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Phlebotomy NHA Review — Grade 11 Scored Worksheet Questions

Total questions: 113

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Aerobic vs. anaerobic blood culture bottles: which bottle must have no air?

a)

Aerobic

b)

Anaerobic

c)

Both

d)

Neither

2.

Before using aerobic/anaerobic bottles, how long should the top be scrubbed with alcohol?

a)

15 seconds

b)

30 seconds

c)

60 seconds

d)

90 seconds

3.

When transferring blood from a yellow tube to anaerobic/aerobic bottles with a syringe, what should you avoid doing with the plunger?

a)

Pull back the plunger to increase vacuum

b)

Push the plunger to force blood

c)

Tap the plunger to remove bubbles

d)

Rotate the plunger while attached

4.

Light Blue tube: which additive is used?

a)

EDTA

b)

Heparin

c)

Sodium Citrate

d)

Sodium Fluoride

5.

Tube order rule: if there is no Yellow tube first, which tube must be filled before the Blue tube?

a)

Green

b)

Red

c)

Purple

d)

Grey

6.

SST (serum separation tube): approximately how long does it take to clot?

a)

5 minutes

b)

15 minutes

c)

30 minutes

d)

60 minutes

7.

RST (rapid serum tube): typical clot time and clotting agent used are which of the following?

a)

30 minutes with calcium

b)

15 minutes with fibrinogen

c)

5 minutes with thrombin

d)

10 minutes with EDTA

8.

Green tube additives include which anticoagulant(s)?

a)

EDTA only

b)

Sodium heparin, ammonia heparin, lithium heparin

c)

Sodium citrate only

d)

Thrombin

9.

Purple tube: which additive does it contain?

a)

Heparin

b)

EDTA

c)

Sodium Citrate

d)

Sodium Fluoride

10.

Blood smears are done with which tube according to the worksheet?

a)

Yellow

b)

Purple

c)

Green

d)

Grey

11.

For a proper blood smear, what should its appearance be on the slide?

a)

Uniform rectangle

b)

Feather-like

c)

Circular pool

d)

Zigzag streak

12.

When making a blood smear per the note, how much blood is used and where is it placed on the slide?

a)

0.1 mm drop at the center

b)

1 mm drop placed on half edge from the side

c)

3 mm drop at the top edge

d)

A large drop covering the slide

13.

Pink tube: which additive is indicated for blood collection?

a)

EDTA

b)

Heparin

c)

Sodium Citrate

d)

Fluoride

14.

Grey tube: which additive is used?

a)

EDTA

b)

Sodium Fluoride

c)

Lithium Heparin

d)

Thrombin

15.

Specimens for glucose testing with a Grey tube should be kept how?

a)

At room temperature

b)

On ice or ice slurry

c)

In a warm pack

d)

Under a heat lamp

16.

Which specimen must be kept warm according to the worksheet?

a)

Ammonia

b)

Cryoglobulin

c)

Lactic acid

d)

PSA

17.

Basal state: approximately how long after last ingestion of food or other nutrition does it occur?

a)

6 hours

b)

8 hours

c)

12 hours

d)

24 hours

18.

Why is order of draw emphasized in the worksheet?

a)

To reduce patient discomfort

b)

To speed up collection

c)

To avoid mixing additives and false test results

d)

To prevent needle clogging

19.

During any patient scenario with a complication while blood is being drawn, what action must be taken first?

a)

Apply a bandage

b)

Notify the provider

c)

Stop the draw

d)

Switch to a smaller needle

20.

Blood types: who is the universal donor?

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

c)

Type O

d)

Type AB

21.

Blood types: who is the universal recipient?

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

c)

Type O

d)

Type AB

22.

If you accidentally stick yourself with a needle, what should you do first according to the worksheet?

a)

Report to supervisor immediately

b)

Apply a tourniquet

c)

Rinse the area for a minimum of 15 minutes

d)

Cover with gauze and continue work

23.

For cutaneous diphtheria (infectious skin ulcers), which PPE/precaution is indicated?

a)

N95 and airborne

b)

Gown with contact precaution

c)

Surgical mask only

d)

Droplet precaution only

24.

For pneumonia, which PPE/precaution is indicated?

a)

Contact only

b)

Airborne only

c)

Mask with droplet precaution

d)

Gloves only

25.

For scabies, which precaution is indicated according to the worksheet?

a)

Droplet

b)

Contact

c)

Airborne

d)

Neutropenic

26.

For tuberculosis (TB), which PPE/precaution is indicated?

a)

Surgical mask with droplet

b)

Gloves only

c)

N95 mask with airborne precaution

d)

Gown with contact precaution

27.

After completing a blood draw in an isolation room, which PPE item should be removed first?

a)

Gown

b)

Mask

c)

Gloves

d)

Face shield

28.

When testing for streptococcal pharyngitis (strep), which transmission-based precaution should be implemented?

a)

Airborne

b)

Contact

c)

Droplet

d)

Enteric

29.

As a phlebotomist needing to input the results of a lab test, which phase is this?

a)

Pre-examination

b)

Exam phase

c)

Post-examination

d)

Quality assurance

30.

Entering critical lab data belongs to which phase?

a)

Pre-examination

b)

Exam phase

c)

Post-examination

d)

Intake

31.

For blood culture collection, how should the site be scrubbed according to the worksheet?

a)

With povidone-iodine for 15 seconds, circular motion

b)

With isopropyl alcohol for 30 seconds, back-and-forth motion

c)

With sterile water for 60 seconds, gentle dabs

d)

With chlorhexidine for 10 seconds, spiral motion

32.

According to OSHA guidance in the worksheet, when dealing with blood, what should be worn at all times?

a)

Mask

b)

Gown

c)

Gloves

d)

Face shield

33.

Joint Commission identification: the worksheet states patients must be identified with at least how many identifiers?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

34.

CLIA quality control note: external liquid controls for point-of-care tests should be performed when which condition occurs?

a)

Each day at noon

b)

At the end of the week

c)

When a new lot number is used or a kit is opened

d)

Only if a test fails

35.

Safety hazard color coding: which color corresponds to Fire?

a)

Red

b)

Yellow

c)

Blue

d)

White

36.

Safety hazard color coding: which color corresponds to Instability?

a)

Red

b)

Yellow

c)

Blue

d)

White

37.

Safety hazard color coding: which color corresponds to Health?

a)

Red

b)

Yellow

c)

Blue

d)

White

38.

Safety hazard color coding: which color corresponds to Special?

a)

Red

b)

Yellow

c)

Blue

d)

White

39.

To clean a biohazard spill, the worksheet indicates using which bleach-to-water ratio?

a)

1:5

b)

1:10

c)

1:20

d)

1:50

40.

Hemoconcentration is noted to result from which action in the worksheet?

a)

Shaking the tube too vigorously

b)

Leaving a tourniquet on too long

c)

Using an incorrect additive

d)

Fasting longer than 12 hours

41.

To prevent hemolysis per the worksheet, what must be done after applying alcohol to the patient’s arm?

a)

Blow on the site to dry faster

b)

Stick the patient immediately

c)

Allow the site to dry before sticking the patient

d)

Apply extra alcohol just before the stick

42.

Hemostasis is defined in the worksheet as which of the following?

a)

Balance of internal conditions

b)

Stopping of a flow of blood

c)

Destruction of red blood cells

d)

Increase of serum proteins

43.

Homeostasis is defined in the worksheet as which of the following?

a)

Same, steady, stable

b)

Stopping blood flow

c)

Cell rupture

d)

Serum separation

44.

Consent types: which scenario represents implied consent per the worksheet?

a)

Patient signs a consent form

b)

Patient rolls up their sleeve for a blood draw without signing anything

c)

Provider explains risks and benefits

d)

Emergency action documented in chart

45.

Consent types: which item represents informed consent per the worksheet?

a)

Patient rolls up sleeve

b)

Patient signed a consent form

c)

Provider orders a test

d)

Family gives verbal approval

46.

Consent types: during an emergency situation, medical staff assume which type of consent according to the worksheet?

a)

Informed consent

b)

Implied consent

c)

Parental consent

d)

No consent required

47.

In an inpatient (hospital) setting, which two patient identifiers are required according to the worksheet?

a)

Verbal name and date of birth

b)

Verbal name and check that wrist band matches

c)

Verbal name and address

d)

Patient photo and verbal name

48.

In an outpatient setting, which identifiers are noted in the worksheet?

a)

Verbal name and wrist band

b)

Verbal name and patient ID

c)

Patient photo and wrist band

d)

Date of birth and wrist band

49.

For venipuncture, what bevel orientation and insertion angle are indicated?

a)

Bevel down at 45 degrees

b)

Bevel up at 15–30 degrees

c)

Bevel up at 60 degrees

d)

Bevel down at 15 degrees

50.

According to the needles section, which gauge is specified for blood donation?

a)

16 gauge

b)

18 gauge

c)

21 gauge

d)

23 gauge

51.

Which gauges are listed for most other laboratory draws?

a)

14–16 gauge

b)

17–19 gauge

c)

21, 22, 23 gauge

d)

24–26 gauge

52.

For geriatric patients with fragile veins, which needle type is suggested?

a)

Straight needle only

b)

Butterfly needle

c)

Lancet

d)

No difference

53.

What practice is emphasized regarding used needles?

a)

Recap with one-hand technique

b)

Never recap any needles

c)

Always recap before disposal

d)

Recap only butterfly needles

54.

Gross hemolysis in a specimen indicates what according to the worksheet?

a)

Tube mishandling

b)

Wrong needle size used

c)

Patient dehydration

d)

Delayed processing

55.

Under Blood Donation, which gauge needle is noted for donation on this page?

a)

16 gauge

b)

18 gauge

c)

21 gauge

d)

23 gauge

56.

During blood donation, if blood flow stops and the bag is half full, what should be done according to the worksheet?

a)

Continue until full

b)

Clamp and resume later

c)

Dispose of the half-full bag and hang a new bag

d)

Shake the bag to restart flow

57.

Before blood donation, what must be asked of the patient according to the worksheet?

a)

Preferred arm for draw

b)

Complete medical history

c)

Meal preference

d)

Transportation method

58.

A patient with a pulse rate greater than 100100 has which donation status per the worksheet?

a)

Eligible to donate with monitoring

b)

Eligible only for plasma

c)

Cannot donate blood

d)

Must donate at a slower rate

59.

Random urine test: what fasting requirement is stated?

a)

Must fast for 12 hours

b)

Must fast for 8 hours

c)

Can be done with or without fasting

d)

Only done postprandially

60.

Urine specimen for pregnancy test: when should the specimen be collected per the worksheet?

a)

Any time of day

b)

First thing in the morning when HCG levels are highest

c)

After lunch

d)

Before bedtime

61.

Clean-catch urine instructions from the worksheet include which steps?

a)

Do not clean; collect immediately

b)

Clean the labia with antiseptic mild soap, void a little into the toilet first, then into the cup

c)

Collect midstream without cleaning

d)

Void completely and then collect droplets

62.

Fasting glucose urine test per the worksheet requires which preparation?

a)

Fast for 8 hours, test once

b)

Fast for 12 hours, then test urine every 1–2 hours

c)

No fasting needed, test after meals

d)

Hydrate and test hourly

63.

Postprandial urine test: what sequence is indicated?

a)

Eat first, then void

b)

Void first, then eat

c)

Fast, then void

d)

Drink water, then void

64.

Urine test with the use of medication: When should the urine be collected after the medication is taken?

a)

Immediately

b)

30 minutes after

c)

2 hours after

d)

24 hours after

65.

24-hour urine test: What is the correct initial step before filling the 3–4 liter container for 24 hours?

a)

Begin filling the container without voiding

b)

Void a little first, then begin collection

c)

Refrigerate the container first

d)

Add preservative after each void

66.

Drug screen urine collection: Which temperature range indicates the specimen is within acceptable limits?

a)

60–70 °F (15–21 °C)

b)

70–85 °F (21–29 °C)

c)

90–100 °F (32–37 °C)

d)

100–110 °F (37–43 °C)

67.

Drug screen urine collection: Which action is emphasized to maintain specimen integrity and legal documentation?

a)

Allow the patient to flush the toilet

b)

Chain of custody is documented and a case number is used

c)

Keep specimen at room temperature for 24 hours

d)

Mix the specimen with tap water to adjust temperature

68.

Buccal test: What specimen is collected for DNA testing?

a)

Blood spot

b)

Cheek swab

c)

Urine sample

d)

Sputum sample

69.

Throat swab collection for strep testing: Where should the swab be directed?

a)

Tongue surface

b)

Inflamed area around the tonsils

c)

Uvula

d)

Inner cheek

70.

Sputum test collection: Which instruction is correct for obtaining the specimen?

a)

Collect at bedtime after a heavy meal

b)

Patient may eat and drink normally

c)

Collect in the morning; patient is NPO and expectorates thick secretions into a container

d)

Swab the throat for secretions

71.

Fecal test handling: Which practice must be avoided when preparing fecal matter for testing?

a)

Checking for parasites

b)

Checking for bacterial infections

c)

Mixing occult blood or urine into the fecal matter

d)

Keeping the specimen sealed

72.

Semen test handling: Which combination of requirements is correct?

a)

Patient must ejaculate daily; refrigerate the specimen; any light is acceptable

b)

Patient cannot ejaculate for 2–7 days; deliver within 2 hours at about 36–38 °C; protect from light; do not refrigerate

c)

Patient cannot ejaculate for 24 hours; freeze immediately; transport within 24 hours

d)

Patient may ejaculate normally; room temperature transport; protect from heat only

73.

Newborn testing timing: When is neonatal testing performed?

a)

Immediately at birth

b)

Within 6–12 hours

c)

Within 24–72 hours after birth

d)

At the first well-child visit

74.

Newborn screening: Which conditions are included in the blood tests?

a)

Cystic fibrosis

b)

Hypothyroid

c)

Phenylketonuria (PKU)

d)

Galactosemia

e)

Sickle cell disease

75.

Blood spot collection on screening cards: What is the correct handling after collection?

a)

Stack cards together to save space

b)

Let blood dry for 4 hours; keep away from heat; ensure the entire circle is full; use the filter side of paper

c)

Refrigerate cards immediately

d)

Blot excess blood with gauze

76.

Heel sticks for babies 1 year old and younger: Where should the puncture be made?

a)

Center of the heel

b)

Medial lateral part of the heel

c)

Arch of the foot

d)

Toe pad

77.

Lancet depth for a baby: What is the correct maximum depth?

a)

1 mm

b)

2 mm

c)

3 mm

d)

4 mm

78.

Maximum level of blood to take from an infant: What percentage of total blood volume is allowed?

a)

0.5%

b)

1%

c)

2%

d)

5%

79.

An infant weighs 3 kg. Using the guideline shown, what is the maximum blood volume to draw?

a)

1 ml

b)

2 ml

c)

3 ml

d)

5 ml

80.

Critical lab results: Which glucose value exceeds the normal range of 70–100 and is considered critical in this list?

a)

80 mg/dL

b)

100 mg/dL

c)

130 mg/dL

d)

60 mg/dL

81.

Specimen handling: Blood gases, ammonia, and lactic acid require which temperature management?

a)

Room temperature in a paper bag

b)

Warm packs in a biohazard bag

c)

Placement on an ice slurry

d)

Freezing at −20 °C

82.

Specimen protection from light: Which tests should be placed in an amber biohazard bag because they are photosensitive?

a)

Vitamin B6 (VB6)

b)

Bilirubin

c)

Folate

d)

Glucose

e)

Ammonia

83.

Patient skin prep: What is the appropriate antiseptic sequence noted?

a)

Betadine only

b)

Alcohol wipe/swab; if allergic to alcohol, use chlorhexidine

c)

Soap and water followed by iodine

d)

No antiseptic is needed

84.

Diabetes with inaccessible veins: Where should blood NOT be drawn?

a)

Hand vein

b)

Forearm vein

c)

Foot

d)

Median cubital vein

85.

Mastectomy on the right side: From which arm should blood be drawn?

a)

Right arm

b)

Left arm

c)

Either arm

d)

Foot

86.

Double mastectomy: Which arm should be used for venipuncture?

a)

Arm of the most recent mastectomy

b)

Arm of the oldest mastectomy

c)

Either arm

d)

Avoid venipuncture entirely

87.

Patient has an IV running on the left arm and a mastectomy on the right arm. What is the correct action?

a)

Proceed without changes

b)

Ask the nurse to shut off the IV and draw under the IV site

c)

Draw from the right arm

d)

Use a foot vein

88.

If a patient has a shunt placed in their arm, what should be done regarding venipuncture on that arm?

a)

Proceed with caution

b)

Always avoid it

c)

Clamp the shunt and draw

d)

Draw only with a butterfly

89.

How long should a patient cool down after running or after a blood pressure measurement before a blood draw?

a)

5 minutes

b)

10 minutes

c)

15 minutes

d)

30 minutes

90.

History of fainting during blood draws: What patient position is recommended before venipuncture?

a)

Standing upright

b)

Sitting upright

c)

Reclining position (semi-Fowler’s)

d)

Prone position

91.

A patient says they feel like they are going to faint during a draw. What is the immediate action?

a)

Continue drawing quickly

b)

Stop the draw and have the patient put their head between their knees

c)

Lay the patient flat and continue drawing

d)

Offer water and proceed

92.

A report of nausea is described as what in this context?

a)

Syncope

b)

Lightheadedness

c)

Shock

d)

Convulsion

93.

Seizures are defined as what kind of movement?

a)

Voluntary

b)

Involuntary

c)

Rhythmic voluntary

d)

Intentional

94.

What does SD stand for?

a)

Standard dose

b)

Standard deviation

c)

Sample deviation

d)

Statistical difference

95.

Patient in shock: Which set of actions is recommended?

a)

Give food immediately

b)

Keep airways open, control bleeding, and keep the patient warm

c)

Lay the patient prone and wait

d)

Elevate legs only

96.

If a patient is convulsing, what should you do?

a)

Stand them up

b)

Lay them down

c)

Restrain their limbs tightly

d)

Offer cold water

97.

If a patient is vomiting, what position and care should be provided?

a)

Supine; warm compress

b)

On their side; apply cool compress

c)

Prone; no compress

d)

Seated; warm compress

98.

Interaction levels: Which setting corresponds to performing venipuncture?

a)

Social

b)

Public

c)

Intimate

d)

Personal

99.

Interaction levels: Which setting corresponds to explaining procedures to a patient?

a)

Public

b)

Personal

c)

Social

d)

Intimate

100.

Requisition forms for a blood draw: What is the requirement?

a)

Carry multiple requisitions to be safe

b)

Always make sure you have only one requisition form

c)

Verbal orders are sufficient

d)

Use the patient’s room number as the requisition

101.

STAT orders: What is the required response time?

a)

Within 1 hour

b)

Within 30 minutes

c)

Answer immediately

d)

By end of shift

102.

In obese patients, which vein is noted as easier to locate?

a)

Basilic

b)

Median cubital

c)

Median cephalic

d)

Dorsal hand vein

103.

Device selection: When is a syringe preferred?

a)

Routine draws

b)

Multiple tests

c)

Fragile or collapsed veins

d)

Large antecubital veins

104.

Device selection: For which patients or purposes is a lancet used?

a)

Adults with large veins

b)

Infants or diabetes finger sticks

c)

Central lines

d)

Arterial draws

105.

Device selection: What vein type is appropriate for a butterfly needle?

a)

Large veins

b)

Small veins

c)

Arteries

d)

Shunted veins

106.

Order of preferred veins for venipuncture is noted. Which order is correct?

a)

Basilic, median cubital, cephalic

b)

Cephalic, basilic, median cubital

c)

Median cubital, cephalic, basilic (last resort)

d)

Cephalic, median cubital, basilic

107.

Syncope is described as what, and what commonly precedes it?

a)

Vomiting; nausea

b)

Passing out or fainting; dizziness

c)

Convulsing; headache

d)

Shock; hypothermia

108.

Accessing a patient for a capillary draw: What is the correct angle or approach?

a)

Parallel to the fingertip

b)

Diagonal across the fingertip

c)

Perpendicular from the fingertip

d)

Along the nail bed

109.

Drawing multiple tests in one setup: What system should be used?

a)

Syringe and transfer device

b)

Evacuated tube system

c)

Capillary tubes

d)

Single-use pipettes

110.

Venous draw on a preschooler: What communication is required?

a)

No explanation is necessary

b)

Explain the procedure to the parent and child; tell the child they will feel a small prick

c)

Only speak to the parent

d)

Provide written instructions later

111.

A winged evacuated system is characterized by which needle gauge range?

a)

18–20 gauge

b)

21–22 gauge

c)

23–25 gauge

d)

26–28 gauge

112.

Labeling a specimen from an unconscious and unidentified patient: What should be confirmed before drawing and labeling?

a)

Proceed with any available name

b)

Wait for an identification bracelet; or confirm that the patient’s room number and the name on the door agree with the request

c)

Use a temporary generic ID

d)

Skip labeling until later

113.

Other knowledge item noted: What protocol should be known?

a)

Blood bank crossmatch protocol

b)

Aseptic technique protocol

c)

Dialysis protocol

d)

Radiology transport protocol