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Worksheets

Pharmacology Week 3 Part 2

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which topical retinoid is specifically Pregnancy Category X in the slides?

a)

Tazarotene

b)

Benzoyl peroxide

c)

Clindamycin topical

d)

Azelaic acid

2.

Which agent is also listed as Pregnancy Category X?

a)

Trifarotene

b)

Dapsone topical

c)

Metronidazole topical

d)

Doxycycline topical

3.

Which medication can exacerbate acne?

a)

Lithium

b)

Acyclovir

c)

Terbinafine

d)

Brimonidine

4.

Which set includes only medications listed as acne-exacerbating agents in the slides?

a)

Androgens, corticosteroids, iodides, bromides

b)

Valacyclovir, terbinafine, mupirocin, retapamulin

c)

Brimonidine, oxymetazoline, ivermectin, metronidazole

d)

Penicillin VK, cefazolin, ceftriaxone, piperacillin-tazobactam

5.

Which acne-exacerbating medication is included in the slides?

a)

Gold

b)

Ivermectin

c)

Azelaic acid

d)

Dapsone

6.

Which acne-exacerbating medication is included in the slides?

a)

Dactinomycin

b)

Clascoterone

c)

Oxymetazoline

d)

Terbinafine

7.

Oral isotretinoin is indicated for:

a)

Mild comedonal acne responsive to topical therapy only

b)

Severe recalcitrant acne

c)

Tinea pedis

d)

Erysipelas

8.

Oral isotretinoin is also used for:

a)

Treatment-resistant moderate acne

b)

Disseminated zoster

c)

Non-purulent cellulitis

d)

Cat bite infection

9.

The REMS program required for isotretinoin is:

a)

iPLEDGE

b)

VAERS

c)

REMS-ZosterNet

d)

MedWatch only

10.

Isotretinoin dispensing rules include:

a)

Unlimited refills with one prescription

b)

Maximum 30-day supply and no refills

c)

Dispense 90-day supply at once

d)

Dispense only as OTC

11.

A pharmacy requirement for isotretinoin dispensing includes:

a)

Daily stool cultures

b)

Pharmacist obtains a “do not dispense after” date

c)

Mandatory IV administration

d)

Mandatory combination with benzoyl peroxide

12.

Monitoring listed for isotretinoin includes:

a)

Baseline and periodic CBC

b)

Daily troponins

c)

Monthly renal ultrasound

d)

Weekly pulmonary function tests

13.

Monitoring listed for isotretinoin includes:

a)

Fasting lipid panel

b)

Sweat chloride

c)

INR

d)

Serum lactate daily

14.

Monitoring listed for isotretinoin includes:

a)

Liver function tests

b)

Serum amylase weekly for all

c)

Urine eosinophils

d)

D-dimer monthly

15.

For females, isotretinoin monitoring includes:

a)

Monthly pregnancy tests

b)

Pregnancy test only once after treatment ends

c)

No pregnancy testing required

d)

Pregnancy tests only if symptoms occur

16.

Which feature best supports acne vulgaris rather than rosacea?

a)

Central facial erythema without comedones

b)

Comedones present

c)

Triggered flushing with alcohol

d)

Vascular dysregulation only

17.

Which feature best supports rosacea rather than acne vulgaris?

a)

Comedones and pilosebaceous involvement

b)

No comedones with central facial erythema

c)

Nail involvement

d)

Honey-colored crusts

18.

The rosacea subtype list includes:

a)

Erythematotelangiectatic

b)

Bullous

c)

Vesicular

d)

Gangrenous

19.

The rosacea subtype list includes:

a)

Papulopustular

b)

Necrotizing

c)

Crusting

d)

Follicular abscess subtype

20.

The rosacea subtype list includes:

a)

Phymatous

b)

Ecthyma

c)

Carbuncular

d)

Dermatophytic subtype

21.

The rosacea subtype list includes:

a)

Ocular

b)

Unguium

c)

Capitis

d)

Corporis

22.

Common rosacea triggers listed include:

a)

Spicy foods

b)

Penicillin VK

c)

Mupirocin

d)

Terbinafine

23.

Common rosacea triggers listed include:

a)

Alcohol

b)

Cefazolin

c)

Vancomycin

d)

Dapsone

24.

Common rosacea triggers listed include:

a)

Heat

b)

Retapamulin

c)

Clascoterone

d)

TMP-SMX

25.

Common rosacea triggers listed include:

a)

Caffeine

b)

Acyclovir

c)

Doxycycline for tinea

d)

Amoxicillin-clavulanate for acne

26.

A recommended workup step for rosacea symptom control includes:

a)

Avoiding all skincare forever

b)

Identifying triggers and keeping a symptom diary

c)

Monthly pregnancy tests for all patients

d)

Using only antifungals

27.

Persistent facial erythema in erythematotelangiectatic rosacea can be treated with:

a)

Brimonidine

b)

Terbinafine

c)

Penicillin VK

d)

TMP-SMX

28.

Another option for persistent erythema in erythematotelangiectatic rosacea is:

a)

Oxymetazoline

b)

Retapamulin

c)

Acyclovir

d)

Ceftriaxone

29.

Brimonidine and oxymetazoline help rosacea redness primarily by:

a)

Vasoconstriction

b)

Inhibiting viral DNA polymerase

c)

Inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis

d)

Increasing keratin plug formation

30.

A key point about brimonidine and oxymetazoline in rosacea is:

a)

They treat bumps and pustules best

b)

They do not help papules or pustules

c)

They are first-line for abscesses

d)

They require iPLEDGE

31.

First-line agents listed for papulopustular rosacea include:

a)

Ivermectin

b)

Penicillin VK

c)

Terbinafine

d)

Valacyclovir

32.

Another listed option for papulopustular rosacea is:

a)

Azelaic acid

b)

Dicloxacillin

c)

Piperacillin–tazobactam

d)

Clascoterone

33.

Another listed option for papulopustular rosacea is:

a)

Metronidazole

b)

Mupirocin

c)

Acyclovir

d)

Cefazolin

34.

Another listed option for papulopustular rosacea is:

a)

Minocycline foam

b)

Oral amoxicillin–clavulanate

c)

Oral terbinafine

d)

Oral penicillin VK

35.

Inflamed phymatous rosacea can be treated with:

a)

Oral doxycycline or tetracycline

b)

Topical retapamulin

c)

Oral valacyclovir

d)

IV cefazolin

36.

Inflamed phymatous rosacea can also be treated with:

a)

Oral isotretinoin

b)

Oral terbinafine

c)

Oral penicillin VK

d)

IV acyclovir

37.

Non-inflamed phymatous rosacea treatment options listed include:

a)

Laser therapy or surgical intervention

b)

Oral TMP–SMX only

c)

Topical mupirocin only

d)

IV vancomycin only

38.

A patient with a moderate non-purulent infection (cellulitis) requires IV therapy. Which of the following is the most common pathogen targeted in this clinical scenario?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Streptococcus pyogenes

c)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d)

Bacteroides fragilis

39.

Which of the following medications is most likely to cause or worsen a patient’s acne through an androgenic mechanism?

a)

Lithium

b)

Phenytoin

c)

Progestogens

d)

Isoniazid

40.

A patient is being treated for a severe necrotizing infection. Clindamycin is added to the regimen specifically for its ability to suppress toxins produced by which organisms?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus and Escherichia coli

b)

Streptococcus pyogenes and Clostridium species

c)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Pasteurella multocida

d)

Eikenella corrodens and Candida species

41.

When treating a patient with oral terbinafine for tinea unguium, which laboratory assessment must be performed at baseline and periodically due to the risk of drug-induced organ toxicity?

a)

Complete blood count (CBC)

b)

Fasting lipid panel

c)

Liver function tests (LFTs)

d)

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

42.

Which of the following sets of medications are all documented in the objectives as agents that can exacerbate acne vulgaris?

a)

Phenytoin, isoniazid, and cobalt

b)

Acyclovir, valacyclovir, and famciclovir

c)

Metronidazole, azelaic acid, and ivermectin

d)

Cephalexin, dicloxacillin, and clindamycin

43.

A patient is diagnosed with phymatous rosacea. If the lesions are currently non-inflamed, which management strategy is most appropriate according to the treatment objectives?

a)

Oral doxycycline

b)

Oral isotretinoin

c)

Topical metronidazole

d)

Laser therapy or surgical intervention

44.

A 45-year-old male with a history of poorly controlled diabetes presents with a severe foot infection requiring hospitalization. Which pathogen must be empirically covered in this patient according to the treatment objectives?

a)

Pasteurella multocida

b)

Eikenella corrodens

c)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d)

Varicella-zoster virus

45.

Which of the following is a strict contraindication for the use of oral terbinafine in a patient with tinea unguium?

a)

Creatinine clearance (CrCl) of 45 mL/min

b)

History of mild acne vulgaris

c)

Concurrent use of topical mupirocin

d)

Patient age under 30 years

46.

In the management of severe non-purulent infections, why is the addition of IV clindamycin to the antimicrobial regimen considered critical?

a)

It provides superior coverage against Pseudomonas

b)

It is a cell wall synthesis inhibitor that works on dormant bacteria

c)

It suppresses streptococcal cytokine and toxin production regardless of the bacterial growth phase

d)

It is the only agent that effectively treats crystal-induced renal injury

47.

A patient with moderate acne is starting a new regimen. Which of the following combination strategies is NOT listed as a first-line option for moderate disease?

a)

Benzoyl peroxide + topical antibiotic

b)

Retinoid + benzoyl peroxide

c)

Retinoid + benzoyl peroxide + topical antibiotic

d)

Oral antibiotic + oral isotretinoin

48.

Which of the following statements regarding the iPLEDGE program and oral isotretinoin is correct?

a)

A 90-day supply can be dispensed to improve compliance

b)

Pharmacists must ensure the medication is not dispensed after a specific “do not dispense after” date

c)

Refills are permitted as long as the patient has a negative pregnancy test

d)

It is only required for female patients of childbearing age

49.

A patient with severe non-purulent cellulitis is admitted for emergent surgical inspection and debridement. According to the objectives, which empiric IV antibiotic combination should be initiated?

a)

IV penicillin + IV clindamycin

b)

IV vancomycin + piperacillin–tazobactam

c)

IV ceftriaxone + IV cefazolin

d)

IV acyclovir + IV vancomycin

50.

Which clinical finding is essential to confirm a diagnosis of acne vulgaris and differentiate it from rosacea?

a)

Central facial erythema

b)

Absence of telangiectasias

c)

Presence of comedones

d)

Vascular dysregulation