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Worksheets

Page 1

Total questions: 39

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to the local anesthetics table, which drug has a slower onset of action but a longer duration, lasting about 3 to 5 hr?

a)

Bupivacaine

b)

Lidocaine

c)

Mepivacaine

d)

Proparacaine

2.

Which drug in the table may be combined with epinephrine, has a 2-hr duration, and can cause tachycardia?

a)

Lidocaine

b)

Prilocaine

c)

Bupivacaine

d)

Proparacaine

3.

Which drug listed provides 2 to 3 hr of local anesthesia and has risks of hypotension and respiratory arrest after epidural administration?

a)

Mepivacaine

b)

Prilocaine

c)

Lidocaine

d)

Bupivacaine

4.

Which drug is indicated as a topical anesthetic for ophthalmic procedures and is provided as an ophthalmic solution?

a)

Proparacaine

b)

Bupivacaine

c)

Mepivacaine

d)

Prilocaine

5.

Which drug in the table is listed for local and epidural anesthesia and has the trade name Carbocaine-V?

a)

Mepivacaine

b)

Bupivacaine

c)

Lidocaine

d)

Proparacaine

6.

Select all common forms listed for lidocaine in the table.

a)

Gel

b)

Injectable

c)

Patch

d)

Ophthalmic solution

7.

Match each drug name to the trade name shown in the table.

a)

Bupivacaine

1.

Marcaine

b)

Lidocaine

2.

Xylocaine

c)

Mepivacaine

3.

Carbocaine-V

d)

Proparacaine

4.

Alcaine

8.

Which drug is combined with lidocaine to form a topical cream used to numb the skin before injections or catheterization?

a)

Prilocaine

b)

Bupivacaine

c)

Mepivacaine

d)

Proparacaine

9.

Which drug provides short-lasting topical anesthesia for about 10 min?

a)

Proparacaine

b)

Lidocaine

c)

Bupivacaine

d)

Mepivacaine

10.

Phenothiazines are described as having several clinical uses. Which use is explicitly listed?

a)

Sedation

b)

Anticonvulsant therapy

c)

Diuresis

d)

Antibiotic therapy

11.

Which adverse effect is specifically listed for phenothiazines?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Hypertension

c)

Polycythemia

d)

Hyperthermia

12.

The slide notes breed sensitivity to phenothiazines. Which group is identified as sensitive, requiring minimum dosage?

a)

Boxers, sight hounds, and giant breeds

b)

Toy breeds only

c)

Only brachycephalic cats

d)

Draft horses only

13.

Which patient population is identified for precaution or caution when using phenothiazines?

a)

Geriatric patients

b)

Neonates only

c)

Pregnant mares exclusively

d)

Healthy adult dogs

14.

Which specific prolapse is mentioned among the adverse effects of phenothiazines?

a)

Prolapse of the 3rd eyelid

b)

Prolapse of the 2nd eyelid

c)

Uterine prolapse

d)

Tracheal prolapse

15.

According to the table, which statement about acepromazine is correct?

a)

Contraindicated in animals with a seizure history

b)

Recommended for increasing seizure threshold in epileptic patients

c)

First-line antibiotic for respiratory infections

d)

Specifically indicated for treating hypertension

16.

Which common forms are listed for acepromazine? Select all that apply.

a)

Injectable

b)

Tablet

c)

Topical ointment

d)

Transdermal patch

17.

Which drug is listed with trade names Largactil and Thorazine?

a)

Chlorpromazine

b)

Acepromazine

c)

Diazepam

d)

Ketamine

18.

Which note is given for chlorpromazine use?

a)

Not for use in horses due to violent reactions

b)

Must be combined with an opioid at all times

c)

Induces hypertension in cattle

d)

Contraindicated in all sight hounds

19.

Which combination of common uses is listed for chlorpromazine?

a)

Antiemetic, sedation, pre-anesthetic

b)

Antibiotic, diuretic, anticonvulsant

c)

Analgesic, bronchodilator, antiarrhythmic

d)

Immunosuppressant, antineoplastic, laxative

20.

Select all listed therapeutic effects of benzodiazepines.

a)

Anticonvulsant

b)

Muscle relaxant

c)

Sedation

d)

Anti-anxiety

21.

When combined with ketamine (dissociative), diazepam produces which induction profile?

a)

Slow IV induction

b)

Rapid IM induction

c)

Prolonged recovery

d)

Increased blood pressure

22.

Select all patient groups and conditions for which caution is advised when using benzodiazepines.

a)

Geriatric animals

b)

Pregnant animals

c)

Hepatic disease

d)

Renal disease

23.

Which agent can reverse the effects of benzodiazepines?

a)

Flumazenil

b)

Naloxone

c)

Atipamezole

d)

Yohimbine

24.
Question Image

Match each benzodiazepine drug name to its trade name as shown in the table.

a)

Alprazolam

1.

Xanax

b)

Diazepam

2.

Valium

c)

Midazolam

3.

Versed

25.

Which benzodiazepine has a note stating that cats should only be given the brand name Valium because use of the generic form has been linked to liver failure?

a)

Alprazolam

b)

Diazepam

c)

Midazolam

d)

Zolazepam

26.

What common form is listed for midazolam in the table?

a)

Oral solution

b)

Rectal gel

c)

Injectable

d)

Transdermal patch

27.

According to the table, what is the common use listed for alprazolam?

a)

Reduction of anxiety

b)

Anesthetic adjunct

c)

Anticonvulsant

d)

Appetite stimulant

28.

Zolazepam is indicated in conjunction with which agent as an anesthetic?

a)

Ketamine

b)

Tiletamine

c)

Propofol

d)

Dexmedetomidine

29.

Which post-administration care measure is noted for zolazepam in the table?

a)

Monitor liver enzymes

b)

Apply ophthalmic ointment to the eyes to avoid loss of moisture

c)

Provide oxygen supplementation for 10 minutes

d)

Avoid oral feeding for 12 hours

30.

According to Table 5.17: Alpha-2 Agonists, which drug also comes in an oral gel for horses?

a)

Detomidine hydrochloride

b)

Dexmedetomidine

c)

Medetomidine hydrochloride

d)

Romifidine hydrochloride

31.

Which drug lists vomiting as a very common side effect?

a)

Detomidine hydrochloride

b)

Dexmedetomidine

c)

Romifidine hydrochloride

d)

Xylazine hydrochloride

32.

Which drug requires careful monitoring of vital signs during administration because of the risk of cardiac depression?

a)

Medetomidine hydrochloride

b)

Dexmedetomidine

c)

Xylazine hydrochloride

d)

Detomidine hydrochloride

33.

Which alpha-2 agonist has sedative effects that are the longest lasting among the drugs in the table?

a)

Romifidine hydrochloride

b)

Detomidine hydrochloride

c)

Dexmedetomidine

d)

Xylazine hydrochloride

34.

Which drug’s anesthetic effects last about 30 minutes and has bottle concentrations of 100 mg/mL for large animals and 20 mg/mL for small animals?

a)

Xylazine hydrochloride

b)

Romifidine hydrochloride

c)

Detomidine hydrochloride

d)

Medetomidine hydrochloride

35.

Which drug is available in both injectable and transmucosal gel forms?

a)

Dexmedetomidine

b)

Detomidine hydrochloride

c)

Romifidine hydrochloride

d)

Xylazine hydrochloride

36.

Which drugs have only Antipamezole listed as the reversal agent? Select all that apply.

a)

Dexmedetomidine

b)

Medetomidine hydrochloride

c)

Detomidine hydrochloride

d)

Xylazine hydrochloride

37.

Which drugs can be reversed with either Yohimbine or Antipamezole? Select all that apply.

a)

Detomidine hydrochloride

b)

Romifidine hydrochloride

c)

Dexmedetomidine

d)

Xylazine hydrochloride

38.

Which drug lists short-term sedation and analgesia as the common uses (rather than sedation, anesthetic adjunct, analgesia)?

a)

Xylazine hydrochloride

b)

Detomidine hydrochloride

c)

Dexmedetomidine

d)

Medetomidine hydrochloride

39.
Question Image

Match each trade name to its corresponding drug name from Table 5.17: Alpha-2 Agonists.

a)

Dormosedan

1.

Detomidine hydrochloride

b)

Dexdomitor

2.

Dexmedetomidine

c)

Domitor

3.

Medetomidine hydrochloride

d)

Sedivet

4.

Romifidine hydrochloride

e)

Rompun

5.

Xylazine hydrochloride