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Worksheets

Page 1

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Look at the thermometer image with both Fahrenheit and Celsius scales. What Celsius temperature is indicated by the pointer near 72°F?

a)

0°C

b)

32°C

c)

22°C

d)

-10°C

2.

A storage requirement lists -20°F. Which Celsius value is closest to this temperature using the dual-scale thermometer concept and conversion knowledge?

a)

-19°C

b)

-39°C

c)

-32°C

d)

-29°C

3.

On the inner Celsius scale, what temperature corresponds to the freezing point of water?

a)

20°C

b)

0°C

c)

-10°C

d)

10°C

4.

Which statement best describes the relationship between 0°F and temperatures on the Celsius scale?

a)

It is well below 0°C

b)

It equals exactly 0°C

c)

It is slightly above 0°C

d)

It equals 10°C

5.

If the pointer moves from 70°F to 80°F, about how many degrees does it move on the Celsius scale?

a)

About 2°C

b)

About 6°C

c)

About 12°C

d)

About 20°C

6.

Which reading is warmer: 25°C or 68°F?

a)

25°C is warmer

b)

68°F is warmer

c)

Cannot be compared

d)

They are exactly equal

7.

A classroom thermostat shows 18°C. Which Fahrenheit value is closest?

a)

64°F

b)

72°F

c)

86°F

d)

54°F

8.

When reading an analog dial, why might the Fahrenheit and Celsius scales appear not to match perfectly?

a)

Photograph angle causes parallax

b)

The thermometer is broken

c)

Fahrenheit and Celsius change randomly

d)

Celsius is twice Fahrenheit

9.

Which is the best estimate for room temperature on the Celsius scale when the dial shows around 70°F?

a)

21°C

b)

-5°C

c)

35°C

d)

5°C

10.

A sample must be kept at 0°C. What Fahrenheit temperature should you set on a dial that only shows °F?

a)

32°F

b)

0°F

c)

50°F

d)

10°F

11.

According to the pie chart, which category has the highest percentage of violations?

a)

Hazardous materials at 8 percent

b)

Fire protection at 7 percent

c)

Toxic and hazardous substances at 23 percent

d)

Electrical standards at 21 percent

12.

Which time span does the dataset cover for the violations shown?

a)

From January 1994 to December 2004

b)

From January 1996 to December 2002

c)

From January 1990 to December 2000

d)

From January 1995 to December 2003

13.

Which category is labeled at 10 percent on the chart?

a)

Personal protective equipment

b)

Machinery and machine guarding

c)

All other categories

d)

Walking-working surfaces

14.

Identify the percentage shown for Walking–Working Surfaces.

a)

Ten percent

b)

Eight percent

c)

Seven percent

d)

Nine percent

15.

Which category has the smallest percentage among the labeled slices?

a)

Personal protective equipment at eight percent

b)

Hazardous materials at eight percent

c)

Electrical at twenty-one percent

d)

Fire protection at seven percent

16.

What percentage is assigned to "All Other" on the chart?

a)

Ten percent

b)

Twenty-three percent

c)

Seventeen percent

d)

Nine percent

17.

Which two categories are both shown as eight percent?

a)

Machinery guarding and walking surfaces

b)

All other and electrical

c)

Electrical and fire protection

d)

Hazardous materials and personal protective equipment

18.

If you combine Electrical (21%) and Machinery & Machine Guarding (10%), what total percentage do they represent?

a)

Thirty-three percent

b)

Thirty percent

c)

Thirty-one percent

d)

Twenty-nine percent

19.

Which category is most likely to be second-highest after Toxic & Hazardous Substances?

a)

Electrical at twenty-one percent

b)

All Other at seventeen percent

c)

Machinery guarding at ten percent

d)

Walking surfaces at nine percent

20.

The prompt on the page asks: Which type of standards were most frequently violated during the given time period? Choose the correct option.

a)

Other

b)

Hazardous materials

c)

Fire protection

d)

Electrical

21.

The page also asks: This data was collected over a period of approximately how many years? Choose the correct option.

a)

Sixteen years

b)

Eleven years

c)

Six years

d)

Twenty years

22.

Using the image with the cartridge beside a metric ruler, what is the approximate length of the cartridge?

a)

About 4 inches

b)

About 2.5 inches

c)

About 4 centimeters

d)

About 2.5 centimeters

23.

The ruler in the image is labeled in centimeters. Which mark indicates 3 centimeters from zero?

a)

The fourth long tick

b)

The third long tick

c)

The first long tick

d)

The second long tick

24.

Which comparison best estimates the cartridge length relative to the coin?

a)

About three times the coin diameter

b)

About twice the coin diameter

c)

About the same as the coin diameter

d)

About half the coin diameter

25.

If the cartridge measures near 4 cm, what is this length in millimeters?

a)

About 400 millimeters

b)

About 4 millimeters

c)

About 40 millimeters

d)

About 25 millimeters

26.

The zero mark on the ruler aligns with the cartridge base. Why is this important for measurement accuracy?

a)

It reduces parallax error

b)

It ensures consistent lighting

c)

It magnifies the scale

d)

It keeps temperature constant

27.

Which unit is most appropriate for reporting the cartridge length shown?

a)

Millimeters

b)

Micrometers

c)

Meters

d)

Kilometers

28.

If the ruler had inches instead of centimeters, which estimate would be closest for the cartridge length?

a)

About 1 inch

b)

About 1.5 inches

c)

About 2 inches

d)

About 3 inches

29.

Which statement best explains why '2.5 centimeters' is not a good estimate for the cartridge length?

a)

The tip is too sharp

b)

The base is too wide

c)

The top exceeds the 3 cm mark

d)

The ruler uses inches

30.

If the coin’s diameter is about 2.4 cm, what ratio of cartridge length to coin diameter is most reasonable?

a)

About 4:1

b)

About 1:1

c)

About 2:1

d)

About 3:1

31.

To improve precision, which method should be used when reading the ruler in the image?

a)

Round to the nearest full inch

b)

Estimate to the nearest half centimeter

c)

Measure from the coin’s edge

d)

Ignore the zero alignment

32.

Which cause of on-the-job accidents shows the highest average worker’s compensation payout in the table?

a)

Poisoning or chemical exposure has the highest payout

b)

Electrical has the highest payout listed

c)

Mechanical has the highest payout listed

d)

Falls have the highest payout listed

33.

According to the table, which cause has the greatest number of accidents per 100,000 employees?

a)

Electrical shows the greatest accident count

b)

Other shows the greatest accident count

c)

Mechanical shows the greatest accident count

d)

Falls show the greatest accident count

34.

Which accident cause has the lowest average compensation payout?

a)

Falls have the lowest payout amount

b)

Electrical has the lowest payout amount

c)

Other has the lowest payout amount

d)

Mechanical has the lowest payout amount

35.

What is the total number of accidents per 100,000 employees shown at the bottom of the table?

a)

The total listed is 166

b)

The total listed is 156

c)

The total listed is 146

d)

The total listed is 136

36.

Which cause has an average payout closest to $81,000?

a)

Other is closest to $81,000

b)

Falls are closest to $81,000

c)

Electrical is closest to $81,000

d)

Mechanical is closest to $81,000

37.

If you rank causes by average payout from highest to lowest, which comes second?

a)

Other comes second in payout rank

b)

Electrical comes second in payout rank

c)

Falls comes second in payout rank

d)

Mechanical comes second in payout rank

38.

Which statement about the relationship between accident frequency and payout is best supported by the table?

a)

Payouts do not vary between causes

b)

Frequency and payout are identical measures

c)

Less frequent accidents often pay more

d)

More frequent accidents always pay more

39.

A company wants to reduce payouts. Targeting which cause may have the biggest payout per incident impact?

a)

Electrical should be targeted first

b)

Poisoning or chemical exposure should be targeted

c)

Falls should be targeted first

d)

Mechanical should be targeted first

40.

If ‘Other’ accidents decrease by 5 cases, what would the new total accidents be?

a)

The new total would be 142

b)

The new total would be 141

c)

The new total would be 144

d)

The new total would be 143

41.

Which pair shows a cause with fewer accidents but higher average payout than Falls?

a)

All causes compared to Falls

b)

Electrical compared to Falls

c)

Mechanical compared to Falls

d)

Other compared to Falls

42.

Look at the floor plan. Which room appears to have the greatest area based on relative dimensions?

a)

Office 3 on the right side

b)

The conference room on the top

c)

The lobby space in the center

d)

Office 1 on the left side

43.

Which labeled room is directly below Office 1 in the floor plan?

a)

The lobby area

b)

Office 2 section

c)

Office 3 section

d)

Conference room area

44.

Which room has an entrance opening toward the lobby from the right side of the plan?

a)

Conference room entry top center

b)

Office 1 entry from left

c)

Office 2 entry from lobby

d)

Office 3 entry near lobby

45.

Which space is centrally located and connects to multiple rooms?

a)

The right office

b)

The left office

c)

The top conference

d)

The central lobby

46.

If walls divide the suite into rectangular sections, which room is the largest rectangle?

a)

The lobby rectangle

b)

Office 1 rectangle

c)

Office 3 rectangle

d)

Conference room rectangle

47.

Which pair of rooms are positioned on the left side of the suite?

a)

Conference and Office 3

b)

Lobby and Conference

c)

Office 1 and Office 2

d)

Lobby and Office 3

48.

Which room shares a wall with both the lobby and the conference room?

a)

Office 2 section

b)

None of the rooms

c)

Office 1 section

d)

Office 3 section

49.

Which direction would you move from the lobby to reach the conference room?

a)

Move diagonally right

b)

Move left from lobby

c)

Move down from lobby

d)

Move up from lobby

50.

Which room is most likely intended for group meetings based on the labels?

a)

Office 2 workspace

b)

Conference room area

c)

Office 1 workspace

d)

Office 3 workspace

51.

Which room appears smallest by area estimation from the diagram?

a)

Office 3 on the right

b)

The central lobby

c)

Office 2 on the left

d)

Office 1 on the left

52.

In the chart, what label corresponds to high grades in easy courses?

a)

Struggling but possibly ambitious

b)

Needs to show results

c)

Ideal student

d)

Lacks drive

53.

A student with high grades in hard courses matches which category in the matrix?

a)

Struggling but possibly ambitious

b)

Needs to show results

c)

Ideal student

d)

Lacks drive

54.

Which category fits low grades in easy courses?

a)

Needs to show results

b)

Ideal student

c)

Struggling but possibly ambitious

d)

Lacks drive

55.

Low grades with hard courses are described as what?

a)

Needs to show results

b)

Ideal student

c)

Lacks drive

d)

Struggling but possibly ambitious

56.

According to the chart, which combination suggests a student may be ambitious despite challenges?

a)

Low grades, easy courses

b)

Low grades, hard courses

c)

High grades, hard courses

d)

High grades, easy courses

57.

Which matrix axis runs left to right at the bottom?

a)

Student motivation level

b)

Difficulty of high school courses

c)

College acceptance rate

d)

Grades earned in high school

58.

What does the vertical axis of the chart represent?

a)

Admissions decisions

b)

Course difficulty scale

c)

Grades earned in high school

d)

Extracurricular involvement

59.

Which label implies a negative view of motivation despite strong performance?

a)

Possibly ambitious

b)

Lacks drive

c)

Ideal student

d)

Needs to show results

60.

Moving from easy to hard courses with low grades shifts a student from which label to which?

a)

Needs to show results to Struggling but possibly ambitious

b)

Ideal student to Lacks drive

c)

Lacks drive to Ideal student

d)

Struggling to Needs to show results

61.

Which student profile would admissions likely consider most favorable?

a)

High grades in hard courses

b)

Low grades in hard courses

c)

High grades in easy courses

d)

Low grades in easy courses

62.

On the map, which street runs parallel to 3rd Ave across most of the area shown?

a)

Pike St

b)

2nd Ave

c)

1st Ave

d)

Alaskan Way

63.

If you start at Pike St and 4th Ave and move one block west and one block south, where do you arrive?

a)

Pine St and 3rd Ave

b)

Pine St and 2nd Ave

c)

Union St and 3rd Ave

d)

Pike Pl and 3rd Ave

64.

Which labeled neighborhood lies directly northwest of Pike Market on the map?

a)

Central B

b)

Postal Area

c)

Lenora District

d)

Belltown

65.

To walk the shortest route from Virginia St to Lenora St, which general direction should you go?

a)

Southwest

b)

Northwest

c)

Northeast

d)

Southeast

66.

What is the minimum number of blocks between Blanchard St and Stewart St along parallel streets?

a)

Two blocks

b)

Three blocks

c)

Five blocks

d)

Seven blocks

67.

Standing at 2nd Ave and Pine St, which turn leads most directly toward Alaskan Way?

a)

Turn east onto Pine St

b)

Turn west onto Pine St

c)

Turn south onto 2nd Ave

d)

Turn north onto 2nd Ave

68.

Which pair of streets intersects within the Pike Market area as shown?

a)

Virginia St and Alaskan Way

b)

Stewart St and 2nd Ave

c)

Union St and 4th Ave

d)

Pike Pl and 1st Ave

69.

From 3rd Ave and Union St, which route reaches Stewart St in the fewest straight blocks?

a)

North on 3rd Ave

b)

South on 3rd Ave

c)

West on Union St

d)

East on Union St

70.

Which street runs diagonally compared to the rectangular grid of avenues and streets?

a)

Union St

b)

Stewart St

c)

Pine St

d)

Alaskan Way

71.

What is the best description of the general orientation of numbered avenues (1st Ave, 2nd Ave, 3rd Ave)?

a)

They are short dead-end lanes

b)

They curve around Pike Market

c)

They run east–west

d)

They run north–south

72.

In the NFPA diamond, what does the blue section represent for hazardous materials?

a)

Instability hazard rating

b)

Health hazard rating

c)

Specific special hazards

d)

Fire hazard rating

73.

A red rating of 1 indicates what about a material’s flash point?

a)

Below 100°F flash point

b)

Above 200°F flash point

c)

Below 73°F flash point

d)

Will not burn under heat

74.

What does a yellow instability rating of 4 indicate?

a)

May detonate with little initiation

b)

Unstable if heated

c)

Violent chemical change

d)

Stable under normal conditions

75.

Which special hazard symbol indicates a material should not be combined with water?

a)

OXI label for oxidizer

b)

COR label for corrosive

c)

ALK label for alkali

d)

W with bar for water reactive

76.

According to the chart, what is the meaning of a blue health rating of 3?

a)

Deadly with minimal exposure

b)

Extreme danger to health

c)

Slightly hazardous exposure

d)

Normal material risk

77.

If a substance has red 0, what is the best safety assumption about burning?

a)

Ignites below 73°F

b)

Burns only above 200°F

c)

Burns below 100°F

d)

Will not burn at any temperature

78.

A material labeled COR in the white section most likely has what property?

a)

Causes rapid oxidation

b)

Causes chemical corrosion

c)

Contains strong alkali

d)

Emits radioactive energy

79.

Which combination best describes a substance that is extremely flammable and slightly hazardous to health?

a)

Red 1, blue 3

b)

Red 0, blue 2

c)

Red 4, blue 1

d)

Red 3, blue 4

80.

If a container shows yellow 2, what should responders infer about stability?

a)

Detonation may occur

b)

Violent chemical change likely

c)

Unstable when heated

d)

Stable during normal handling

81.

Given the NFPA diamond showing blue 3, red 1, yellow 2, and W in white, which safety step is most important?

a)

Store only below 73°F

b)

Avoid inhalation and skin contact

c)

Use water to dilute spills

d)

Shake container to test stability

82.

According to the timeline, which Wonder shows the longest span of existence?

a)

Great Pyramid of Giza

b)

Mausoleum at Halicarnassus

c)

Temple of Artemis at Ephesus

d)

Lighthouse of Alexandria

83.

Which structure was created earliest among the listed Wonders?

a)

Temple of Artemis at Ephesus

b)

Mausoleum at Halicarnassus

c)

Lighthouse of Alexandria

d)

Hanging Gardens of Babylon

84.

Which Wonder’s bar begins around 292 BC and ends at 654 AD?

a)

Colossus of Rhodes

b)

Temple of Artemis at Ephesus

c)

Statue of Zeus at Olympia

d)

Lighthouse of Alexandria

85.

What approximate start date is marked for the Temple of Artemis at Ephesus?

a)

c. 550 BC

b)

c. 351 BC

c)

c. 600 BC

d)

c. 345 BC

86.

Which Wonder is shown with activity “from 1303 AD until 1480 AD”?

a)

Lighthouse of Alexandria

b)

Statue of Zeus at Olympia

c)

Mausoleum at Halicarnassus

d)

Hanging Gardens of Babylon

87.

Which Wonder’s label includes dates 345 BC to c. 450 AD?

a)

Colossus of Rhodes

b)

Temple of Artemis at Ephesus

c)

Mausoleum at Halicarnassus

d)

Statue of Zeus at Olympia

88.

Which Wonder begins around 351 BC and notes activity from 1150 AD until 1454 AD?

a)

Great Pyramid of Giza

b)

Mausoleum at Halicarnassus

c)

Hanging Gardens of Babylon

d)

Colossus of Rhodes

89.

Which Wonder’s start is marked around 280 BC?

a)

Temple of Artemis at Ephesus

b)

Hanging Gardens of Babylon

c)

Lighthouse of Alexandria

d)

Statue of Zeus at Olympia

90.

Which Wonder is indicated with the note “after 1 AD” continuing from 2584 BC?

a)

Hanging Gardens of Babylon

b)

Great Pyramid of Giza

c)

Temple of Artemis at Ephesus

d)

Mausoleum at Halicarnassus

91.

Which Wonder lists clustered dates c. 356 BC and 323 BC within its span?

a)

Colossus of Rhodes

b)

Statue of Zeus at Olympia

c)

Mausoleum at Halicarnassus

d)

Temple of Artemis at Ephesus

92.

In the wind turbine schematic, which component measures wind speed to inform control decisions?

a)

Controller device near generator housing

b)

Yaw motor assembly at the tower top

c)

Anemometer sensor mounted on the nacelle

d)

Wind vane fin behind the rotor hub

93.

Which labeled part adjusts blade angle to regulate power output?

a)

Pitch mechanism at the blade root

b)

Low-speed shaft from the rotor

c)

Brake unit on the main shaft

d)

Gear box connected to generator

94.

What connects the rotors to the gear box in the schematic?

a)

The low-speed shaft from the rotor

b)

The generator assembly housing gears

c)

The yaw drive atop the tower

d)

The high-speed shaft to the generator

95.

Which component converts rotational mechanical energy into electrical energy?

a)

Brake mounted near rotor hub

b)

Generator next to high-speed shaft

c)

Controller unit beside nacelle

d)

Yaw motor at tower junction

96.

In the diagram, which part helps the turbine face the wind direction?

a)

Brake stopping the rotor

b)

Pitch adjusting blade angle

c)

Yaw drive rotating the nacelle

d)

Gear box coupling the shafts

97.

Which pair of instruments together provide wind information for orientation and control?

a)

Rotor and blades

b)

Anemometer and wind vane

c)

Brake and pitch system

d)

Controller and gear box

98.

What is the role of the gear box according to the schematic’s flow of motion?

a)

Stop rotation during maintenance

b)

Increase rotor speed to the generator

c)

Convert electricity to mechanical torque

d)

Measure wind speed and direction

99.

Which shaft connects directly to the generator in the image?

a)

Low-speed shaft from rotor

b)

High-speed shaft leaving gear box

c)

Yaw motor drive shaft

d)

Pitch control linkage

100.

Where are the blades located relative to the nacelle in the schematic?

a)

Behind the nacelle near instruments

b)

In front of the nacelle at rotor hub

c)

Below the tower beside yaw motor

d)

Inside the nacelle near gear box

101.

Which component would engage to stop the rotor from spinning during high winds?

a)

Wind vane changing direction

b)

Pitch increasing blade angle

c)

Brake on the main shaft

d)

Controller issuing commands

102.

Which axis on the diagram represents galaxy color from blue to red?

a)

No axis labeled color

b)

Vertical axis labeled color

c)

Horizontal axis labeled luminosity

d)

Diagonal axis through cloud shapes

103.

What does the horizontal axis of the diagram measure?

a)

Galaxy distance from Earth

b)

Temperature from cold to hot

c)

Star formation rate

d)

Luminosity from low to high

104.

According to the diagram, which category spans the widest range of luminosity?

a)

Red sequence galaxies

b)

Green valley galaxies

c)

Blue cloud galaxies

d)

All categories equally

105.

Which category appears lowest on the color axis, indicating bluer color?

a)

Blue cloud

b)

None labeled

c)

Red sequence

d)

Green valley

106.

If a galaxy is in the green valley, how does its color compare to the other two categories?

a)

Redder than red sequence

b)

Bluer than blue cloud

c)

Between red sequence and blue cloud

d)

Exactly the same as blue cloud

107.

A student claims luminosity increases upward on the diagram. What correction should be made?

a)

Luminosity is constant across

b)

Luminosity increases right to left

c)

Luminosity increases left to right

d)

Luminosity increases downward

108.

Which description best matches red sequence galaxies in this diagram?

a)

Generally red and wide luminosity range

b)

Generally blue and narrow luminosity range

c)

Generally green and lowest luminosity

d)

Color varies widely without trend

109.

A galaxy plotted at low luminosity and very blue color would most likely fall into which category?

a)

Red sequence

b)

None of the categories

c)

Green valley

d)

Blue cloud

110.

Which statement about category positions is supported by the diagram?

a)

Blue cloud sits below green valley

b)

Red sequence sits below blue cloud

c)

All three categories overlap perfectly

d)

Green valley sits above red sequence

111.

If a galaxy transitions from blue cloud to red sequence, what change in color does the diagram suggest?

a)

Color becomes bluer overall

b)

Color becomes redder overall

c)

Color stays exactly the same

d)

Color cycles from red to blue repeatedly

112.

Which galaxy type in the diagram is shown with the largest range of color?

a)

Red sequence shows widest color spread

b)

Green valley shows widest color spread

c)

All types display equal color range

d)

Blue cloud shows widest color spread

113.

On the Handling Qualities Rating Scale, what pilot rating corresponds to Excellent characteristics with no pilot compensation needed?

a)

Level 1 indicates excellent, no compensation

b)

Level 3 indicates excellent, no compensation

c)

Level 5 indicates excellent, no compensation

d)

Level 7 indicates excellent, no compensation

114.

Which description matches the Good category on the scale?

a)

Minor but annoying deficiencies, moderate compensation

b)

Negligible deficiencies, pilot compensation not a factor

c)

Very objectionable but tolerable deficiencies, extensive compensation

d)

Major deficiencies, compensation required for control

115.

Fair handling qualities require what level of pilot compensation?

a)

Extensive compensation for adequate performance

b)

Moderate compensation for desired performance

c)

Minimal compensation to achieve desired performance

d)

Considerable compensation to retain control

116.

When deficiencies are minor but annoying, which pilot rating applies?

a)

Rating 4 applies to minor but annoying

b)

Rating 2 applies to minor but annoying

c)

Rating 6 applies to minor but annoying

d)

Rating 8 applies to minor but annoying

117.

Adequate performance requiring considerable pilot compensation corresponds to which category?

a)

Moderately objectionable deficiencies with adequate performance

b)

Excellent characteristics highly desirable

c)

Major deficiencies with loss of control

d)

Good characteristics with negligible deficiencies

118.

Which statement is true about very objectionable but tolerable deficiencies?

a)

Control will be lost during operation

b)

Pilot compensation not a factor at all

c)

Desired performance needs minimal compensation

d)

Adequate performance requires extensive compensation

119.

What does the scale indicate when adequate performance is not attainable even with maximum tolerable pilot compensation?

a)

Very objectionable deficiencies with rating 6

b)

Negligible deficiencies with rating 2

c)

Minor deficiencies with rating 4

d)

Major deficiencies with rating 7

120.

If considerable pilot compensation is required for control, which rating applies?

a)

Rating 3 indicates fair performance

b)

Rating 8 indicates major deficiencies

c)

Rating 5 indicates moderate compensation

d)

Rating 1 indicates excellent control

121.

Which condition corresponds to rating 10 on the scale?

a)

Adequate performance with extensive compensation

b)

Control lost during some portion of the operation

c)

Pilot compensation not a factor for performance

d)

Minimal compensation needed to meet performance

122.

What does the acronym LEL stand for in gas safety contexts?

a)

Limiting exposure level

b)

Least energy level

c)

Lower explosive limit

d)

Lower emission level

123.

If flammable gas concentration is below 5% LEL and oxygen is under 23%, which action is allowed?

a)

Inspection permitted

b)

Entry not permitted

c)

Cold work permitted

d)

Hot work permitted

124.

When flammable gas concentration is below 10% LEL but oxygen is not checked, what is the allowed activity?

a)

Entry not permitted

b)

Inspection permitted

c)

Cold work permitted

d)

Hot work permitted

125.

Which threshold allows inspection when flammable gas concentration is below a certain LEL percentage?

a)

Below 5% LEL

b)

Below 10% LEL

c)

Below 50% LEL

d)

Below 25% LEL

126.

According to the chart, what happens if flammable gas concentration is not less than 5% LEL at the first decision point?

a)

Hot work not permitted

b)

Cold work permitted

c)

Inspection permitted

d)

Hot work permitted

127.

Which oxygen concentration condition must be met for hot work to be permitted?

a)

Oxygen ≥ 23%

b)

Oxygen between 19–21%

c)

Oxygen < 23%

d)

Oxygen = 21%

128.

If the gas concentration is not less than 10% LEL after hot work is disallowed, what is the chart’s directive?

a)

Cold work permitted

b)

Cold work not permitted

c)

Entry not permitted

d)

Inspection permitted

129.

At the lowest branch, if concentration is not less than 25% LEL, what is the outcome?

a)

Hot work not permitted

b)

Inspection permitted

c)

Entry not permitted

d)

Cold work permitted

130.

Arrange the permitted activities from most stringent to least stringent as concentration limits increase.

a)

Cold work → Hot work → Inspection

b)

Hot work → Cold work → Inspection

c)

Hot work → Inspection → Cold work

d)

Inspection → Cold work → Hot work

131.

Which statement best describes the decision tree’s purpose?

a)

Set gas sampling frequency

b)

Guide work decisions in gas hazards

c)

Replace oxygen sensors entirely

d)

Calculate exact LEL values for gases

132.

A welder finds methane at greater than 5% of the lower explosive limit, but less than 10%, and oxygen concentration is 8%. What is the most accurate action based on the safety flowchart?

a)

No one may enter the room

b)

The welder may do cold work

c)

The welder may do neither hot nor cold work, but a safety inspector may enter the room

d)

The welder may do hot work

133.

Under which condition would a safety inspection be most appropriate?

a)

5% or greater of the LEL of a combustible gas, but less than 10%

b)

Concentration of combustible gas in an area exceeds 25%

c)

10% or greater of the LEL of a combustible gas, but less than 25%

d)

Less than 5% of the LEL of a combustible gas in an area

134.

According to the OSHA 200 & 300 log summary bar chart, which year had the lowest total number of injury claims?

a)

2003

b)

2002

c)

2001

d)

All years were equal

135.

Which body part shows the highest number of strain claims on the silhouette figure?

a)

Knee

b)

Shoulder

c)

Back

d)

Neck

136.

If an area has 12% of the LEL of a combustible gas, what action is indicated by the options provided?

a)

Schedule a safety inspection

b)

Evacuate and prohibit entry

c)

Proceed without inspection

d)

Begin hot work immediately

137.

In the chart, which category totals 3 claims across the years 2001–2003?

a)

Shoulder/Neck

b)

Back/Leg/Chest

c)

Arm/Hand/Wrist

d)

Groin

138.

A reading shows oxygen at 8% in a room. Which option best explains why hot work should not proceed?

a)

Low oxygen indicates insufficient breathing air

b)

Low oxygen prevents metal from heating properly

c)

Low oxygen shows gas concentration is zero

d)

Low oxygen can increase combustion risk

139.

On the silhouette, which limb area has 6 wrist strain claims and 1 finger claim?

a)

Knee and ankle area

b)

Shoulder joint area

c)

Forearm and hand area

d)

Upper arm region

140.

Which statement matches the LEL thresholds presented?

a)

Less than 5% LEL: inspection required

b)

>25% LEL: normal operations

c)

5%–<10% LEL: inspection appropriate

d)

10%–<25% LEL: proceed with hot work

141.

Using the bar chart legend, how are the years indicated within each stacked bar?

a)

By distinct colors for 2001, 2002, 2003

b)

By different bar widths for each year

c)

By separate charts for each year

d)

By labels written atop each segment

142.

Which statement best describes the trend in back/leg/chest injuries between 2001 and 2002?

a)

Count increased while proportion stayed the same

b)

Count decreased but proportion increased from 2001 to 2002

c)

Both count and proportion increased from 2001 to 2002

d)

Both count and proportion decreased from 2001 to 2002

143.

Over the three recorded years, which claim about shoulder injuries is accurate?

a)

They were the lowest category across all years

b)

They were the highest every single year

c)

They were not the highest in any single year

d)

They always exceeded arm/hand/wrist injuries

144.

In 2011, which industry shows Alaska’s injury incidence rate noticeably higher than the U.S. overall?

a)

Service providing industries overall

b)

Information sector generally

c)

Leisure and hospitality sector

d)

Construction sector specifically

145.

Which goods-producing industry displays the highest injury rate in Alaska according to the chart?

a)

Manufacturing sector in Alaska

b)

Construction sector in Alaska

c)

Natural resources/mining in Alaska

d)

Other services within goods

146.

Which service-providing industry has the highest injury rate in the U.S. overall?

a)

Leisure and hospitality

b)

Trade, transportation, and utilities

c)

Professional and business services

d)

Educational and health services

147.

For most listed occupations, how does Alaska’s incidence rate compare to the U.S. overall?

a)

Equal between Alaska and the U.S.

b)

Lower in Alaska for most occupations

c)

Higher in Alaska for most occupations

d)

Alaska higher only for information

148.

Which statement about private industry overall is supported by the chart?

a)

Both rates are identical and low

b)

U.S. overall exceeds Alaska’s rate

c)

Alaska’s rate exceeds the U.S. overall

d)

Rates are identical and relatively high

149.

Which industry shows Alaska’s rate notably lower than the national rate?

a)

Leisure and hospitality

b)

Educational and health services

c)

Information industry

d)

Private industry overall

150.

Within service-providing industries, which sector in Alaska appears to have a moderate injury rate lower than leisure and hospitality?

a)

Financial activities

b)

Trade, transportation, and utilities

c)

Educational and health services

d)

Professional and business services