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Worksheets

Combined MCQs

Total questions: 79

Worksheet time: 40hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which case confirmed that proprietary estoppel is not divided into strict elements?

a)

Ramsden v Dyson

b)

Cobbe v Yeoman’s Row

c)

Gillett v Holt

d)

Thorner v Major

2.

Which is NOT a requirement of proprietary estoppel?

a)

Assurance

b)

Reliance

c)

Detriment

d)

Consideration

3.

An assurance in proprietary estoppel must be:

a)

In writing

b)

Express

c)

Clear enough in context

d)

Legally binding

4.

Which case shows assurances can be implied from conduct?

a)

Cobbe v Yeoman’s Row

b)

Thorner v Major

c)

Jennings v Rice

d)

Crabb v Arun DC

5.

Which case limited proprietary estoppel in commercial negotiations?

a)

Gillett v Holt

b)

Thorner v Major

c)

Cobbe v Yeoman’s Row

d)

Guest v Guest

6.

In reliance, once inducement is shown, who bears the burden of proof?

a)

Claimant

b)

Defendant

c)

Court

d)

Both parties

7.

Which case established a presumption of reliance?

a)

Wayling v Jones

b)

Greasley v Cooke

c)

Campbell v Griffin

d)

Jennings v Rice

8.

Detriment may include:

a)

Emotional distress only

b)

Minor inconvenience

c)

Giving up career opportunities

d)

Mere expectation

9.

Which case confirmed care provided can amount to detriment?

a)

Thorner v Major

b)

Cobbe v Yeoman’s Row

c)

Jennings v Rice

d)

Ramsden v Dyson

10.

The fundamental basis of proprietary estoppel is:

a)

Certainty

b)

Formality

c)

Unconscionability

d)

Contract

11.

The remedy in proprietary estoppel must satisfy:

a)

Full expectation

b)

Minimum equity to do justice

c)

Market value

d)

Contractual damages

12.

Which case established the minimum equity principle?

a)

Jennings v Rice

b)

Crabb v Arun DC

c)

Guest v Guest

d)

Campbell v Griffin

13.

Proportionality is key in which case?

a)

Thorner v Major

b)

Jennings v Rice

c)

Cobbe v Yeoman’s Row

d)

Ramsden v Dyson

14.

Guest v Guest (2022) confirmed:

a)

Expectation always fails

b)

Remedy equals detriment

c)

Full expectation may be enforced

d)

Estoppel is obsolete

15.

A lease of 3 years at best rent is legal under:

a)

s52 LPA 1925

b)

s54(2) LPA 1925

c)

s27 LRA 2002

d)

s2 LP(MP)A 1989

16.

'Best rent' means:

a)

Lowest rent

b)

Fixed rent

c)

Market rent

d)

Premium rent

17.

Which leases override automatically?

a)

Over 7 years

b)

Registered leases only

c)

Legal leases up to 7 years

d)

Equitable leases

18.

Which provision governs overriding leases?

a)

s29 LRA 2002

b)

Sch 3 para 1 LRA 2002

c)

s27 LRA 2002

d)

s33 LRA 2002

19.

Actual occupation requires:

a)

Legal ownership

b)

Physical presence

c)

Registration

d)

Written agreement

20.

Which case defines actual occupation?

a)

Chhokar v Chhokar

b)

Williams & Glyn’s Bank v Boland

c)

Link Lending v Bustard

d)

Saeed v Plustrade

21.

Temporary absence may still be occupation if:

a)

Property is unfurnished

b)

There is intent to return

c)

Absence exceeds one year

d)

Owner is abroad

22.

Which case accepted mental illness absence?

a)

Chhokar v Chhokar

b)

Stockholm Finance

c)

Link Lending v Bustard

d)

Boland

23.

Use of an easement amounts to actual occupation?

a)

Always

b)

Usually

c)

No

d)

If registered

24.

Which case rejected easement = occupation?

a)

Saeed v Plustrade

b)

Chaudhary v Yavuz

c)

Boland

d)

Miller

25.

Which case sets easement requirements?

a)

Wheeldon v Burrows

b)

Re Ellenborough Park

c)

Pwllbach Colliery

d)

Donoghue v Stevenson

26.

An express legal easement must be created by:

a)

Writing

b)

Oral agreement

c)

Deed

d)

Prescription

27.

Failure to register an express easement makes it:

a)

Void

b)

Illegal

c)

Equitable

d)

Overriding

28.

Legal ownership of land can only be held as:

a)

Tenancy in common

b)

Joint tenancy

c)

Trust

d)

Fee simple

29.

Severance affects:

a)

Legal title

b)

Beneficial interest

c)

Mortgage

d)

Registration

30.

Severance by notice is governed by:

a)

s196 LPA 1925

b)

s36(2) LPA 1925

c)

s53 LPA 1925

d)

s15 TOLATA

31.

Severance requires intention to take effect:

a)

In the future

b)

Immediately

c)

On death

d)

On sale

32.

Which case held notice effective even if destroyed?

a)

Re 88 Berkeley Road

b)

Kinch v Bullard

c)

Harris v Goddard

d)

Burgess v Rawnsley

33.

Mortgaging a share causes severance under which limb?

a)

Limb 2

b)

Limb 1

c)

Limb 3

d)

Statute

34.

Which case confirmed mortgages sever joint tenancies?

a)

Boland

b)

First National Securities v Hegerty

c)

Midland Bank v Green

d)

Goodman v Gallant

35.

Can a will sever a joint tenancy?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Only if registered

d)

Only with notice

36.

Which case confirms survivorship defeats wills?

a)

Harris v Goddard

b)

Burgess v Rawnsley

c)

Gould v Kemp

d)

White v White

37.

Overreaching requires purchase money paid to:

a)

One trustee

b)

Two trustees

c)

Beneficiary

d)

Mortgagee

38.

Which statute governs overreaching?

a)

LRA 2002

b)

LPA 1925

c)

TOLATA 1996

d)

LCA 1972

39.

Which interest cannot be protected by notice?

a)

Equitable lease

b)

Beneficial interest under a trust

c)

Option to purchase

d)

Estate contract

40.

Which statute governs applications for sale of co-owned land?

a)

LPA 1925

b)

LRA 2002

c)

TOLATA 1996

d)

LCA 1972

41.

Which of the following statements is NOT the aim and objective of the Land Registration Act 2002?

a)

To ensure as many estates and interest created on land is registered

b)

To ensure as many third party rights is recorded on the register

c)

To ensure at least two people are on the legal title when property is transferred

d)

To minimize the number and effect of overriding interest

42.

Which of the following sections provide the principles of the doctrine of overreaching?

a)

Section 27 LRA 2002

b)

Section 27 LPA 1925

c)

Section 2 LP(MP) A 1989

d)

Section 54(2) LPA 1925

43.

Proprietary Estoppel can be used as a _____? i. Lando Norris ii. Poison iii. Shield iv. Sword

a)

i and ii

b)

i and iii

c)

ii and iv

d)

iii and iv

44.

What does section 132 Land Registration Act 2002 provide?

a)

The definition of a lease

b)

The definition of a valuable consideration

c)

The definition of a trustee

d)

The definition of an estate

45.

In 2020, Lewis gives Carlos a 9-year lease over his land. In 2022, Lewis sold that land to Charles. Which of the following statements best represents Charles’ position?

a)

Charles is not bound by Carlos’ lease if he is a purchaser for valuable consideration AND Carlos’ occupation was not discoverable

b)

Charles is not bound by Carlos’ lease if Carlos’ occupation was not discoverable AND Charles was unaware of the lease

c)

Charles is bound by Carlos’ lease if Lewis had entered into a contract with Carlos AND if Carlos’ occupation of the land was discoverable

d)

Charles is bound by Carlos’ lease if Lewis had executed a deed in Carlos’ favour AND Carlos had registered the lease

46.

What are the essential elements of an estoppel arising?

a)

A promise and detriment suffered

b)

Exclusive possession, certainty of duration and rent

c)

A promise, love, and heartbreak

d)

A promise, detrimental reliance and unconscionability

47.

Which statement is TRUE?

a)

An estoppel interest cannot be protected at all

b)

An estoppel interest, although uncrystallised, can be protected as an overriding interest with actual occupation

c)

An estoppel interest cannot be protected as an overriding interest with actual occupation

d)

An estoppel interest cannot be protected by entry of a Notice under Section 33 of the Land Registration Act 2002

48.

The doctrine of proprietary estoppel operates in two stages;

a)

First there is a property and second, the owner is a liar

b)

First, the claimant must prove that the estoppel is present and second, the court must identify the appropriate remedy

c)

First, the claimant is a woman and second, she is denied entry into her property

d)

First, the claimant is denied the right to occupy the property and second the claimant has not registered his/her interest in the land.

49.

What was the principle enunciated in the case of Thompson v Foy [2009] EWHC 1076 (Ch)?

a)

A person must be in actual occupation at the date of registration

b)

A person must be in actual occupation at the date of disposition

c)

A person must be in actual occupation on the date of disposition and registration

d)

A person must be in actual occupation at the date of entering into a contract

50.

Under the Land Registration Act 2002, a lease for the duration of ...................... will require compulsory registration in order for it to be legal

a)

1 year

b)

3 years

c)

5 years

d)

8 years

51.

Lando granted Alex a five-year lease on his field for grazing purposes. What is the best method to protect Alex’s lease, pursuant to the Land Registration Act 2002?

a)

By placing a Restriction on Lando’s title under section 40

b)

By placing a Notice on Lando’s title under section 32

c)

By an overriding interest under Schedule 3 Paragraph 3

d)

By an overriding interest under Schedule 3 Paragraph 2

52.

Which case established the conditions of the modern approach to proprietary estoppel?

a)

Taylor Fashions v Liverpool Victoria Trustees [1982] QB 133

b)

Willmott v Barber [1880] 15 Ch. D. 96

c)

Cobbe v Yeoman’s Row Management [2008] UKHL 55

d)

Thorner v Major [2009] UKHL 19

53.

In Williams & Glyn’s Bank v Boland, why was the wife’s interest in the property protected as an overriding interest?

a)

She was the registered proprietor.

b)

She had entered a restriction in the Registry.

c)

She had a proprietary interest and was in actual occupation.

d)

She had a tenancy agreement with her husband.

54.

Which of the following can amount to a legal lease?

i. a 2-year lease created orally, and the tenant pays the market rate of rent

ii. a 6-year lease created in a deed, regardless of the amount of rent paid

iii. an 8-year lease created in a deed, and the tenant pays the market rate of rent

iv. a 10-year lease created in a deed, regardless of the amount of rent paid

a)

i and ii

b)

ii and iii

c)

ii and iv

d)

iii and iv

55.

Which of the following cases provides the definition of “severance”?

a)

Harris v Goddard [1983] 3 All ER 24

b)

Jones v Kernott [2011] UKSC 53

c)

Stack v Dowden [2007] UKHL 17

d)

Williams & Glyn’s Bank v Boland [1981] AC 487

56.

Alex is the sole registered owner of a house. The house is used to run a shop called “Lowkirkenuinely Flow State”. Beatrice is Alex’s girlfriend and business partner. In which of the following circumstances will Beatrice be entitled to a beneficial interest in the house?

a)

Alex and Beatrice both intended to share the profits from Lowkirkenuinely Flow State.

b)

Alex and Beatrice both intended to share the ownership of the house together.

c)

Alex and Beatrice both intended to live in the house together.

d)

Alex and Beatrice both intended to get married and have children.

57.

Which mode of protection is the best protection afforded for a short lease of 3 years and below?

a)

Schedule 3 Paragraph 1

b)

Schedule 2 Paragraph 2

c)

Schedule 3 Paragraph 3

d)

Schedule 1 Paragraph 3

58.

What was the issue in Stack v Dowden [2007] UKHL 17?

a)

Whether Mr. Stack could obtain a share in the property

b)

Whether Ms. Dowden could obtain a share in property

c)

What was the size of the share owed by Mr. Stack and Ms. Dowden

d)

Whether the property was held under a joint tenancy or tenancy in common

59.

If there is a dispute in relation to a co-owned property between the co-owners, which of the following sections in the Trust of Land and Appointment of Trustees Act 1996 will be invoked?

a)

Section 10

b)

Section 11

c)

Section 14

d)

Section 8

60.

In Jennings v Rice (2002) EWCA Civ 159, the award provided was a sum of £200,000, because this was

a)

the limit that could be afforded by the landowner

b)

the actual amount promised by the landowner

c)

an award proportionate to the work done by the claimant

d)

a common sum awarded

61.

Where there is a dispute over co-owned land, how would the co-owners resolve the dispute in the event one of them desires to sell?

a)

An application can be made under section 33 Law of Property Act 1925 for the court to make an order for sale.

b)

An application can be made to the court under section 14 Trust Of Land and Appointment of Trustees Act 1996 to which the court will consider the factors under section 15 of the Act.

c)

An application can be made to the court under section 14 Trust Of Land and Appointment of Trustees Act 1996 to which the court will grant the order in favour of the person with the larger share in the property

d)

An application can be made to the court under section 27 of the Land Registration Act 2002 and order the land to be sold.

62.

Which of the following best describes the requirements for a claim under proprietary estoppel?

a)

A representation made by the owner of the land (A) to another person B to the effect that B would acquire some interest in A’s land upon which B has no reasonable belief that he will acquire an interest in land

b)

A representation made by the owner of land (A) to another person B to the effect that B would acquire some interest in A’s land upon which assurance B has reasonably relied in such a way that it would be detrimental to B and unconscionable of A for A to resile on the promise made.

c)

A representation made by B to the owner of land (A) to the effect that B would acquire interest in A’s land upon which B has acted in such a way that it would be detrimental to B for A to subsequently assert his ownership of the land.

d)

B has made a mistake as to his or her legal rights and expended money or energy on the faith of that mistaken belief where A does not know that B has a legal right.

63.

Which of the following would NOT be regarded as detrimental reliance?

a)

Foregoing opportunities to further studies

b)

Incurring costs and expenditure to renovate/develop the land

c)

Being in love

d)

Taking care of the landowner

64.

Which of the following sections provide that severance can occur by serving a notice?

a)

Section 14 Trust of Land and Appointment of Trustees Act 1996

b)

Section 15 Trust of Land and Appointment of Trustees Act 1996

c)

Section 36 Law of Property Act 1925

d)

Section 33 Land Registration Act 2002

65.

The methods to sever a joint tenancy be is found in:

a)

Stack v Dowden [2007] UKHL 17

b)

Goodman v Gallant [1986] Fam. 106

c)

Williams v Hensman [1861] 70 E.R. 862

d)

Jones v Kernott [2011] UKSC 53

66.

Which of the following statements is TRUE in relation to proprietary estoppel?

a)

It can only be used as a shield and not as a sword.

b)

Promisee needs to prove reliance and that expenditure was made in respect of the property.

c)

Reliance will be presumed provided there is some detriment. The promisor then needs to prove that there is no reliance.

d)

The detriment must involve expenditure of some money from the claimant.

67.

Which statement is TRUE?

a)

An estoppel promise must satisfy the requirements of s.2 Law of Property (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act 1989.

b)

An estoppel promise can be by words, even if inferred from conduct or imprecise statements.

c)

An estoppel promise must be an active promise and inaction will not be sufficient.

d)

An estoppel promise always perfects an imperfect gift of land.

68.

The methods of severance under common law include:

a)

Mutual conduct

b)

Mutual agreement

c)

Act of a joint tenant operating on his own share

d)

All of the above

69.

When did the Land Registration Act 2002 come into force?

a)

12 October 2002

b)

13 October 2002

c)

12 October 2003

d)

13 October 2003

70.

Which of the following best describes the requirements for a claim under proprietary estoppel?

a)

A representation made by the owner of the land (A) to another person B to the effect that B would acquire some interest in A’s land upon which B has no reasonable belief that he will acquire an interest in land

b)

A representation made by the owner of land (A) to another person B to the effect that B would acquire some interest in A’s land upon which assurance B has reasonably relied in such a way that it would be detrimental to B and unconscionable of A for A subsequently to assert his ownership of the land unencumbered by any rights claimed by B

c)

A representation made by B to the owner of land (A) to the effect that B would acquire interest in A’s land upon which B has acted in such a way that it would be detrimental to B for A to subsequently assert his ownership of the land.

d)

B has made a mistake as to his or her legal rights and expended money or energy on the faith of that mistaken belief where A does not know that B has a legal right.

71.

Which of the following statement about joint tenancies and tenancies in common is CORRECT?

a)

Joint Tenancies only require unity of title.

b)

Tenancies in Common require all four unities to be present.

c)

Joint Tenancies only require to fulfil one of the four unities.

d)

Joint Tenancies require all four unities to be present.

72.

What is the maximum number of trustees in a trust of land?

a)

4

b)

6

c)

7

d)

9

73.

Adam pays most of the outgoings and other household expenses on a property registered in his wife, Brenda’s, name. Is Adam entitled to any beneficial interest in the house?

a)

Yes, via a constructive trust

b)

Yes, via a resulting trust

c)

Yes, via proprietary estoppel

d)

No, it is not sufficient for constructive trust, resulting trust or proprietary estoppel

74.

A property is expressly conveyed to A, B, C, and D as beneficial joint tenants. A contributed 70% of the purchase price, whereas B, C, and D contributed equally to the remaining 40%. How is this property co-owned?

a)

A owns 70% whereas B, C, and D hold 10% of the property each.

b)

They all own 100% of the property together.

c)

B, C, and D own 30% under a joint tenancy and A owns 70% under a tenancy in common.

d)

B, C, and D own 70% under a joint tenancy and A owns 30% under a tenancy in common.

75.

What is severance?

a)

The process of converting the joint tenancy to tenancy in common

b)

The process of converting the tenancy in common to joint tenancy

c)

The process registering the title in the Land Registry

d)

The oral declaration of how the beneficial interest is to be held

76.

Cedric died in 2020 and left his house in his will to “Dan and Edward to hold on trust for my wife Fanny, my daughter Giselle and son Howard in equal shares”. Fanny and Giselle now wish to continue residing in the house, whilst Howard wishes to sell it. How will this dispute be resolved?

a)

Dan and Edward have the same powers of an absolute owner and can sell the property at their absolute discretion

b)

Dan and Edward have the same powers of an absolute owner but can only sell the property after consulting the beneficiaries.

c)

Dan and Edward have the same powers of an absolute owner but can only sell the property after consulting the beneficiaries to which Fanny’s intentions will prevail.

d)

Dan and Edward have a duty to sell the land.

77.

Kirk Mansion, a freehold property, is conveyed to Aaron (aged 30), Bob (aged 25), Charlie (aged 21), Dylan (aged 14), Edmund (aged 50) and Fiona (aged 17). Which of the following statements correctly describes how the legal and equitable estate are held?

a)

The legal estate and equitable estate will be held by Aaron, Bob, Charlie, Dylan, Edmund and Fiona.

b)

The legal estate will be held by Aaron, Bob, Charlie, and Edmund and the equitable estate will be held by Aaron, Bob, Charlie, Dylan, Edmund and Fiona.

c)

The legal estate will be held by Aaron, Bob, Charlie, Dylan, Edmund and Fiona and the equitable estate will be held by Aaron, Bob, Charlie, and Edmund.

d)

The legal estate will be held by Aaron, Bob, Charlie, and Edmund and the equitable estate will be held by Aaron, Bob, Charles, Denise, Eduardo and Frankie.

78.

Which of the following is most likely to constitute an overriding interest under Schedule 3, Paragraph 2 of the Land Registration Act 2002?

a)

A legal lease

b)

A legal easement

c)

Interest holder in actual occupation

d)

A legal charge

79.

In relation to Jones v Kernott [2011] UKSC 53, which of the following is NOT the issue in the case?

a)

whether Mr Kernott was to be entitled to any beneficial interest in the home

b)

whether Ms Jones was entitled to a larger proportion of the beneficial interest in the home

c)

whether the beneficial interest in the home should be apportioned according to the contributions each made to the home

d)

whether the parties’ change in common intention as to the beneficial interest in the home can be taken into account