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VTA 120 Final Exam Review

Total questions: 74

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the key difference between classical conditioning and operant conditioning?

a)

Classical is faster to teach than operant

b)

Classical involves commands; operant does not

c)

Classical uses punishment; operant uses rewards only

d)

Classical associates stimuli; operant associates behaviors with consequences

2.

Which is an example of classical conditioning in a domestic animal?

a)

A cat coming to the kitchen after hearing a can opener

b)

A dog sitting when commanded

c)

A cat scratching furniture for attention

d)

A puppy being house-trained with treats

3.

Which organization maintains a database of dog breeds?

a)

AKC

b)

USDA

c)

AAFP

d)

ACVB

4.

Identify each dog breed.

a)

1.

Shetland Sheepdog

b)

2.

Beagle

c)

3.

Weimaraner

d)

4.

Bloodhound

5.

Identify each dog breed.

a)

1.

Australian Shepherd

b)

2.

Papillon

c)

3.

French Bulldog

d)

4.

Golden Retriever

6.

Which organization maintains a database of cat breeds?

a)

AVBP

b)

DEA

c)

ICA

d)

AKC

7.

When is the primary socialization period for puppies?

a)

16-24 weeks

b)

3-12 weeks

c)

Birth-4 weeks

d)

2-7 weeks

8.

What is a rapid learning process that enables a newborn animal to recognize and bond with its care taker?

a)

Operant conditioning

b)

Imprinting

c)

Ethology

d)

Positive reinforcement

9.

The retrievers and spaniels belong to which AKC dog breed group?

a)

Sporting Dogs

b)

Herding Breeds

c)

Working Breeds

d)

Nonsporting Breeds

10.

Which is a positive punishment?

a)

Yelling at the dog when she jumps on the bed

b)

Ignoring the dog when she jumps on the bed

c)

Giving the dog a treat when she begs

d)

Withholding a treat when the dog runs past you out the door

11.

Which is a difference between punishment and reinforcement?

a)

Punishment is the removal of a stimulus and reinforcement is the addition of a stimulus.

b)

Punishment is taking something away and reinforcement is giving something extra.

c)

Punishment is bad and reinforcement is good.

d)

Punishment is for decreasing behavior and reinforcement is for promoting behavior.

12.

A man favors the low bark of one of his hounds, so he mates the dog with another hound who also has a low bark. This is an example of

a)

operant conditioning.

b)

ethology.

c)

selective breeding.

d)

anthropomorphism.

13.

Most dog breeds are the result of breeding for purposes like hunting or guarding, while cat breeds are the result of selecting for

a)

the best companion.

b)

a certain appearance.

c)

fewer congenital problems.

d)

large litters.

14.


Which cat breed has the longest hair?

a)

Persian

b)

Burmese

c)

Siamese

d)

Abyssinian

15.

If a client wanted to reinforce an elimination behavior, what would he do?

a)

Scold the dog when she eliminates in the wrong spot.

b)

Give the dog praise when she eliminates in the right spot.

c)

Let the dog out frequently.

d)

Scold the dog when she eliminates in the right spot.

16.


Which of the following could indicate a dog is suffering from separation anxiety?

a)

Chewing toys in front of the owner

b)

Barking at strangers on walks

c)

Sleeping more than usual during the day

d)

Urinating indoors only when left alone, excessive howling, and destructive behavior when separated

17.


What is considered the most common and serious behavior problem in dogs?

a)

Excessive barking

b)

Jumping on guests

c)

Aggression

d)

Destructive chewing

18.

During house training, what is the recommended approach if a puppy is caught eliminating inside?

a)

Yell at the puppy and confine it immediately

b)

Calmly interrupt and take the puppy outside, then reward appropriate elimination

c)

Rub the puppy’s nose in the mess

d)

Ignore the behavior and hope it stops

19.

What type of aggression is most commonly seen at the hospital?

a)

Fearful

b)

Territorial

c)

Maternal

d)

Dominance

20.

What is the leading cause for dogs and cats being surrendered or euthanized?

a)

they do not match the new flooring

b)

not being able to afford expensive surgeries

c)

poor training retention

d)

behavioral problems

21.

Anthropomorphism refers to what kind of behavior?

a)

Attachment of very young animals to humans

b)

Eating their food too fast causing vomiting

c)

The attribution of human characteristics and emotions to animals

d)

Aggression between unneutered males

22.

Crate training a puppy can help with what types of behaviors?

a)

Play

b)

Destructive

c)

Innate

d)

Territorial

23.

Use of a litter box with cats is what type of behavior?

a)

Instinctual

b)

Environmentally reinforced

c)

Taught by the owners

d)

Learned from the queen

24.

In a household with two cats, it is recommended that there be how many litterboxes?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

25.

Which statement about aggressive behavior is NOT true?

a)

The animal means no harm.

b)

The behavior is normal, even for companion animals.

c)

It is a behavior problem in dogs and cats.

d)

It is rooted in social conflict.

26.

A dog out for a walk with her owner suddenly and without making a sound leaps onto a porch to attack a sitting cat, who slips through the porch railing and easily escapes. Which type of aggression did the dog display?

a)

Predatory

b)

Pain-induced

c)

Conflict-related

d)

Territorial

27.

Why is positive punishment inappropriate when house training a puppy?

a)

The puppy does not have a grasp on the concept of cause-and-effect.

b)

The puppy may become fearful or aggressive.

c)

Proper elimination is learned through classical conditioning and punishment is a function of operant conditioning.

d)

Puppies have no control over their bowels, so any training is futile.

28.

Clients who complain that their cats are aggressive usually say that the cat is aggressive toward

a)

dogs.

b)

other cats.

c)

birds.

d)

strangers.

29.

Sally, the older lab, is usually in charge. She always gets to lay on the landing of the stairs where she can see the front door. If Rusty, the younger Golden Retriever, is laying in that spot when Sally comes by, he will have to move. This behavior is a result of

a)

classical conditioning.

b)

habituation.

c)

hierarchy.

d)

imprinting.

30.

“Oh, he’s a little devil!” the client tells the veterinary assistant about her rat terrier, “I yelled at him for jumping out of my arms, he took one look at me, and went wee-wee in the kitchen!” What is the term for the client’s belief about the dog’s behavior?

a)

Socialization

b)

Anthropomorphism

c)

Desensitization

d)

Counterconditioning

31.

What is the cardinal rule regarding clients and animal restraint in a veterinary setting?

a)

Clients should never restrain their own animals to avoid injury and liability

b)

Clients must be supervised while restraining their pets

c)

Clients should only restrain their pets for nail trims

d)

Clients may restrain pets with technician approval

32.

An animal who is lying on their belly, with their chest in full contact with the floor/table, is in what position?

a)

Standing

b)

Lateral

c)

Dorsal

d)

Sternal

33.


A dog whose tail is up and wagging, actively seeking attention, while accepting treats from you would have what level of FAS?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

34.

Which canine body language feature is common to both happy and aggressive postures?

a)

Whites of eyes showing

b)

Level stare

c)

Tail wagging

d)

Ears back and low

35.

The new staffer approaches an unknown dog with her palms out, “so the patient can see I have nothing to hide.” What is the veterinary assistant’s response?

a)

“Great job! This is the correct way to approach a dog who does not know you.”

b)

“You should open your hand and allow the dog to sniff the back of it.”

c)

“You should make a light fist and allow the dog to sniff it.”

d)

“You should stretch out your fingertips as you approach the dog.”

36.

How should the veterinary assistant position herself to entice the patient into the exam room?

a)

Standing sideways

b)

Directly in front

c)

Lying down

d)

Behind the patient

37.

What key factors should be considered before restraining any canine patient?

a)

Owner's preference

b)

Breed and coat color

c)

Size, shape, condition, and personality

d)

Age and training level

38.

What is a key difference in restraint for puppies compared to adult dogs?

a)

Puppies should not be tightly restrained; positive methods are preferred

b)

Puppies should be restrained with a muzzle

c)

Puppies need firm restraint at all times

d)

Puppies require sedation for procedures

39.

What should you NOT do if a nervous dog tries to flee in the exam room?

a)

Block the exit with your body

b)

Grab it as it passes by

c)

Use a leash to catch it

d)

Call to it calmly

40.

What is the appropriate body language to adopt when handling an aggressive dog?

a)

Make direct eye contact and face it head-on

b)

Approach quickly from behind

c)

Avoid eye contact and stand sideways

d)

Wave your hands to distract it

41.

Which term describes a dog's expression, exhibited by having ears drawn down and back, showing white around the pupils of the eyes, not making any eye contact, and cowering?

a)

Fearful

b)

Relaxed

c)

Aggressive

d)

Distracted

42.

How should the veterinary assistant handle a dog who is growling and showing its teeth?

a)

Control its muzzle.

b)

Look it in the eye.

c)

Approach from the front.

d)

Corner the animal.

43.

Panting, licking the lips, and pacing are signs the dog is

a)

aggressive.

b)

scared.

c)

submissive.

d)

comfortable.

44.

Which action indicates the veterinary assistant needs further training in the restraint of animals?

a)

The veterinary assistant puts a muzzle on a dog in the waiting room.

b)

The veterinary assistant leaves the older, arthritic dog on the floor.

c)

The veterinary assistant stands sideways in front of aggressive dog.

d)

The veterinary assistant uses a leash to remove a fearful dog from a run.

45.

What is the main distinction between mechanical restraint devices and mobility-limiting devices?

a)

Mechanical devices restrain patients; mobility-limiting devices prevent self-injury or movement

b)

Mechanical devices cause pain; mobility-limiting devices do not

c)

Mechanical devices are used at home; mobility devices are only used in clinics

d)

There is no difference between the two

46.

What advantage does a basket muzzle have over nylon or gauze muzzles?

a)

Allows panting and treat delivery

b)

It is more fashionable and reusable

c)

Prevents barking better than other muzzles

d)

Cheaper and easier to apply

47.

What is the purpose of a catchpole, and what is a key safety precaution when using it?

a)

Used to walk calm dogs; always hold upright

b)

Used to restrain aggressive dogs; ensure proper loop tension and use quick-release

c)

Used to catch stray cats; loop loosely

d)

Used to lift large dogs; never use quick-release

48.

What piece of equipment can be used to prevent a fearful dog from biting?

a)

Gauntlets

b)

Slip leash

c)

Muzzle

d)

Restraint pole

49.

When selecting an Elizabethan collar to use on a dog, what would be the correct length?

a)

It extends past the end of the nose

b)

It comes within an inch of the end of the dog's muzzle

c)

It is the same length as the dog's muzzle

d)

As long as it fits around the neck, the length is not important

50.

What would be an appropriate restraint device for a dog with an FAS of 3 with the potential to bite?

a)

Gauntlets

b)

Muzzle

c)

Slip leash

d)

Close body hug

51.

Which tone of voice does the veterinary assistant use to control the dog?

a)

One that is soft and soothing

b)

One that is deep and commanding

c)

A croon

d)

A question

52.

A rope with a slip ring on one end to remove dogs and cats from cages is called a

a)

leash.

b)

catchpole.

c)

muzzle.

d)

croon.

53.

Which animal should be muzzled?

a)

An injured dog who needs to be moved from the car to the hospital

b)

An injured dog with a head wound

c)

A dog in a submissive posture

d)

An older, arthritic dog

54.

Which dog requires a catchpole to remove it from a kennel?

a)

The large dog who is excited and happy when you come near

b)

The small dog who attacks the front of the kennel

c)

The medium-sized dog who does not walk out of the open cage

d)

The large injured dog who cannot stand up

55.

What is the primary principle to remember when initiating feline restraint?

a)

Use as much restraint as necessary to prevent movement

b)

Always use gloves and scruffing techniques

c)

Start with minimal restraint and work efficiently

d)

Wait until the cat shows aggression to begin restraint

56.

Which type of handling should be avoided during feline restraint?

a)

Distraction with toys or treats

b)

Minimal restraint with positive reinforcement

c)

Quick and gentle handling

d)

Rough, extreme physical restraint and losing temper

57.

The distraction techniques of giving the cat caveman pats and puffs of air are similar in that they both work best when

a)

the cat is sedated.

b)

the force and rate are varied.

c)

the cat is in a carrier.

d)

they are slow and steady.

58.

What action should be taken before opening a kennel?

a)

Close the door to the room.

b)

Don gloves.

c)

Spray pheromones.

d)

Ask the animal to sit.

59.

You are holding a cat for a procedure when it begins to resist. What should you do?

a)

Let the cat go.

b)

Loosen your grip.

c)

Tighten your grip.

d)

Find a spot where it likes to be scratched.

60.

The veterinary assistant reaches in the carrier to grab the cat, but the animal resists. What can the veterinary assistant do to get the cat out of the carrier?

a)

Sedate the animal.

b)

Elevate the back of the carrier and slide the cat out.

c)

Spray pheromones in the exam room.

d)

Pat the carrier firmly.

61.

Why should kittens never be left alone on the examination table?

a)

They might eat the supplies

b)

They may scratch the table

c)

They can fall and injure themselves

d)

They might run to the owner

62.

What can help reduce FAS in kittens during their first vet visits?

a)

Treats and toys

b)

Keeping them in their carrier

c)

Sedation

d)

Harsh verbal commands

63.

What common condition affects brachycephalic cats?

a)

Feline leukemia

b)

Heartworm disease

c)

Brachycephalic airway syndrome

d)

Arthritis

64.

What restraint alternative can be used instead of a muzzle in brachycephalic cats?

a)

Rope leash

b)

Towel wrap only

c)

Oversized Elizabethan collar

d)

Compression wrap

65.

What is a “Purrito”?

a)

A grooming technique

b)

A towel wrap used to reduce restraint needs

c)

A method for giving medication

d)

A food treat for cats

66.

How many people should handle an aggressive cat?

a)

Just one experienced handler

b)

Two or more people

c)

Only the veterinarian

d)

Three veterinary students

67.

Which of the following refers to the use of sedative medications to calm a patient in order to perform a procedure? 

a)

Chemical restraint

b)

Anesthesia 

c)

Tranquilizer 

d)

Mechanical restraint 

68.

Nutraceuticals and pheromones are natural products that may be considered for patients with subtle to mild signs of FAS. 

a)

True

b)

False

69.

Adaptil, the canine pheromone, is available in all of the following forms, EXCEPT:

a)

collar

b)

diffuser

c)

wipes

d)

spray

70.

Feliway, the feline pheromone, is available in all of the following forms, EXCEPT:

a)

diffuser

b)

wipes

c)

spray

d)

powder

71.


Match each PVN to its correct description.

a)

Zylkene

1.

hydrolyzed component of milk protein

b)

L-tryptophan

2.

an amino acid used to reduce FAS

c)

L-theanine

3.

a derivative of green tea

d)

Melatonin

4.

OTC seratonin supplement

72.

It is easy for clients to medicate their pets at home. 

a)

True

b)

False

73.


Match each PVP to its correct description. 

a)

Acepromazine

1.

sedative and tranquilizer

b)

Gabapentin

2.

sedative and pain medication

c)

Trazodone

3.

PVP for cats AND dogs; human sleep aid

74.

Injectable sedatives have a greater impact than oral medications administered by the owner at home.

a)

True

b)

False