wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Page 1

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A single premium policy means a policy

a)

under which only one premium payment is required

b)

requiring only a single premium each year

c)

on which no more than one premium can be paid in advance

d)

only available to single individuals

2.

A fixed amount added to the premium of a given policy regardless of policy size is known as

a)

Policy values

b)

Policy reserve

c)

Extra premium

d)

Policy fee

3.

To be able to calculate the required premiums for a given policy, the agent must know the applicant’s

a)

age

b)

choice of plan

c)

face amount desired

d)

all of the above

4.

To calculate premiums for the other modes of premium payment the annual premium is

a)

multiplied by a constant conversion factor

b)

multiplied by a conversion factor for the mode of payment desired

c)

divided by a conversion factor for the mode of payment desired

d)

divided by the desired number of premium payments

5.

Benefits payable under health insurance policies cover

a)

expense reimbursement benefits

b)

disability income benefits

c)

all of the above

d)

accidental death and dismemberment benefits

6.

With employer-employee groups, an employee does not fill out personal application for insurance. Instead he merely fills out

a)

A certificate of insurance coverage

b)

A salary deduction form

c)

A registration card

d)

An enrollment card

7.

In the event an employee leaves the company in which he is a member of its group insurance policy, his group coverage can be changed to individual policy using the

a)

Policy change form

b)

Policy exchange facility

c)

Conversion privilege

d)

Change of plan provision

8.

For a contract to be legal and binding

a)

Parties to the contract must be legally competent

b)

Parties to the contract must possess blood relationship

c)

Parties to the contract must be members of the bar

d)

Parties to the contract be above 21

9.

Identify the role of a father who signs a life insurance contract on behalf of his child.

a)

Applicant-owner

b)

Insurer

c)

Insured

d)

Beneficiary

10.

When must insurable interest exist for life insurance coverage to be valid?

a)

At issue and possibly at loan time

b)

Throughout the lifetime

c)

Only at loan time

d)

Only at policy inception

11.

A life insurance contract does not take effect unless which condition is met?

a)

Policy delivered to authorized party

b)

At least two beneficiaries named

c)

First premium paid to insurer

d)

No insurability change between dates

12.

Which group would generally NOT be practical to name as beneficiaries?

a)

Children by former marriage

b)

Someone to whom you owe money

c)

Brothers and sisters

d)

Someone who owes you money

13.

Under law, who can be named irrevocable beneficiaries?

a)

Only minor children

b)

Only the wife

c)

Wife and children only

d)

Any person with insurable interest

14.

If life insurance proceeds are left with the company to earn interest, which tax applies?

a)

Income tax on proceeds

b)

Donor’s tax on proceeds

c)

Estate tax on proceeds

d)

Income tax on interest earnings

15.

A person has insurable interest in the life of whom?

a)

Any person with pecuniary interest

b)

A dependent providing support or education

c)

His child or grandchild

d)

All of the above

16.

Choose the best description of 'beneficiary' in a life policy.

a)

Entity paying the premiums

b)

Company issuing the policy

c)

Agent delivering the policy

d)

Party receiving the proceeds

17.

Select the scenario that most clearly shows insurable interest.

a)

Purchasing on a debtor you rely on

b)

Insuring a famous celebrity

c)

Insuring someone you owe money to

d)

Buying a policy on a stranger

18.

Which action most directly activates a newly issued life insurance policy?

a)

Paying the first premium

b)

Changing the insurability date

c)

Naming three beneficiaries

d)

Filing a loan request

19.

Anybody can be designated a beneficiary except

a)

All of the above choices

b)

Minors named on the policy

c)

A creditor of the policyholder

d)

Those prohibited by donation laws

20.

The common practice for most life insurers is that life insurance goes into force

a)

By legal stipulation in Insurance Code

b)

When agent issues a binding receipt

c)

When application is received at branch

d)

When policy is delivered to applicant

21.

The parties involved in a life insurance contract are the

a)

Insurance company and agent

b)

Insured and beneficiary only

c)

Insurance company and insured

d)

Agent and insured together

22.

According to insurance law, a common‑law spouse cannot be designated a beneficiary

a)

All of the above apply

b)

Because common‑law is immoral

c)

If a legal partner is still living

d)

Because marriage brings no benefit

23.

Which provision in a permanent life policy may lapse for non‑payment of premium?

a)

Guaranteed insurability clause

b)

Automatic premium loan feature

c)

Reinstatement provision clause

d)

Settlement options section

24.

The convertible feature of a term policy provides the policy may be

a)

Changed to permanent with evidence

b)

Cashed for a guaranteed sum value

c)

Changed to another insured life

d)

Changed to permanent without evidence

25.

Within two years of buying a policy, you are accidentally killed when your car hits a tree. In these circumstances the insurer will

a)

Refund premiums as suicide case

b)

Pay nothing at all

c)

Pay the policy face amount

d)

Pay double the face amount

26.

A policyholder may obtain money from the insurance company and still remain insured by

a)

Taking a policy loan

b)

Taking the extended insurance option

c)

Discontinuing payment of premium for some period

d)

Surrendering the policy for its cash value

27.

When you bought an insurance policy on your wife’s life you were 27 and she was 26, but you stated that you were 26 and she was 27. Five years later your wife died. The insurance company will pay

a)

The face amount adjusted for misstatement of age

b)

Slightly less than the face amount

c)

The sum of the premium paid

d)

The face amount

28.

When explaining dividends, the following information must be supplied

a)

That they are not guaranteed

b)

The dividends paid up in the previous years

c)

The anticipated dividends

d)

The relation to the cost of the policy

29.

If the insured dies during the grace period of an unpaid life insurance policy, the amount payable to the beneficiary is usually the

a)

Cash surrender value of the policy minus the unpaid premiums

b)

Full face amount

c)

Total premiums paid plus interest

d)

Face amount of the policy minus the unpaid premiums

30.

The typical grace period provision in a life insurance policy obliges the life insurance company to

a)

None of the above

b)

Allow the policy owner a three-month extension beyond the due date to make the late premium payment without penalty

c)

Keep the policy in force for the duration of any major disability suffered by the policyowner

d)

Establish a policy loan to cover any premium which the policyowner fails to pay by due date

31.

Automatic premium loan differs from other policy loans in that an automatic premium loan

a)

Need not be repaid by the policy owner

b)

Must be repaid during the policy year in which it is granted

c)

Goes into effect requiring no separate action from the policy owner

d)

Involves higher interest payments because of the greater cost of administration

32.

When a policy is assigned absolutely

a)

The assignee acquires all the rights and interests of the original policyholder

b)

None of the above

c)

The original policyholder still can exercise some of the rights

d)

The original beneficiary is not changed

33.

If a policy did not contain the name of a beneficiary, the beneficiary will be

a)

The insured estate

b)

The insured’s brothers and sisters

c)

The children

d)

The wife

34.

If the policyowner does not pay a premium on the due date, the policy will immediately

a)

Continue in full force for a grace period

b)

Lapse

c)

Be converted to a paid-up policy for a lesser amount

d)

Go into automatic premium loan

35.

If a policyowner whose wife is the irrevocable beneficiary wishes to cash in his policy, he must

a)

Have the wife’s consent

b)

Tell his wife what he is going to do

c)

First take a loan on the policy

d)

Have the check issued in the name of his wife

36.

Choose the incorrect statement: The entire contract between the policyowner and the insurance company include

a)

Any subsequent written amendments to the contract

b)

Any document attached to the policy when issued

c)

Any verbal statement made by the agent to the applicant

d)

The application and the policy

37.

If a loan is taken on a participating policy, dividends for that policy while there is a loan against the policy will be

a)

Increased

b)

Paid in a reduced rate

c)

Suspended

d)

Unaffected

38.

Interest is charged on policy loans

a)

For registered policies only

b)

If the loan is outstanding for more than a year, a loan repaid within a year is interest free

c)

To replace investment income the insurer cannot earn since a loan has been granted

d)

For participating policies only

39.

An insurance plan which offers both protection and savings is called

a)

Non-participating plan

b)

Participating plan

c)

Permanent plan

d)

Temporary plan

40.

A man with moderate means can have maximum protection possible through

a)

Whole life insurance

b)

Term insurance

c)

20 Yr. Endowment

d)

Limited pay life

41.

Mr. Juan Valdez wants a policy which will entitle him to receive dividends yearly. What will you recommend to Mr. Valdez?

a)

Term insurance

b)

Non-participating Plans

c)

Participating plan

d)

None of the above

42.

Which of the following can give the longest protection?

a)

Ordinary life

b)

20 yr term

c)

Endowment at 65

d)

20 yr. Endowment

43.

An individual at age 35 purchases a policy under which he will in 20 years receive the face amount of the policy himself, if he is still alive at that date. This policy is obviously a

a)

20 yr. Term

b)

20 pay life

c)

None of the above

d)

20 yr. Endowment

44.

In a 20 Life policy

a)

Protection is for 20 years, payment of premiums until age 100

b)

Protection is until age 100, payment of premium is for age 20 years

c)

Protection is until age 100, payment of premiums until age 100

d)

Protection is for 20 years, payment of premium is for 20 years

45.

A participating plan entitles the policyowner to receive a return of excess premiums. Such is termed as:

a)

Endowments

b)

Dividends

c)

Cash surrender value

d)

Cash values

46.

Mrs. Rose Cortez owns a policy which does not provide for the build up of cash values and whose premiums remain level. Mrs. Cortez owns:

a)

Decreasing term

b)

Limited Pay Life

c)

Ordinary Life

d)

Level Term

47.

Two attractive features of a term insurance are:

a)

Convertibility and renewability

b)

Convertibility and cash values

c)

Cash values and dividends

d)

Protection and dividends

48.

A term insurance which allows the policyowners to convert it to a permanent insurance within a specified period without evidence of insurability contains ________ feature:

a)

Convertibility

b)

Both a & b

c)

Dividend option

d)

Renewability

49.

A term policy only offers

a)

Cash values

b)

Protection

c)

Savings

d)

Dividends

50.

The main difference between a term plan and a permanent plan is

a)

Permanent plans can be converted and renewed while term plans cannot

b)

All of the above

c)

Permanent plans provide savings and dividends while term plans provide savings only

d)

Permanent plans provide both protection and savings while term plans offer protection only

51.

The savings element of permanent plans allows for the build up of

a)

Death benefits

b)

Cash values

c)

Dividends

d)

Maturity benefits

52.

A term rider is

a)

A term insurance added to a permanent plan

b)

A renewable term policy

c)

Another name for a convertible term policy

d)

A term policy with a waiver of premium

53.

An optional rider which can be attached to a policy stopping further premium payments in the event of disability is called

a)

Total disability monthly income

b)

Waiver of premium

c)

Accidental death and dismemberment

d)

Policyholder protection clause

54.

Which statement best describes convertibility in term insurance?

a)

Cancelling premiums after a disability occurs

b)

Adding dividend options to a term contract

c)

Renewing the same term for another fixed period

d)

Changing to permanent coverage without medical evidence

55.

Which feature allows a term policy to continue past its original expiry without a new medical exam?

a)

Dividend option

b)

Renewability

c)

Waiver of premium

d)

Cash value accumulation

56.

In permanent life insurance, accumulated cash value most directly supports which benefit?

a)

Higher accidental death payouts

b)

Short-term premium holidays

c)

Guaranteed renewable periods

d)

Automatic term conversion fees

57.

For the waiver of premium to be effective, which condition must be met?

a)

Disability must be total

b)

Disability must be permanent

c)

Both total and permanent

d)

Either total or permanent

58.

If a policy with an accidental death rider becomes paid‑up, what happens to the rider?

a)

The face amount is reduced

b)

Nothing changes with the rider

c)

Basic premiums stop but rider continues

d)

The rider coverage ceases

59.

Disability benefits are not paid under which circumstance?

a)

For self‑inflicted injuries

b)

If sickness was the only cause

c)

If there is a policy loan

d)

If all dividends were withdrawn

60.

Mr. Pedro Cruz became paralyzed after attempting suicide. Under a disability income policy, what benefit would apply?

a)

Total disability benefit and waiver

b)

Partial disability benefits only

c)

Waiver of premiums granted

d)

No disability income or waiver

61.

Which rider offers greater coverage for least premium on a permanent life policy?

a)

Waiver of premium rider

b)

Term insurance rider

c)

Guaranteed insurability rider

d)

Accidental death rider

62.

A payor’s benefit rider is intended to do which of the following?

a)

Return premiums to adult payor on minor’s death

b)

Provide waiver of premium if payor dies or is disabled

c)

Let insurer pay proceeds to equitable claimant

d)

Assure adult payor’s vested interest at majority

63.

Identify the key reason accidental death riders cease when the base policy becomes paid‑up.

a)

Insurer cancels riders automatically

b)

Face amount becomes insufficient

c)

Riders require ongoing premium

d)

Paid‑up policies prohibit riders

64.

Why are self‑inflicted injuries excluded from disability benefits?

a)

To comply with tax law

b)

To equalize underwriting risk

c)

To prevent moral hazard

d)

To reduce administrative costs

65.

Which situation most likely qualifies for waiver of premium under a disability rider?

a)

Minor injury from hobby

b)

Voluntary unemployment

c)

Total disability from illness

d)

Temporary partial disability

66.

Which rider best protects a minor’s policy if the payor cannot pay premiums?

a)

Dividend option rider

b)

Accidental death rider

c)

Guaranteed insurability rider

d)

Payor’s benefit rider

67.

If an insured is disabled and the life insurance policy continues in force through a waiver of premium, the dividends of the policy would

a)

Cease

b)

Continue but applied toward the waived premium

c)

Continue at reduced rate

d)

Continue as if the owner is paying the premium

68.

A policy with a minor as the proposed insured is called

a)

Substandard policy

b)

Rated policy

c)

Regular policy

d)

Juvenile policy

69.

Life insurance policies for which higher-than-standard premium rates are payable are said to be

a)

Conditional policies

b)

Non-participating policies

c)

Contingent policies

d)

Rated policies

70.

Since purchasing life insurance is a voluntary choice, the individual must meet

a)

Minimum income requirement

b)

Certain standards of health and occupation

c)

Comprehensive inspection report

d)

All of the above

71.

Which factor would have the least effect on the premium charged for life insurance?

a)

Age

b)

Income

c)

All of the above

d)

Occupation

72.

Anti-selection occurs

a)

When an agent thinks only of his own interest

b)

When you buy bad stocks expecting improvement

c)

When persons in poor health wish to buy insurance

d)

When an insurer accepts more than a share of poor risks

73.

In insurance, risk means

a)

Chances of the beneficiary being paid

b)

Chances of you being paid by the company

c)

Hazard on people’s lives

d)

None of the above

74.

Which statement best explains why insurers use rated policies?

a)

To guarantee dividends regardless of claims

b)

To eliminate underwriting altogether

c)

To cover applicants presenting higher-than-standard risk

d)

To reward exceptionally healthy applicants

75.

Why might income have less impact on premium than age or occupation?

a)

Income directly changes mortality tables

b)

Income legally mandates higher rates

c)

Income poorly predicts claims probability

d)

Income always increases insurer administrative costs

76.

Choose the scenario that best illustrates anti-selection in a life insurance context.

a)

Insurers promoting wellness discounts widely

b)

Agents selling only to affluent neighborhoods

c)

Smokers seeking coverage after recent diagnosis

d)

Healthy runners buying basic term coverage

77.

In an insurance application, what information must the applicant disclose?

a)

Only what the agent wants to know

b)

Only date and place of birth

c)

Only family history

d)

Every material fact within knowledge

78.

Which source of information do insurance companies use when assessing an applicant?

a)

Application form

b)

Medical information bureau

c)

Inspection report

d)

All of the above

79.

How are insurance risks commonly classified?

a)

Standard, substandard, declined

b)

Complete and incomplete

c)

Regular and irregular

d)

Unacceptable and acceptable

80.

A risk may be considered substandard based on which criterion?

a)

Income, educational attainment and occupation

b)

Death, occupation and moral character

c)

Death income and educational background

d)

Occupation, moral character and family history

81.

Which statement best defines a hazardous occupation?

a)

Exposes insured to social hazards

b)

Unhealthy work exposes to sickness

c)

All of the above

d)

Duties expose insured to injury danger

82.

In application forms, statements are generally treated as what?

a)

Guarantees

b)

None of the above

c)

Representation

d)

Warranties

83.

An applicant hospitalized for three years must provide which details with the application?

a)

Date of confinement only

b)

Doctor’s name, diagnosis, confinement dates

c)

Bill and medicines

d)

Doctor’s name only

84.

Which pair correctly contrasts warranties and representations in insurance applications?

a)

Neither has legal consequences

b)

Warranties are beliefs; representations are promises

c)

Warranties are absolute promises; representations are beliefs

d)

Both are absolute guarantees

85.

Select the most accurate reason an occupation might be deemed hazardous.

a)

Access to employee wellness programs

b)

Routine desk tasks with low strain

c)

Exposure to elements causing sickness

d)

Flexible hours with remote work

86.

Which combination most likely leads to substandard risk classification?

a)

Low-risk occupation and strong character

b)

Nonhazardous duties and stable employment

c)

High income and advanced education

d)

Risky occupation and adverse family history

87.

Insurance companies have a source of confidential medical information on applicants for life insurance. This is the

a)

Agents confidential report bureau

b)

Inspection reports bureau

c)

Financial standing bureau

d)

Medical impairment bureau

88.

An agent is filling up the Agent’s Confidential Report. What information must be put in his report?

a)

a & b only

b)

Information about insured’s finances

c)

Information about insured’s standing in the community

d)

All information he knows which are material to the application for insurance

89.

An annuity plan

a)

offers life insurance protection

b)

is a purchase of income

c)

offers the waiver of premium benefit

d)

is the same as an endowment plan

90.

The person who purchases the annuity plan is called the

a)

assignor

b)

owner

c)

annuitant

d)

insured

91.

A life insurance company earns income from two main sources

a)

dividend income and interest income

b)

premium income and investment income

c)

mortgage income and dividend income

d)

mortgage income and premium income

e)

dividend income and premium income

92.

Policy reserves are future obligations on the part of

a)

the beneficiary

b)

the insurance company

c)

the policyowner

d)

the insurance commission

93.

Insurance companies which are owned by the policyowners are examples of

a)

stock companies

b)

family corporation

c)

mutual companies

d)

open-end companies

94.

Which term best describes a company owned by individuals holding shares?

a)

Policyowners hold collective rights

b)

Stockholders own equity shares

c)

Creditors hold debt claims

d)

Government owns public firms

95.

A sale of life insurance is completed when the application is signed and the first premium is paid. Which method aligns with acceptable settlement practices?

a)

Premium must be paid fully in cash

b)

Payment must be by promissory note

c)

Applicant pays in full or part

d)

Medical exam must occur first

96.

Why is the completed application considered the basis of an insurance policy?

a)

It allows accept or reject decisions

b)

It guides future sales data

c)

It has no legal relevance

d)

It avoids contract necessity

97.

Which statement about life insurance agents’ advertising is accurate?

a)

All advertising is prohibited

b)

Agents should push profitable policies

c)

Client information must be confidential

d)

Agents may not name their company

98.

Which statement regarding life insurance applications is the exception?

a)

Statements are warranties

b)

Made part of policy contract

c)

Misstatements could void policy

d)

Must be signed by applicant

99.

Before granting a license, what proof does the Insurance Commissioner require?

a)

Clean employment record

b)

Reasonable educational background

c)

Agent’s character and reputation

d)

All of the above

100.

What is the maximum single-claim amount the Insurance Commissioner may adjudicate against companies?

a)

50,000.00

b)

100,000.00

c)

250,000.00

d)

1,000,000.00

101.

Evaluate the sales completion scenario: the applicant signs and pays by cash partly, with a note for the balance. What outcome follows?

a)

Medical exam required first

b)

Sale is completed as specified

c)

Sale remains incomplete

d)

Policy must be issued first

102.

When an agent advertises services to the press, which limitation applies?

a)

Cannot mention company name

b)

Cannot list office address

c)

Cannot state licensing status

d)

Cannot describe policy types

103.

Which application-related misstep could void a policy during the contestable period?

a)

Missing beneficiary details

b)

Failure to attach riders

c)

Misstatements of material facts

d)

Unsigned application pages

104.

Which statement about renewing an insurance agent’s license is correct?

a)

A renewed license is valid only for one month after issuance

b)

Renewal occurs when the commissioner is satisfied all requirements are met

c)

Renewal happens upon receipt of application and fee by the commissioner

d)

A license remains valid during the lifetime of the agent

105.

Why is the insurance industry under government regulations?

a)

It primarily functions as a charitable institution

b)

It pays exceptionally high corporate taxes

c)

It always and directly affects public interest

d)

It must account for money spent in company operations

106.

Which statement best describes agents sharing commissions?

a)

Agents are not allowed to share commissions with any person

b)

Sharing is allowed with another licensed agent or agents

c)

Sharing is allowed on whole life policies but not term policies

d)

Sharing with any other person is called twisting

107.

Which statement about insurance practices is correct?

a)

Premium rebating can only be authorized by the insurer’s head office

b)

An agent may not identify the insurer’s name on personal letterhead

c)

Agents may act for two insurers simultaneously under the same license

d)

Rebating of premiums by an insurance agent is prohibited

108.

Inducing a policyowner to surrender or lapse a policy and replace it with another company’s policy is called what?

a)

Rebating

b)

Twisting

c)

Knocking

d)

Discounting

109.

What is the most accurate definition of rebating in insurance?

a)

Providing false information to gain advantage

b)

Dating the policy a month earlier than actual

c)

Offering premium discrimination to policyholders

d)

Giving back part of the premium as an incentive

110.

An insurance agent’s license can be revoked for which reason?

a)

Fraudulent practices in selling policies

b)

Violating any provision of the insurance code

c)

Misrepresentation in the license application

d)

Any or all of these reasons

111.

A company policy allowing agents to act for two insurers at the same time under one license would violate which rule?

a)

Prohibition against rebating premiums

b)

Restriction on identifying insurer on letterhead

c)

Ban on twisting and knocking practices

d)

Prohibition on dual representation under same license

112.

If an agent offers to return part of the premium to secure a sale, what practice is this?

a)

Knocking the competitor’s product

b)

Discounting as a sales promotion

c)

Twisting through misrepresentation

d)

Rebating prohibited by regulation

113.

When a policyowner is persuaded to drop coverage to buy a replacement policy elsewhere, which ethical concern is primary?

a)

The act constitutes twisting rather than knocking

b)

The surrender breaches lifetime license validity

c)

The commissioner must pre-approve the surrender

d)

The replacement may involve prohibited rebating

114.

One example covered under ethical practices and procedures is

a)

Keep all policyholders information confidential

b)

Never drink in front of a client at lunch

c)

Always recommend a will to each client

d)

Always pick up the first premium with application

115.

The term knocking means

a)

Average years a person will live shown by table

b)

Making derogatory remarks about competing underwriters

c)

Promising two annuitants fixed income while both live

d)

None of the above choices apply

116.

Which of the following are unethical practices in solicitation and procurement of insurance except

a)

Obtaining a license by fraud or misrepresentation

b)

Misrepresenting terms or advantages of any policy

c)

Inducing a policyholder to lapse or surrender a policy

d)

Misleading estimates of dividends or surplus shares

117.

Twisting is best described as

a)

Paying a premium on one policy using another’s dividends

b)

Attempt by insurer to secure services of agent from another

c)

Replacing a policy in one company with another company

d)

An offense which does not apply to variable concepts

118.

The misstatement of facts by either party of insurance to the other, preliminary and in reference to making the contract, is

a)

Twisting

b)

Misrepresentation

c)

Knocking

d)

Overloading

119.

Selling a person more insurance than warranted by his sources is called

a)

Twisting

b)

Overloading

c)

Rebating

d)

Knocking

120.

An agent is prohibited from all of the following except

a)

Refunding some of his commission to his client

b)

Altering an application without prior written approval

c)

Making complete comparisons of his and competing policies

d)

Convincing a client to cancel a policy to buy another

121.

Which action constitutes misrepresentation in insurance practice?

a)

Providing accurate dividend projections with caveats

b)

Comparing policy features side by side fairly

c)

Using derogatory remarks to persuade a prospect

d)

Stating false benefits or terms of a policy

122.

Inducing a policyholder to lapse, forfeit, or surrender a policy he holds for another company is an example of

a)

Knocking

b)

Twisting

c)

Rebating

d)

Ethical solicitation

123.

Keeping policyholder information confidential primarily addresses which ethical principle?

a)

Justice

b)

Beneficence

c)

Privacy

d)

Autonomy

124.

Inducing an insured to lapse or forfeit his insurance

a)

Is not allowed by the contract conditions

b)

Is an offense in the great majority of cases

c)

Is always to the policyholder’s advantage

d)

Is entirely at the agent’s discretion

125.

The suicide clause is in effect for

a)

The first six months

b)

The first year

c)

The first eighteen months

d)

The first two years

126.

The three non‑forfeiture values in a permanent policy are

a)

Waiver of premium, reinstatement, policy loan

b)

Cash dividends, bonus additions, extended term

c)

Cash surrender value, loan value, assignment

d)

Cash surrender value, paid‑up value, extended term

127.

If a policyholder elects the paid‑up insurance option, what happens?

a)

Premiums stop and coverage continues to age sixty‑five

b)

Premiums cease and protection continues with reduced coverage

c)

Insurance continues with reduced amount and reduced premium

d)

The policy will automatically terminate immediately

128.

Which are the basic settlement options?

a)

Extended term, paid‑up additions, accumulation at interest

b)

Fixed amount, fixed period, interest, fixed period and life

c)

Double indemnity, total disability, waiver of premium

d)

Cash surrender value, automatic premium loan

129.

In case of misstatement of age, what occurs?

a)

Policy cancelled and a new one issued for correct age

b)

The insured person can be changed to another person

c)

Insurance amount adjusted to correct‑age premium would buy

d)

Policy remains in force and the company cannot contest it

130.

Which of the following is a settlement option?

a)

Policy loan

b)

Cash surrender value

c)

Interest on insurance proceeds

d)

Extended term insurance option

131.

Electing paid‑up insurance primarily results in

a)

Immediate policy termination without benefits

b)

Continuation of coverage with reduced amount

c)

Conversion to extended term without premiums

d)

Higher premiums with unchanged coverage

132.

Non‑forfeiture values are designed to

a)

Provide benefits when premiums stop

b)

Replace settlement options entirely

c)

Eliminate all surrender penalties entirely

d)

Increase death benefits automatically

133.

A policy loan is best described as

a)

An automatic extension of term

b)

A settlement choice for beneficiaries

c)

A dividend paid to the insured

d)

A loan secured by cash value

134.

Name the provision in a permanent life insurance policy under which, if the premium are discontinued, full insurance coverage will be maintained for a specified period

a)

Paid-up insurance

b)

Life income option

c)

Paid-up additions

d)

Extended term insurance

135.

Which one of the following is not derived from the non-forfeiture values

a)

Dividends

b)

Paid-up insurance

c)

Extended term insurance

d)

Cash surrender value

136.

Mr. Dela Cruz stated in his application that he was 30 years of age and a policy was issued to him on that basis. When he died twenty years later it was found out that, in fact, he was 34 years of age at the time of his application. In conformity with the Insurance Code, the company

a)

Paid the amount of insurance payable to his beneficiary reduced in relation to his actual age at the time the contract was signed

b)

Paid one-half of the face value of the policy

c)

Need not pay the face value of the policy, but refund all premiums paid

d)

Paid the full face value of the policy without any extra charges

137.

In the event that the policyowner elects the paid-up insurance option

a)

Premiums cease and protection continues for a reduced amount

b)

Premiums stop and the policy continues for a full face amount until age 65

c)

The policy will automatically terminate

d)

Insurance continues at a reduced amount and with reduced premium

138.

If a policyowner commits suicide within one year. What’s the company’s liability?

a)

The company is not liable at all

b)

The company would be liable for the payment of the premiums paid by the insured only

c)

None of the above

d)

The company would be liable for the payment of the face value of the policy

139.

Which of the non-forfeiture option gives the largest amount of protection?

a)

All of the above give equal protection

b)

Fully paid insurance

c)

Cash surrender value

d)

Extended term insurance

140.

Any policy which has lapsed can be reinstated subject to normal conditions of proof of insurability within

a)

Three years

b)

Six months

c)

One year

141.

Life insurance is best described as what type of plan?

a)

A cooperative risk sharing plan

b)

A speculative risk

c)

Only available to a specific group

d)

A luxury afforded by the rich

142.

Who calculates principal elements to set life insurance premium rates?

a)

Actuary

b)

Insurance commissioner

c)

Life agent

d)

Senior statistician

143.

Because buying life insurance is voluntary, which requirement must an individual meet?

a)

A minimum income figure

b)

A satisfactory medical examination

c)

Certain standards of health and occupation

d)

A comprehensive inspection

144.

What is the fundamental advantage of using insurance to meet economic losses?

a)

Spread over a large number of people

b)

Deferred for a specified period of time

c)

Reduced for the group as a whole through the multiplier effect

d)

Met as they arise through savings accumulated on an assessment basis

145.

In insurance, what does term loading mean?

a)

Difference between gross and net premiums for overheads

b)

Amount the company lends to the policyholder as security

c)

Amount payable when a loss renders one unfit for insurance

d)

None of the above

146.

Life insurance contributes directly to national welfare primarily by which means?

a)

Encouraging provisions for the future

b)

Accumulating capital for investment

c)

Partially relieving care of dependents

d)

All of the above

147.

Life insurance can provide money when income stops due to which cause?

a)

All of the above

b)

Disability

c)

Death

d)

Retirement

148.

Which role focuses on assumptions and calculations for premiums rather than selling policies?

a)

Life agent

b)

Actuary

c)

Insurance commissioner

d)

Senior statistician

149.

Which statement best captures how insurance handles individual losses?

a)

Losses are spread among many people

b)

Losses are met by personal savings

c)

Losses are delayed for later payment

d)

Losses are reduced by multiplier effects

150.

Which component is included in term loading calculations?

a)

Assessment basis savings

b)

Policy loan amounts

c)

Commissions and taxes

d)

Disability payouts