wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Content Section

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary objective of an audit of financial statements?

a)

To detect errors and fraud in the financial statements

b)

To comply with legal requirements

c)

To provide an independent opinion on whether the financial statements give a true and fair view

d)

To reduce management’s responsibility for the financial statements

2.

An audit that evaluates the efficiency and effectiveness of an organization’s operations, procedures, and methods is classified as:

a)

Operational audit

b)

Compliance audit

c)

Financial statement audit

d)

All of the above

3.

Which of the following statements about auditing standards is incorrect?

a)

Auditing standards are guidelines for auditors in conducting an audit

b)

Auditing standards are preconditions for audit firms to sign contracts with clients

c)

Auditing standards provide regulations and guidance for performing audits, and address issues that arise during the audit process

d)

None of the above

4.

John Smith, an auditor at XYZ Audit Firm, assisted ABC Corporation in preparing its financial statements, including developing new accounting policies and posting journal entries. He was later engaged to audit those same financial statements. Which ethical threat does this situation present?

a)

Self-interest

b)

Self-review

c)

Familiarity

d)

Intimidation

5.

In which phase of the audit process does the auditor develop the overall audit strategy and detailed audit plan?

a)

Planning and design

b)

Performing audit procedures

c)

Completion and reporting

d)

None of the above

6.

Auditor Ngoc is responsible for the audit of Cuong Thinh Joint Stock Company. Her friend Hang, who is researching corporate finance, asks Ngoc to share information about Cuong Thinh, promising to keep it confidential. If Ngoc provides the information, which ethical principle would she violate?

a)

Integrity

b)

Objectivity

c)

Confidentiality

d)

Professional competence and due care

7.

During the audit of ABC Company, management intentionally overstated ending inventory to improve reported profits. The auditor failed to detect the misstatement and issued an unmodified opinion. After the misstatement was discovered by regulators, both management and the auditor denied responsibility, each blaming the other. According to auditing standards, how should responsibility be assigned in this case?

a)

The auditor and management are equally responsible for the misstatement

b)

Management is responsible for the misstatement in the financial statements, and the auditor is responsible for issuing an inappropriate opinion

c)

The auditor is solely responsible because the misstatement was not detected

d)

Management is responsible for the misstatement only, as the auditor’s responsibility ends with conducting procedures

8.

In the COSO 2013, internal control is defined as a process, effected by an entity’s board of directors, management, and other personnel, designed to provide ____ ____ regarding the achievement of objectives relating to operations, reporting, and compliance.

a)

good results

b)

reasonable assurance

c)

better solutions

d)

strong assertions

9.

Which type of control activity is illustrated by the example: “The company establishes criteria for selecting suppliers and requires management approval before any supplier is engaged”?

a)

Authorization

b)

Physical controls

c)

Segregation of duties

d)

Performance reviews

10.

“Each month, the internal audit department prepares a plan to review operations of various departments as requested by management, and reports findings to management and the Supervisory Board.” This relates to which component of internal control?

a)

Control environment

b)

Risk assessment

c)

Information and communication

d)

Monitoring of controls

11.

Which of the following statements about internal control is true?

a)

Management, through its activities, provides clear signals to employees about the importance of internal control

b)

Internal control is only affected by management

c)

An effective internal control system provides absolute assurance in achieving objectives

d)

Internal control is designed, implemented, and maintained by management alone

12.

Which of the following audit procedures is most appropriate to perform tests of control in the sales–receivables–cash collection cycle?

a)

Recalculation

b)

Inspection of documents

c)

External confirmation

d)

Physical inventory count

13.

Purchase invoices are matched with purchase orders and goods received notes before payment. What is the main purpose of this control activity?

a)

To ensure goods are received in good condition

b)

To detect duplicate supplier invoices

c)

To prevent payment for unauthorized or unreceived goods

d)

To verify that suppliers deliver on time

14.

What is referred to as the risk that auditors can only assess but not control?

a)

Audit risk

b)

Control risk

c)

Detection risk

d)

All of the above

15.

Which of the following statements about risk assessment is false?

a)

Understanding the business risks facing the entity increases the likelihood of identifying risks of material misstatement

b)

The auditor has a responsibility to identify or assess all business risks

c)

The auditor is concerned with fraud that causes a material misstatement in the financial statements

d)

All of the above

16.

The auditee was unable to detect employee fraud promptly because of inadequate segregation of duties. According to the audit risk model, which type of risk does this represent?

a)

Inherent risk

b)

Control risk

c)

Detection risk

d)

Audit risk

17.

When evaluating whether a misstatement is material, which of the following is always true?

a)

A misstatement greater than VND 100 million is material

b)

The assessment of materiality depends on the auditor’s professional judgment

c)

A misstatement greater than 5% of total assets is material

d)

Misstatements related to revenue are always material because they affect profit

18.

Which of the following is not a reason for the auditor to perform risk assessment?

a)

To identify and assess the risk of material misstatement, whether due to fraud or error, at the financial statement and assertion levels

b)

To implement measures to prevent risks at the auditee

c)

To design and perform appropriate audit procedures

d)

To develop an effective audit plan and audit program

19.

Based on evidence gathered, an auditor decides to increase the assessed level of control risk from that originally planned. To maintain the same overall audit risk level, the auditor should:

a)

Decrease tests of details

b)

Increase tests of details

c)

Decrease tests of control

d)

Increase tests of control

20.

All transactions and events that should have been recorded have been recorded. Which assertion does this describe?

a)

Occurrence

b)

Completeness

c)

Rights and Obligations

d)

Accuracy, Valuation and Allocation

21.

Which statement about assertions is true?

a)

Assertions are used by the auditor to consider the different types of potential misstatements that may occur when identifying, assessing and responding to the risks of material misstatement

b)

Assertions about classes of transactions and events for the period and assertions about account balances at the period end are the same

c)

Completeness assertion is primarily a concern for overstated accounts like revenues and assets

d)

Both b and c are true

22.

Which audit procedure should the auditor perform to obtain evidence that administrative expenses are recorded in the correct accounting period?

a)

Examine administrative expense transactions occurring a few days before and after year-end, focusing on proper cut-off

b)

Send confirmation letters to vendors related to administrative expenses

c)

Calculate the ratio of administrative expenses to total expenses over several years

d)

Inquire of management about administrative expenses

23.

Which of the following audit evidence is the most reliable?

a)

Customer confirmation letter regarding accounts receivable balances

b)

Sales invoice

c)

Bank statements provided by the auditee

d)

Discussions with accounts receivable accountant

24.

During the audit of XYZ Company, the auditor needs to assess whether the allowance for doubtful accounts and inventory balances are reasonable. Which analytical procedure would help the auditor perform this assessment?

a)

Reconciling accounts receivable balances with the subsidiary ledger

b)

Preparing an aging schedule of receivables to support the allowance for doubtful accounts

c)

Calculating inventory turnover and comparing it to prior years

d)

Vouching increases and decreases in account balances to supporting documents

25.

During the audit at company ABC for the financial year 31/12/20X1, the audit procedure of sending a confirmation letter for accounts payable to the vendor shows that the amount owed to company X on ABC's books is lower than the confirmed amount of 644,000,000 VND. After reconciliation, the cause is identified as follows: The amount of 644,000,000 VND that company ABC transferred via bank transfer to company X on January 2/20X2. What should the auditor do in this situation?

a)

Accept the account payable balance that was recorded by company ABC

b)

Request an adjustment of increasing in accounts payable to company X by 644,000,000 VND

c)

Recalculate the amount of the account payable to company X

d)

Send confirmation letters again to company X

26.

Which of the following completion procedures must auditors perform before forming an audit opinion?

a)

Reviewing contingent liabilities

b)

Evaluating going concern status

c)

Reviewing subsequent events

d)

All of the above

27.

Fill in the blank in this statement: ____ is a possible obligation that arises from past events and whose existence will be confirmed only by the occurrence or non-occurrence of one or more uncertain future events not wholly within the control of the enterprise.

a)

Contingent liabilities

b)

Going concern status

c)

Subsequent events

d)

Material misstatements

28.

What type of audit opinion is expressed by the auditor when they conclude that the financial statements are prepared, in all material respects, in accordance with the applicable financial reporting framework?

a)

Unmodified opinion

b)

Unmodified opinion with an Emphasis of Matter paragraph

c)

Unmodified opinion with an Other Matter paragraph

d)

Modified opinion

29.

In the auditor’s report prepared under VSA 700, the following excerpt appears: “Our responsibility is to express an opinion on these financial statements based on our audit. We conducted our audit in accordance with Vietnamese Standards on Auditing. Those standards require that we comply with ethical requirements and plan and perform the audit to obtain reasonable assurance about whether the financial statements are free from material misstatement.” This excerpt belongs to which section of the audit report?

a)

Auditor’s Responsibilities

b)

Introduction

c)

Management’s Responsibilities

d)

Audit Opinion

30.

In which part of the audit report does the auditor explicitly state whether the financial statements give a true and fair view in accordance with the applicable financial reporting framework?

a)

Basis for Opinion

b)

Management’s Responsibilities

c)

Auditor’s Responsibilities

d)

Auditor’s Opinion

31.

“Except for the effects of matter X described in the Basis for Qualified Opinion section, the financial statements present fairly, in all material respects, in accordance with the applicable financial reporting framework.” Which type of audit opinion does this statement represent?

a)

Qualified opinion

b)

Unmodified opinion

c)

Disclaimer of opinion

d)

Adverse opinion

32.

In which case is an “Emphasis of Matter” paragraph included in the auditor’s report?

a)

When the auditor wishes to draw users’ attention to a significant matter that has been appropriately disclosed in the financial statements

b)

When the auditor identifies a material misstatement that management refuses to correct

c)

When the auditor has doubts about the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern

d)

When the auditor detects a serious violation that affects the financial statements

33.

Which statement is correct about audit report?

a)

Before issuing the audit report, the auditor needs to review the information attached to the financial statements

b)

The auditor’s report shall be dated no earlier than the date on which the auditor has obtained sufficient appropriate audit evidence on which to base the auditor’s opinion on the financial statements

c)

The auditor’s signature is either in the name of the audit firm, the personal name of the auditor or both, as appropriate for the particular jurisdiction

d)

All of the above

34.

The auditee is being sued by a supplier for breach of contract, with a compensation claim of up to VND 120,000 million. The entity has fully disclosed the lawsuit in the notes to the financial statements in accordance with accounting standards. The auditor agrees with the presentation but wishes to alert readers to this legal risk. Aside from this matter, the financial statements present fairly, in all material respects. Based on the above information, what type of audit opinion should the auditor issue in this situation?

a)

Unmodified opinion

b)

Unmodified opinion with an Emphasis of Matter paragraph

c)

Unmodified opinion with an Other Matter paragraph

d)

Disclaimer of opinion

35.

During the audit of ABC Company, the auditor identified that certain expenses were misstated. The misstatement is material but not pervasive, and the rest of the financial statements are fairly presented. What type of audit opinion should the auditor issue?

a)

Unmodified opinion

b)

Qualified opinion

c)

Disclaimer of opinion

d)

Adverse opinion

36.

Which of the following statements is incorrect about audit procedures the auditor can use to detect subsequent events?

a)

Reviewing accounting records or transactions occurring between the date of the financial statements and the date of the auditor’s report

b)

Inquiring of management and, where appropriate, those charged with governance

c)

Disregarding events occurring after the financial statement date that do not affect income, as they are not relevant to the audit

d)

Inspecting minutes, if any, of the meetings of the entity’s owners, management, and those charged with governance that have been held after the date of the financial statements

37.

Right before the completion of the audit, but before the issuance of the audit report, the auditee experienced a fire that damaged inventory and affected its financial position. How should the auditor respond to this subsequent event when auditing the entity’s financial statements?

a)

Ignore the fire because it occurred after the reporting period

b)

Request the auditee to disclose the event in the financial statements, as it is a material subsequent event

c)

Adjust all inventory balances for the year ended before the fire, regardless of the extent of damage

d)

Postpone issuing the audit report until the full impact of the fire is known

38.

During the audit of DEF Company for the year ended 31 December 20X1, the auditor noted that on 20 January 20X2, before the auditor’s report date, the government enacted a new tax law that significantly increased corporate tax rates. Management is unsure how to reflect this event in the financial statements. What should the auditor require management to do?

a)

Adjust the financial statements as of 31 December 20X1

b)

Disclose the event in the notes to the financial statements

c)

Take no action because the law was enacted after year-end

d)

Recognize a provision for additional tax liabilities as of 31 December 20X1

39.

Four weeks after the year-end date, a major customer of Prince Construction Co. declared bankruptcy. Because the customer had confirmed the balance due to Prince at the balance sheet date, management refuses to charge off the account or otherwise disclose the information. The receivable represents approximately 10% of accounts receivable and 20% of net earnings before taxes. Which type of audit opinion should the audit issue in this situation?

a)

Unmodified opinion

b)

Qualified opinion or adverse opinion

c)

Qualified opinion or disclaimer of opinion

d)

None of the above

40.

Because the audit contract was signed after December 31, the end of the financial year, the auditor could not attend the inventory stocktake at the audit client. The auditor also cannot perform alternative audit procedures. The auditor concludes that misstatements, individually or in the aggregate, due to this issue are material and pervasive to the financial statements. Which type of audit opinion should the audit issue in this situation?

a)

Unmodified opinion

b)

Qualified opinion

c)

Adverse opinion

d)

Disclaimer of opinion

41.

An audit that aims to provide an opinion on the truthfulness and fairness of financial statements is classified as:

a)

Operational audit

b)

Compliance audit

c)

Financial statement audit

d)

All of the above

42.

Which of the following is an example of a compliance audit?

a)

Evaluate whether the computerized payroll processing for a Chinese subsidiary is operating efficiently and effectively

b)

Determine whether bank requirements for loan continuation have been met

c)

Annual audit of Vinamilk’s financial statements

d)

All of the above

43.

Which of the following statements about auditing standards is correct?

a)

Auditing standards are general practice guidelines for accountants

b)

Auditing standards are preconditions for audit firms to sign audit contracts with clients

c)

Auditing standards are regulations and guidelines for conducting audits, as well as address the relationships and issues that arise during the audit process

d)

None of the above

44.

After reviewing the audit files, the audit manager discovers that the finance director of the audited firm and the audit partner have known each other for many years and frequently spent time together with their families. Which ethical threat does this situation present?

a)

Self interest

b)

Self review

c)

Familiarity

d)

Intimidation

45.

In which phase of the audit process are the level of materiality and risk assessment determined?

a)

Planning and design

b)

Performing audit tests

c)

Completing and reporting

d)

None of the above

46.

The auditor receives a gift of a Mez112 car, a new product from the client, while conducting the audit of the client’s financial statements. Which professional ethic does this situation violate?

a)

Independence

b)

Confidentiality

c)

Professional behavior

d)

Professional competence and due care

47.

Which of the following statements about auditing is true?

a)

The primary purpose of auditing in the economy is to facilitate businesses in raising capital from investors

b)

If a business is small and its operations are simple, it does not need to create an audit plan

c)

A business engages an independent audit firm to audit its financial statements to mitigate the manager’s responsibility for those statements

d)

Auditing should be done by a competent, independent person

48.

Filling the blank in the definition of internal control: Internal control is defined in the 2013 COSO Framework as a process, affected by an entity’s board of directors, management, and other personnel, designed to provide reasonable assurance regarding the achievement of ________ relating to operations, reporting, and compliance.

a)

Results

b)

Purposes

c)

Objectives

d)

Assertions

49.

“Do not assign any individual or department within the entity to undertake all functions related to fixed assets, including asset custody, recording, approval of purchases, disposal, and asset sales”. Which component of internal control does this requirement relate to?

a)

Control environment

b)

Risk assessment

c)

Control activities

d)

Information and communication

50.

Which of the following is an inherent limitation of internal control?

a)

The potential for human error

b)

Collusion between employees

c)

The possibility of controls being bypassed or overridden by management

d)

All of the above

51.

Which of the following statements about internal control is false?

a)

Management, through its activities, provides clear signals to employees about the importance of internal control 

b)

Internal control is only affected by the management of the entity

c)

An effective internal control system can only provide a reasonable assurance in achieving an organization's objectives

d)

Internal control is designed, implemented and maintained by those charged with governance, management and other personnel 

52.

To understand internal control of the sales–receivable–cash collection cycle, which audit procedures can auditors apply?

a)

Observation

b)

Inquiry

c)

Documents and inspection

d)

All of the above

53.

Which methods can auditors apply to document their understanding of internal control of the sales–receivable–cash collection cycle?

a)

Narrative notes

b)

Questionnaires

c)

Flowcharts

d)

All of the above

54.

What is referred to as the risk that the auditor expresses an inappropriate audit opinion when the financial statements are materially misstated?

a)

Business risk

b)

Fraud risk

c)

Audit risk

d)

Detection risk

55.

Which of the statements about risk assessment is false?

a)

An understanding of the business risks facing the entity increases the likelihood of identifying risks of material misstatement

b)

The auditor has a responsibility to identify or assess all business risks

c)

The auditor is concerned with fraud that causes a material misstatement in the financial statements

d)

All of the above

56.

Which of the following factors does not affect control risk?

a)

Weakness of control environment

b)

Ineffectiveness of control activities

c)

Lack of tests of controls

d)

Lack of monitoring

57.

The company failed to detect timely fraud by sales employees who inflated revenue to receive higher commissions. Which type of risk is associated with this situation?

a)

Inherent risk

b)

Control risk

c)

Detection risk

d)

Audit risk

58.

Based on evidence gathered and evaluated, an auditor decides to increase the assessed level of control risk from that originally planned. To achieve an overall audit risk level that is substantially the same as the planned audit risk level, the auditor could:

a)

Decrease detection risk

b)

Increase materiality levels

c)

Decrease substantive testing

d)

Increase inherent risk

59.

A client decides not to record an auditor’s proposed adjustments that collectively are not material and wants the auditor to issue the report based on the unadjusted numbers. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the financial statement presentation?

a)

The financial statements are free from material misstatement, and no disclosure is required in the notes to the financial statements.

b)

The financial statements do not conform with accounting standards.

c)

The financial statements contain unadjusted misstatements that should result in a qualified opinion.

d)

The financial statements are free from material misstatement, but disclosure of the proposed adjustment is required in the notes to the financial statements

60.

Which assertion requires that all assets, liabilities and equity interests that should have been recorded are actually recorded?

a)

Existence

b)

Right & Obligations

c)

Completeness

d)

Valuation and allocation

61.

Which statement about assertions is true?

a)

Assertions are used by the auditor to consider the different types of potential misstatements that may occur when identifying, assessing and responding to the risks of material misstatement

b)

Assertions about classes of transactions and events for the period and assertions about account balances at the period end are the same

c)

Completeness assertion is primarily a concern for overstated accounts like revenues and assets

d)

The existence assertion only applies to physical assets, such as inventory or property, plant, and equipment

62.

The auditor selects a sample of transactions from the accounts receivable ledger before and after the year-end and vouches them to related original documents. This audit procedure is carried out to collect evidence to satisfy the assertion of:

a)

Occurrence

b)

Completeness

c)

Accuracy

d)

Cut-off

63.

Evidence is considered “sufficient” when:

a)

It meets the audit objectives

b)

It provides a reasonable basis for forming an opinion on the financial statements.

c)

It is relevant and reliable

d)

It is collected randomly

64.

During the audit at company ABC for the year end 31/12/N, the audit procedure of sending a confirmation letter for accounts payable to the vendor shows that the amount owed to company X on ABC’s books is lower than the confirmed amount of 644,000,000 VND. After reconciliation, the cause is identified as follows: The amount of 644,000,000 VND that company ABC paid via bank transfer to company X on December 28/N was recorded by company X on January 2/N+1. What should the auditor do in this situation?

a)

Accept the account payable balance that was recorded by company ABC

b)

Request an adjustment of increasing in accounts payable to company X by 644,000,000 VND

c)

Recalculate the amount of the account payable to Company X

d)

Send confirmation letters again to company X

65.

To achieve the audit objective regarding the existence of cash balances, which of the following substantive tests may auditors perform?

a)

Select cash receipt documents within the period and check the cash receipts journal to determine if transactions are correctly recorded in the accounting period

b)

Select cash receipt transactions in the cash receipts journal within the period to determine if there are sufficient valid original documents

c)

Witness the physical cash count

d)

Select cash disbursement documents within the period and check if the documents are properly approved

66.

Which of the following completion procedures must auditors perform before forming an audit opinion?

a)

Reviewing contingent liabilities

b)

Evaluating going concern status

c)

Reviewing subsequent events

d)

All of the above

67.

Filling the blank in this statement: ______ are events that occur between the date of the financial statements and the date of the auditor’s report, and facts that become known to the auditor after the date of the auditor’s report.

a)

Contingent liabilities

b)

Going concern status

c)

Subsequent events

d)

Material misstatements

68.

What type of audit opinion is expressed by the auditor when they conclude that the financial statements are prepared, in all material respects, in accordance with the applicable financial reporting framework?

a)

Unmodified opinion

b)

Qualified opinion

c)

Adverse opinion

d)

Disclaimer of opinion

69.

Which of the following is not a required element of a standard unmodified opinion audit report issued in accordance with VSAs/ISAs?

a)

A title that emphasizes the report is from an independent auditor

b)

A statement explaining management’s responsibilities for the financial statements

c)

The signature of the auditor’s firm

d)

The list of team members of the audit

70.

In what circumstances does an auditor express a qualified opinion?

a)

The auditor, having obtained sufficient appropriate audit evidence, concludes that misstatements, individually or in the aggregate, are material, but not pervasive, to the financial statements.

b)

The auditor is unable to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence on which to base the opinion, but the auditor concludes that the possible effects on the financial statements of undetected misstatements, if any, could be material but not pervasive.

c)

Both a and b

d)

Neither a nor b

71.

Where in the audit report should the auditor express the scope limitation for a qualified opinion due to the insufficiency of audit evidence?

a)

Auditor’s responsibility paragraph

b)

Opinion paragraph

c)

Notes to the financial statement

d)

Introduction paragraph

72.

The auditor could not witness the cash count but performed alternative procedures and obtained sufficient appropriate evidence. All other items are free from material misstatement. Which audit opinion should the auditor express?

a)

Unmodified opinion.

b)

Unmodified opinion with an “other matter” paragraph.

c)

Unmodified opinion with an “emphasis of matter” paragraph.

d)

Disclaimer of opinion.

73.

Which statement is incorrect about audit report?

a)

Before issuing the audit report, the auditor needs to review the information attached to the financial statements

b)

The auditor’s report shall be dated no earlier than the date on which the auditor has obtained sufficient appropriate audit evidence on which to base the auditor’s opinion on the financial statements

c)

The "emphasis of matter" paragraph is only used for audit reports with an unmodified opinion

d)

The auditor’s signature is either in the name of the audit firm, the personal name of the auditor or both, as appropriate for the particular jurisdiction

74.

If the auditor is unable to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence and the potential effects of undetected misstatements (if any) could be material and pervasive to the financial statements, which audit opinion should the auditor express?

a)

Unqualified opinion

b)

Qualified opinion

c)

Adverse opinion

d)

Disclaimer of opinion

75.

Which of the following statements about Emphasis of Matter paragraph is true?

a)

A paragraph included in the auditor’s report that refers to a matter appropriately presented or disclosed in the financial statements that, in the auditor’s judgment, is of such importance paragraph that it is fundamental to users’ understanding of the financial statements

b)

A paragraph included in the auditor’s report that refers to a matter other than those presented or disclosed in the financial statements that, in the auditor’s judgment, is relevant to users’ understanding of the audit, the auditor’s responsibilities or the auditor’s report

c)

Both a and b are incorrect

d)

Both a and b are correct

76.

Which of the following statements is incorrect about audit procedures the auditor can use to detect subsequent events?

a)

Reviewing accounting records or transactions occurring between the date of the financial statements and the date of the auditor’s report

b)

Inquiring of management and, where appropriate, those charged with governance

c)

Disregarding events occurring after the financial statement date that do not affect income, as they are not relevant to the audit

d)

Inspecting minutes, if any, of the meetings of the entity’s owners, management, and those charged with governance that have been held after the date of the financial statements

77.

Which of the following statements is correct? 

a)

When considering the impact of errors on the financial statements, the auditor only needs to consider detected errors and does not need to focus on estimated or predicted errors, as there is no specific evidence for those errors

b)

When considering the impact of errors on the financial statements, the auditor must consider both detected errors and estimated or predicted errors

c)

When considering the impact of errors on the financial statements, the auditor must consider all errors, and if adjustments are needed, the auditor may request the entity to adjust both detected errors and estimated or predicted errors

d)

All of the above are correct

78.

Due to the audit contract being signed after December 31, the auditor could not attend the fixed asset count at the audit client and also could not perform alternative audit procedures. The auditor concludes that misstatements, individually or in the aggregate, are material but not pervasive to the financial statements. Which type of audit opinion should be issued in this situation?

a)

Unmodified opinion

b)

Qualified opinion

c)

Adverse opinion

d)

Disclaimer of opinion

79.

Four weeks after the year-end date, a major customer of Prince Construction Co. declared bankruptcy. Because the customer had confirmed the balance due to Prince at the balance sheet date, management refuses to charge off the account or otherwise disclose the information. The receivable represents approximately 10% of accounts receivable and 20% of net earnings before taxes. Which type of audit opinion should be issued in this situation?

a)

Unmodified opinion

b)

Qualified opinion or adverse opinion

c)

Qualified opinion or disclaimer of opinion

d)

None of the above

80.

A number of frozen yogurt stores have opened in the last few years and your client, YogurtLand, has experienced a noticeable decline in customer traffic over the past 13 months that has caused you to have substantial doubt about YogurtLand’s ability to continue as a going concern. Assuming there are no other material misstatements in the financial statements, which type of audit opinion should be issued in this situation?

a)

Unmodified opinion

b)

Unmodified opinion with an Emphasis of matter paragraph

c)

Unmodified opinion with an Other matter paragraph

d)

Adverse opinion

81.

John Smith, an auditor at XYZ Audit Firm, assisted ABC Corporation in preparing its financial statements, including developing new accounting policies and posting journal entries. He was later engaged to audit those same financial statements. Which ethical threat does this situation present?

a)

Self-interest

b)

Self-review

c)

Familiarity

d)

Intimidation

82.

Which of the following situations would prohibit an audit firm from performing an audit for an entity?

a)

The audit firm performed bookkeeping services for the entity in the immediately preceding year

b)

The entity is a private company

c)

The audit firm has audited the entity for three consecutive years

d)

All of the above are incorrect

83.

An auditor does not attend regular professional training courses or seminars to update their knowledge and skills as required by professional regulations. This behavior may result in outdated knowledge and negatively affect the quality of audit work. Which ethical principle has the auditor violated?

a)

Violation of the principle of independence due to a lack of objectivity in judgment

b)

Violation of the principle of integrity due to dishonesty in professional conduct

c)

Violation of the principle of professional competence and due care due to failure to maintain and update professional knowledge

d)

Violation of the principle of professional behavior due to damaging personal and organizational reputation

84.

During a training session, an audit senior asks new staff to recall the primary purpose of internal control as defined in auditing standards. Internal control is designed primarily to:

a)

Eliminate all risks faced by an entity

b)

Guarantee the accuracy of financial statements

c)

Provide reasonable assurance regarding the achievement of objectives

d)

Replace the need for external audit

85.

“Each month, the internal audit department prepares a plan to review operations of various departments as requested by management, and reports findings to management and the Supervisory Board.” This relates to which component of internal control?

a)

Control environment

b)

Risk assessment

c)

Information and communication

d)

Monitoring of controls

86.

While planning the audit, the engagement team discusses risks that exist before considering internal controls. Inherent risk is best described as the risk of:

a)

Auditor issuing an inappropriate opinion

b)

Internal controls failing to detect misstatements

c)

Material misstatement before considering related controls

d)

Management override of controls only

87.

An auditor evaluates whether the client’s controls can prevent or detect material misstatements. Control risk refers to the risk that:

a)

Financial statements contain fraud

b)

Auditors fail to detect misstatements

c)

Internal controls fail to prevent or detect material misstatements

d)

Business objectives are not achieved

88.

Which of the following audit procedures is most appropriate to perform tests of control in the sales–receivables–cash collection cycle?

a)

Recalculation

b)

Inspection of documents

c)

External confirmation

d)

Physical inventory count

89.

In Company E, one employee is responsible for authorizing transactions, recording them, and maintaining custody of related assets. This situation primarily increases which type of audit risk?

a)

Inherent risk

b)

Control risk

c)

Detection risk

d)

Business risk

90.

Which of the following statements about risk assessment is false?

a)

Understanding the business risks facing the entity increases the likelihood of identifying risks of material misstatement

b)

The auditor has a responsibility to identify or assess all business risks

c)

The auditor is concerned with fraud that causes a material misstatement in the financial statements

d)

All of the above

91.

After evaluating internal controls, the auditor concludes that control risk is high. How should the auditor most appropriately respond?

a)

Reduce substantive audit procedures

b)

Increase reliance on internal controls

c)

Increase the extent of substantive procedures

d)

Issue a qualified opinion immediately

92.

An audit team evaluates different sources of evidence obtained during the audit. Which type of audit evidence is generally considered the most reliable?

a)

Oral explanations provided by management

b)

Internally generated documents without controls

c)

Evidence obtained directly by the auditor (e.g., observation, recalculation)

d)

Copies of documents provided by the client

93.

While planning the audit, the auditor performs ratio and trend analysis on financial information. Analytical procedures primarily involve:

a)

Physical inspection of assets

b)

Inquiry of management only

c)

Evaluation of financial information through analysis of relationships and trends

d)

Confirmation with external parties

94.

An auditor debates whether the evidence obtained is adequate to support the audit opinion. The concept of sufficiency of audit evidence relates to:

a)

The quantity of evidence obtained

b)

The relevance of evidence to assertions

c)

The quality and reliability of evidence

d)

The timing of audit procedures

95.

Inventory represents a significant portion of total assets. The auditor needs to verify whether inventory recorded in the financial statements actually exists. Which audit procedure provides the most appropriate evidence regarding the existence of inventory?

a)

Reviewing purchase invoices

b)

Performing analytical procedures

c)

Observing the physical inventory count

d)

Inquiry of warehouse personnel

96.

The auditor evaluates whether inventory is stated at the lower of cost and net realizable value. This audit work is most directly related to which assertion?

a)

Existence

b)

Valuation and allocation

c)

Rights and obligations

d)

Completeness

97.

The auditor reviews the notes to the financial statements to assess whether information is properly classified and understandable. This work primarily relates to which assertion?

a)

Occurrence

b)

Presentation and disclosure

c)

Cut-off

d)

Accuracy

98.

The auditor suspects that management may have delayed recording certain supplier invoices until after year-end. Which audit procedure is most appropriate to test the completeness of liabilities?

a)

Confirming accounts receivable with customers

b)

Observing the year-end inventory count

c)

Inspecting subsequent cash disbursements after year-end

d)

Reviewing depreciation schedules

99.

During an internal discussion, an audit senior asks a junior auditor to recall the definition of a disclaimer of opinion. A disclaimer of opinion is most appropriately issued when the auditor:

a)

Identifies material misstatements that are pervasive

b)

Lacks independence

c)

Is unable to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence

d)

Disagrees with management’s estimates

100.

An auditor reviews a prior-year audit report containing an Emphasis of Matter paragraph. The primary purpose of an Emphasis of Matter paragraph is to:

a)

Modify the audit opinion

b)

Highlight matters already disclosed that are fundamental to users’ understanding

c)

Correct material misstatements

d)

Replace note disclosures