exam, investigations, treatment plan

d)

Treatment plan, investigations, clinical exam, patient history

2.

Which item is correctly listed as part of investigations during diagnostic procedures for prosthodontic planning?

a)

Radiographic evaluations and diagnostic casts

b)

Occlusal splint delivery and polishing

c)

Articulator mounting and glazing

d)

Final impression making and try-in

3.

Which age-related change most directly affects denture manipulation skills in older adults?

a)

Reduced neuromuscular coordination and adaptability

b)

Increased elasticity of oral epithelium

c)

Enhanced salivary flow and lubrication

d)

Thicker, more resilient oral mucosa

4.

In females, which gender-related factor may influence oral tissues relevant to RPD planning?

a)

Adolescence-linked salivary hypersecretion

b)

Menopause-linked atrophy of oral epithelium

c)

Pregnancy-linked enamel remineralization

d)

Andropause-linked tongue hypertrophy

5.

How can occupation influence provisional choices for partial dentures?

a)

Some occupations may necessitate interim or immediate dentures

b)

Occupation rarely affects denture selection decisions

c)

Office work always contraindicates immediate dentures

d)

Manual labor mandates delayed dentures in all cases

6.

Which oral complication of poorly controlled diabetes most directly reduces denture retention and comfort?

a)

Gingival pigmentation changes

b)

Xerostomia reducing saliva film

c)

Increased salivary viscosity only

d)

Caries limited to posterior teeth

7.

Temporomandibular joint arthritis most commonly interferes with which clinical step in complete denture fabrication?

a)

Try‑in of polished surfaces

b)

Jaw relation recording accuracy

c)

Primary alginate impression

d)

Shade selection appointment

8.

For a patient with severe, uncontrolled epilepsy, which management regarding removable dentures is most appropriate?

a)

Avoid removable dentures entirely

b)

Provide thin acrylic partials

c)

Use soft liners for cushions

d)

Schedule long morning visits

9.

Which cardiac status requires medical clearance before elective denture procedures?

a)

Asymptomatic mitral valve prolapse

b)

History of remote myocarditis

c)

Well‑controlled hypertension only

d)

Unstable or acute cardiac conditions

10.

Cancer therapy may make denture fabrication difficult primarily because of which oral effects?

a)

Opportunistic infections

b)

Mucositis development

c)

Excessive salivation

d)

Rapid enamel remineralization

e)

Persistent xerostomia

11.

When planning dentures for a xerostomic patient with diabetes, which modification best improves comfort and function?

a)

Saliva substitutes with meticulous hygiene

b)

High occlusal vertical dimension

c)

Abraded polished surfaces

d)

Minimal post‑dam in maxilla

12.

A patient on warfarin requires multiple extractions for denture preparation. What is the safest management plan?

a)

Temporarily stop warfarin without medical consultation

b)

Use NSAIDs postoperatively to control bleeding

c)

Proceed in clinic with sutures and pressure packs

d)

Coordinate care and refer to an oral surgeon

13.

Endocrine therapy is associated with which oral effect relevant to prosthesis tolerance?

a)

Accelerated mucosal healing under dentures

b)

Reduced risk of Candida-associated stomatitis

c)

Severe oral soreness independent of denture fit

d)

Increased salivary buffering and lubrication

14.

Saliva-inhibiting drugs such as atropine are best avoided in which patients when taking impressions?

a)

Patients with cardiac disease risk profiles

b)

Patients with prostatic hypertrophy symptoms

c)

Patients with primary open-angle glaucoma

d)

Patients with well-controlled seasonal allergies

15.

When saliva control is needed for impressions in a patient with glaucoma, the preferred approach is to use

a)

Topical atropine mouthrinse cautiously

b)

Mechanical methods such as cotton rolls

c)

Systemic anticholinergics in low dose

d)

No isolation to avoid intraocular effects

16.

A patient lost several teeth due to periodontal disease. How does this influence planning for a new partial denture?

a)

No effect on prognosis or maintenance

b)

Poorer prognosis necessitating periodontal maintenance

c)

Favorable prognosis for remaining teeth

d)

Focus should only be on caries prevention

17.

Past experience with a previous prosthesis is most valuable because it

a)

Replaces the need for new clinical exams

b)

Guides design choices for the new prosthesis

c)

Eliminates try-in and adjustment appointments

d)

Predicts insurance coverage for materials

18.

Which statements about patient expectations and education are appropriate for successful prosthesis outcomes?

a)

Providing instructions improves adaptation

b)

Expectations rarely affect clinical outcomes

c)

Education is essential to align expectations

d)

Unrealistic expectations can compromise satisfaction

19.

In the front-view facial examination, which feature most directly indicates reduced lower facial height in long-term denture wearers, as suggested by the diagram?

a)

Flattened mentolabial sulcus angle

b)

Widened nasolabial folds depth

c)

Prominent zygomatic arch contour

d)

Increased philtrum length

20.

When assessing the profile view, which trio best summarizes the parameters emphasized in the diagram?

a)

Skin tone, pore size, hair

b)

Color, texture, edema

c)

Occlusal plane, curve of Spee, midline

d)

Size, form, facial shape

21.

Loss of maxillary teeth most likely produces which combined soft‑tissue changes illustrated in the comparative profiles?

a)

Mentalis region becomes less prominent

b)

Upper lip contour loses fullness

c)

Philtrum appears unsupported

d)

Nasolabial folds deepen

e)

Vermilion border becomes more defined

22.

Which single finding best differentiates an edentulous profile from a restored profile in the diagram?

a)

Exaggerated mentalis tip prominence

b)

Increased nasal dorsum projection

c)

Wider intercanthal distance

d)

Elevated supraorbital brow position

23.

During clinical TMJ assessment, which observation listed in the diagram most directly suggests internal derangement on jaw opening?

a)

Tender parotid swelling

b)

Facial asymmetry at rest

c)

Audible clicking or popping

d)

Reduced gag reflex response

24.

Which imaging modality from the diagram provides the best soft‑tissue visualization of the TMJ?

a)

Corrected cephalometric tomography

b)

Transcranial radiography

c)

MRI of the joint complex

d)

Panoramic radiography

25.

Match each TMJ imaging method to its primary utility as implied by common practice. Select all that are reasonable based on the diagram content.

a)

CT for detailed cortical bone evaluation

b)

Transcranial for condylar position screening

c)

MRI for disc and soft‑tissue assessment

d)

Corrected cephalometric tomography for craniofacial relationships

e)

Panoramic for general osseous survey

26.

During intra-oral caries evaluation, which finding most directly affects selection of abutment teeth before restorative treatment?

a)

Presence of recurrent decay on potential abutments

b)

Color shade of opposing dentition surfaces

c)

Slight extrinsic staining from dietary habits

d)

Minor enamel craze lines without sensitivity

27.

Hidden occlusal caries is most likely when which clinical scenario is present on a posterior tooth?

a)

Fresh composite restoration with ideal margins

b)

Wide flat fossae with shallow grooves

c)

Smooth buccal surface without plaque deposits

d)

Intact fissures with localized undermined enamel

28.

Which combination best represents a comprehensive periodontal assessment?

a)

Clinical attachment level evaluation

b)

Tooth color and translucency grading

c)

Furcation involvement identification

d)

Probing pocket depth measurements

e)

Mobility grading with mucogingival assessment

29.

A tooth shows 5 mm probing depth with 3 mm recession. What is the clinical attachment loss?

a)

Two millimeters attachment loss only

b)

Eight millimeters attachment loss total

c)

Five millimeters attachment loss only

d)

Three millimeters attachment loss total

30.

Mobility noted on a molar resolves after occlusal adjustment. What is the most appropriate interpretation?

a)

Mobility proved vertical root fracture existed

b)

Mobility indicated hopeless periodontal prognosis

c)

Mobility confirmed advanced mucogingival defect

d)

Mobility was secondary to occlusal trauma

31.

Which periodontal finding most strongly influences rest seat design on a mandibular molar abutment?

a)

Mild extrinsic staining level

b)

Degree of furcation involvement present

c)

Shade matching of adjacent teeth

d)

Presence of shallow craze lines

32.

Before definitive restoration, which management is most appropriate when reduced periodontal support is present on abutment teeth?

a)

Reassess caries and margins post-therapy

b)

Delay until spontaneous attachment gain occurs

c)

Ignore furcation involvement if asymptomatic

d)

Perform root planing or periodontal surgery

e)

Consider splinting after periodontal therapy

33.

During intra‑oral examination for removable partial denture planning, which factor best predicts the residual ridge’s load‑bearing capacity?

a)

Height and width of the ridge crest

b)

Color of the attached gingiva

c)

Number of missing posterior teeth

d)

Presence of saliva viscosity only

34.

A patient shows gingival recession with a shallow sulcus. Pocket depth is 3 mm but clinical attachment loss exceeds 5 mm. What is the most accurate interpretation?

a)

Attachment loss can exceed pocket depth with recession

b)

Pocket depth always equals attachment loss clinically

c)

Pocket depth is irrelevant to attachment level

d)

Attachment loss is underestimated due to tissue swelling

35.

Which soft tissue condition most compromises denture support and may require preprosthetic surgery before RPD fabrication?

a)

Tightly bound mucosa over residual ridge

b)

Shallow vestibule with adequate keratinization

c)

Pigmented attached gingiva without inflammation

d)

Flabby mobile ridge in edentulous area

36.

Regarding hard tissue abnormalities relevant to RPD design, which statement is correct?

a)

Tori can interfere with major connector placement

b)

Exostoses may create undercuts affecting clasping

c)

Sharp bony spicules reduce mucosal tolerance

d)

Small mandibular tori always mandate removal

37.

Radiographic evaluation of abutment teeth for RPD planning should include which assessments?

a)

Pulp chamber calcification alone

b)

Periodontal ligament space and lamina dura

c)

Root length and crown‑root ratio

d)

Periapical status and bone levels

38.

In maxillary first molars, furcation involvement influences abutment selection. Which scenario is most acceptable for clasp support without periodontal therapy?

a)

Any furcation regardless of bone condition

b)

Grade I furcation with good bone support

c)

Grade II furcation with horizontal mobility

d)

Grade III furcation with through‑and‑through defect

39.

Which radiographic finding most strongly contraindicates using a tooth as an RPD abutment until treated?

a)

Calcified canal with normal periapex

b)

Short root but healthy periodontium

c)

Slight widened PDL without mobility

d)

Periapical radiolucency with symptoms