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ethical

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Multiple Choice (Single Answer): What is the primary goal of ethical hacking?

a)

To exploit systems for personal gain

b)

To identify vulnerabilities with permission to improve security

c)

To disrupt normal business operations

d)

To train employees in hacking techniques

2.

Multiple Choice (Single Answer): Which of the following is a core principle of ethical hacking?

a)

Full disclosure to the public

b)

Obtaining explicit permission before testing

c)

Keeping findings confidential indefinitely

d)

Testing without scope limitations

3.

Multiple Choice (Single Answer): The CIA Triad stands for:

a)

Confidentiality, Integrity, Authenticity

b)

Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability

c)

Confidentiality, Inspection, Authentication

d)

Control, Integrity, Availability

4.

Multiple Choice (Single Answer): Which phase of the attack lifecycle involves gathering information about the target?

a)

Scanning

b)

Gaining Access

c)

Reconnaissance

d)

Covering Tracks

5.

Multiple Choice (Single Answer): The Principle of Least Privilege means:

a)

Granting users maximum access for efficiency

b)

Granting only the minimum access necessary

c)

Removing all access controls for simplicity

d)

Allowing unlimited access during testing

6.

Multiple Choice (Single Answer): Which framework is specifically designed for web application security testing?

a)

NIST CSF

b)

PTES

c)

OSSTMM

d)

OWASP

7.

Multiple Choice (Single Answer): A MAC address is used at which OSI layer?

a)

Network Layer

b)

Transport Layer

c)

Data Link Layer

d)

Physical Layer

8.

Multiple Choice (Single Answer): What does the IP address 127.0.0.1 refer to?

a)

Public IP

b)

Broadcast address

c)

Loopback address

d)

Default gateway

9.

Multiple Choice (Multiple Answers): Which of the following are phases of the penetration testing lifecycle? (Select all that apply)

a)

Reconnaissance

b)

Reporting

c)

Scanning

d)

Post-Exploitation

10.

Multiple Choice (Multiple Answers): Which of the following are differences between penetration testing and red teaming? (Select all that apply)

a)

Penetration testing is always automated

b)

Red teaming mimics real-world APT attacks

c)

Penetration testing focuses on specific systems

d)

Red teaming does not require permission

11.

Multiple Choice (Multiple Answers): Which of the following are layers of the OSI model? (Select all that apply)

a)

Session Layer

b)

Security Layer

c)

Presentation Layer

d)

Routing Layer

12.

Multiple Choice (Multiple Answers): Which IP address types are used for internal networks? (Select all that apply)

a)

Public IP

b)

Private IP

c)

APIPA

d)

Broadcast IP

13.

True or False: Ethical hacking requires explicit authorization from the organization being tested.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

True or False: Defense in Depth relies on a single security control to protect systems.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

True or False: TCP is a connectionless protocol.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

True or False: IPv6 was introduced primarily to provide more IP addresses than IPv4.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

True or False: Red teaming only focuses on technical vulnerabilities, not people or processes.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

True or False: The OWASP Top 10 is a list of the most critical web application security risks.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Multiple Choice (Multiple Answers): Explain the key differences between penetration testing and red teaming, including when each should be used in a real-world security assessment. Select all statements that are correct.

a)

Penetration testing is a focused, scope-limited assessment to find technical flaws

b)

Red teaming is a holistic, adversarial simulation testing people, processes, and defenses

c)

Use penetration testing for specific systems

d)

Use red teaming to assess the overall security posture

20.

Multiple Choice (Multiple Answers): Describe the importance of following a structured methodology (e.g., OWASP, PTES, NIST) in penetration testing. Select all statements that are correct.

a)

It ensures consistent, thorough testing

b)

It provides clear reporting

c)

It reduces vulnerability oversight

d)

It produces standardized, actionable results for stakeholders

21.

Multiple Choice (Single Answer): In Linux, which directory contains system configuration files?

a)

/home

b)

/var

c)

/etc

d)

/bin

22.

Multiple Choice (Single Answer): What does the command chmod 755 script.sh do in Linux?

a)

Gives full permissions to everyone

b)

Gives read, write, execute to owner; read and execute to group and others

c)

Gives read and execute only to the owner

d)

Removes all permissions from the file

23.

Multiple Choice (Single Answer): Which Windows command-line tool is used to view IP configuration?

a)

netstat

b)

ping

c)

ipconfig

d)

tracert

24.

Multiple Choice (Single Answer): What is the primary purpose of reconnaissance in ethical hacking?

a)

To exploit vulnerabilities

b)

To gather information about the target

c)

To cover tracks after an attack

d)

To maintain access to a system

25.

Which tool is commonly used for passive reconnaissance?

a)

Nmap

b)

Nessus

c)

Shodan

d)

SQLmap

26.

What does the STAT column value "Z" indicate in the Linux ps aux output?

a)

Running process

b)

Sleeping process

c)

Zombie process

d)

Stopped process

27.

Which Windows command is used to run a command as another user?

a)

sudo

b)

runas

c)

chown

d)

taskkill

28.

What type of scanning involves directly interacting with a target's systems?

a)

Passive reconnaissance

b)

Active reconnaissance

c)

Social engineering

d)

Vulnerability exploitation

29.

Which of the following are Linux commands for file and directory management? Select all that apply.

a)

ls

b)

dir

c)

mkdir

d)

del

30.

Which of the following are tools used for vulnerability scanning? Select all that apply.

a)

Nmap

b)

Nessus

c)

Nikto

d)

theHarvester

31.

Which of the following are key differences between passive and active reconnaissance? Select all that apply.

a)

Passive reconnaissance is more detectable

b)

Active reconnaissance involves direct interaction

c)

Passive reconnaissance uses public sources

d)

Active reconnaissance is slower and less intrusive

32.

Which of the following are standard locations in the Windows file system? Select all that apply.

a)

C:\Windows\System32

b)

/etc

c)

C:\Program Files\

d)

/home

33.

In Linux, the /tmp directory is used for temporary files that are preserved after a reboot.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

The sudo command in Linux allows a user to execute commands with root privileges.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Windows uses the same permission model (rwx) as Linux for file access control.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Vulnerability scanners like Nessus can produce false positives that require manual validation.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

CVE (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures) provides severity scores for vulnerabilities.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

SQLmap is a tool used for web application vulnerability scanning and SQL injection testing.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Which statement best describes the difference between passive and active reconnaissance and correctly pairs one example tool for each?

a)

Passive reconnaissance gathers information using public sources (e.g., Shodan); active reconnaissance interacts directly with the target (e.g., Nmap)

b)

Passive reconnaissance interacts directly with the target (e.g., Nmap); active reconnaissance uses only public sources (e.g., Shodan)

c)

Passive reconnaissance requires exploitation (e.g., SQLmap); active reconnaissance avoids any network interaction (e.g., theHarvester)

d)

Passive reconnaissance uses credentialed scans (e.g., Nessus); active reconnaissance is limited to OSINT (e.g., Nikto)

40.

Why is understanding both Linux and Windows operating systems important for cybersecurity professionals?

a)

Because Linux is used only on personal laptops and Windows only on servers

b)

Because both are widely used in enterprise environments and knowledge of both is essential for effective attack and defense

c)

Because Windows is used exclusively for security tools while Linux is used only for endpoints

d)

Because learning two operating systems reduces the need for security tools

41.

What is the primary goal of the exploitation phase in penetration testing?

a)

To gather information about the target

b)

To use identified vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access

c)

To clear logs and cover tracks

d)

To write the final penetration testing report

42.

Which of the following is a common vulnerability associated with SMB (port 445)?

a)

SQL Injection

b)

EternalBlue (MS17-010)

c)

Open SMTP relay

d)

Default SNMP community strings

43.

What is the difference between vertical and horizontal privilege escalation?

a)

Vertical: moving from user to root; Horizontal: accessing another user at same level

b)

Vertical: accessing another user; Horizontal: gaining root access

c)

Both refer to the same concept

d)

Vertical is for Windows; Horizontal is for Linux

44.

Which Linux command shows allowed sudo commands for the current user?

a)

id

b)

sudo -l

c)

uname -a

d)

ls -la /etc/sudoers

45.

What does the Windows command whoami /priv display?

a)

Current user's groups

b)

Installed patches

c)

Current user's privileges

d)

Running processes

46.

Which tool is commonly used for automated privilege escalation enumeration on Windows?

a)

LinPEAS

b)

WinPEAS

c)

GTFOBins

d)

BloodHound

47.

What is a common method for maintaining persistence on a Linux system?

a)

Modifying registry run keys

b)

Creating malicious scheduled tasks

c)

Adding a cron job

d)

DLL hijacking

48.

Which technique involves using stolen NTLM hashes to authenticate without knowing the plaintext password?

a)

Kerberoasting

b)

Pass-the-Hash

c)

RDP hijacking

d)

DLL hijacking

49.

Which of the following are examples of post-exploitation activities? Select all that apply.

a)

Maintaining access via persistence mechanisms

b)

Lateral movement to additional hosts

c)

Exfiltrating sensitive data

d)

Installing vendor patches during the assessment

50.

Which tools are used for privilege escalation on Linux systems? (Select all that apply)

a)

LinPEAS

b)

Mimikatz

c)

LinEnum

d)

PowerUp.ps1

51.

What are common Windows privilege escalation vectors? (Select all that apply)

a)

Unquoted service paths

b)

SUID binaries

c)

AlwaysInstallElevated registry keys

d)

Kernel exploits like MS16-032

52.

Which of the following are lateral movement techniques? (Select all that apply)

a)

Pass-the-Hash

b)

Kerberoasting

c)

SQL Injection

d)

RDP exploitation

53.

Post-exploitation activities only include maintaining access and do not involve data exfiltration.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

The EternalBlue exploit targets a vulnerability in the SMB protocol on Windows systems.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

In Linux, SUID binaries always pose a security risk and should be removed.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Mimikatz can be used to dump credentials from the LSASS process in Windows.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Clearing event logs is considered a post-exploitation covering tracks activity.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Horizontal privilege escalation involves gaining higher-level privileges, such as moving from a user to an administrator.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Explain the key steps an attacker might take after initial exploitation to maintain access and move laterally within a network.

a)

Establish persistence, escalate privileges, harvest credentials, and move laterally using techniques such as Pass-the-Hash

b)

Immediately exfiltrate all data and disconnect from the network

c)

Focus solely on privilege escalation without credential harvesting or lateral movement

d)

Create decoy files and rely on signature-based detection to avoid discovery

60.

Why is privilege escalation a critical phase in both attack and defense scenarios?

a)

It enables deeper attacker control while requiring defenders to understand and harden systems against these techniques

b)

It primarily serves to delete logs and evidence

c)

It is only relevant for data exfiltration and has limited defensive implications

d)

It replaces the need for persistence and lateral movement

61.

What is the primary goal of maintaining access during post-exploitation?

a)

To delete all evidence of the attack

b)

To ensure continued, undetected control of the system

c)

To escalate privileges to the highest level

d)

To exfiltrate all sensitive data immediately

62.

Which technique involves moving from one compromised machine to others within a network?

a)

Privilege escalation

b)

Lateral movement

c)

Covering tracks

d)

Backdoor installation

63.

What is a common method attackers use to maintain persistence on Windows systems?

a)

Adding cron jobs

b)

Modifying the /etc/passwd file

c)

Creating scheduled tasks

d)

Installing SUID binaries

64.

In the APT28 case study, how did attackers initially gain access to the German Bundestag?

a)

SQL injection

b)

EternalBlue exploit

c)

Spear-phishing emails

d)

Physical intrusion

65.

What does "covering tracks" refer to in the post-exploitation phase?

a)

Installing additional backdoors

b)

Erasing or hiding evidence of compromise

c)

Harvesting credentials

d)

Moving laterally across the network

66.

Which tool is specifically mentioned for detecting persistence methods on Windows?

a)

LinPEAS

b)

BloodHound

c)

PersistenceSniper

d)

CrackMapExec

67.

In the SolarWinds attack, what was the primary vector for distributing the malicious backdoor?

a)

Phishing emails to employees

b)

Compromised software updates

c)

Exploiting unpatched SMB vulnerabilities

d)

Physical access to data centers

68.

What is a key defensive lesson from the SolarWinds incident regarding software supply chains?

a)

Rely on signature-based detection only

b)

Ignore third-party software risks

c)

Implement Software Bill of Materials (SBOM)

d)

Disable all encrypted traffic

69.

Which of the following are common lateral movement techniques? (Select all that apply)

a)

Pass-the-Hash

b)

Kerberoasting

c)

DLL hijacking

d)

RDP hijacking

70.

Which tools are mentioned for maintaining access and command & control (C2)? (Select all that apply)

a)

Cobalt Strike

b)

Metasploit

c)

Mimikatz

d)

Wireshark

71.

What techniques did APT28 use for covering tracks? (Select all that apply)

a)

Clearing event logs

b)

Using encrypted tunnels (X-Tunnel)

c)

Timestamp manipulation

d)

Disabling all security tools

72.

Which of the following are key lessons learned from the SolarWinds attack? (Select all that apply)

a)

Supply chain risk cannot be ignored

b)

Zero Trust and Least Privilege are critical

c)

Behavioral detection is unnecessary

d)

Transparency and information sharing are vital

73.

Maintaining access is only important for attackers and has no relevance for defenders.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

APT28 used X-Agent malware to steal keystrokes and credentials in the German Bundestag attack.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

In the SolarWinds attack, the malicious backdoor (Sunburst) activated immediately upon installation.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Covering tracks includes actions like deleting logs and modifying file timestamps.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Spear-phishing was not a factor in the SolarWinds supply chain attack.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

One lesson from APT28 is that multi-layered defense (Defense in Depth) is unnecessary.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

Explain why maintaining access and covering tracks are critical for advanced persistent threat (APT) groups.

a)

They allow APT groups to remain inside a target long term and avoid detection for stealthy operation.

b)

They primarily speed up data exfiltration by increasing bandwidth.

c)

They help attackers deploy ransomware faster on endpoints only.

d)

They reduce the need for command-and-control infrastructure by eliminating network traffic.

80.

Based on the SolarWinds case study, which strategies should organizations adopt to defend against sophisticated supply chain attacks? Select all that apply.

a)

Implement a Zero Trust architecture to limit trust assumptions.

b)

Require Software Bills of Materials (SBOMs) from vendors to increase transparency and vet third‑party software risks.

c)

Increase default administrative privileges for faster incident response.

d)

Disable code signing to simplify deployments.

81.

What is the primary function of a Domain Controller (DC) in Active Directory?

a)

To serve as a web server for the domain

b)

To store the AD database and handle authentication

c)

To act as a firewall for the network

d)

To manage email services for users

82.

Which authentication protocol is the primary one used in Active Directory?

a)

NTLM

b)

LDAP

c)

Kerberos

d)

SAML

83.

What is the purpose of a Service Principal Name (SPN)?

a)

To uniquely identify a user account in the domain

b)

To link a service to a service account for Kerberos authentication

c)

To define the password policy for a domain

d)

To manage Group Policy Objects (GPOs)

84.

What does the NTDS.dit file contain?

a)

Windows system logs

b)

Group Policy settings

c)

Active Directory database including user accounts and password hashes

d)

Network routing tables

85.

In a transitive trust, if Domain A trusts Domain B and Domain B trusts Domain C, what is the relationship between Domain A and Domain C?

a)

Domain A trusts Domain C

b)

Domain C trusts Domain A

c)

There is no trust relationship

d)

The trust is one-way only

86.

Which of the following is a common attack against Kerberos?

a)

DNS spoofing

b)

Kerberoasting

c)

SQL injection

d)

Cross-site scripting (XSS)

87.

What is the main purpose of Group Policy Objects (GPOs)?

a)

To manage hardware devices on the network

b)

To centrally manage settings for users and computers

c)

To create user accounts automatically

d)

To encrypt network traffic

88.

Which Active Directory service provides Single Sign-On (SSO) across multiple systems?

a)

AD DS (Domain Services)

b)

AD LDS (Lightweight Directory Services)

c)

AD FS (Federation Services)

d)

AD RMS (Rights Management Services)

89.

Which of the following are components of Active Directory's logical structure? Select all that apply.

a)

Domains

b)

Trees

c)

Forests

d)

Switches

90.

Which of the following are weaknesses or attack vectors related to NTLM authentication? Select all that apply.

a)

Pass-the-Hash

b)

Relay attacks

c)

Kerberoasting

d)

SMB signing

91.

What are common steps in an Active Directory attack path? Select all that apply.

a)

Enumeration

b)

Credential harvesting

c)

Lateral movement

d)

Domain dominance

92.

Which of the following are types of Active Directory trusts? Select all that apply.

a)

One-way trust

b)

Transitive trust

c)

Forest trust

d)

Universal trust

93.

A workgroup is a centralized network model suitable for large enterprises.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

Kerberos uses Ticket-Granting Tickets (TGTs) and Service Tickets (TGS) for authentication.

a)

True

b)

False

95.

The SID S-1-5-512 corresponds to the Domain Admins group.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

Group Policy Preferences (GPP) passwords are stored in plain text and are a known security weakness.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

AD LDS (Lightweight Directory Services) requires a domain controller to function.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Compromising the AD CS (Certificate Services) server can lead to certificate-based attacks like Pass-the-PTC.

a)

True

b)

False

99.

Explain why Active Directory is a major target for attackers in enterprise networks.

a)

It centralizes authentication and authorization, so compromising it grants access to domain resources, user credentials, and enables lateral movement.

b)

It is mainly used for hosting public websites, making web defacement the primary risk.

c)

It functions only as a file server for small workgroups, limiting potential impact.

d)

It stores temporary logs that attackers cannot use for privilege escalation.

100.

Describe two common attack techniques against Kerberos in Active Directory and their impact. Select all that apply.

a)

Kerberoasting extracts service account tickets for offline cracking, enabling impersonation.

b)

Golden Ticket attacks forge Ticket-Granting Tickets using the KRBTGT hash, granting unrestricted domain access.

c)

Pass-the-Hash attacks rely on NTLM credential reuse, unrelated to Kerberos tickets.

d)

SQL injection compromises directory databases via application-layer input flaws.