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Quiz@Immunology and Immunotechnology

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Generation of antibody diversity at the genomic level is primarily achieved by

a)

Isotype switching

b)

Somatic hypermutation

c)

V(D)J recombination

d)

Affinity maturation

2.

The clonal selection theory proposes that lymphocytes

a)

Change specificity after antigen binding

b)

Are pre-programmed for specificity

c)

Share identical receptors

d)

Recognize all antigens

3.

According to clonal selection theory, self-tolerance is maintained by

a)

Clonal expansion

b)

Clonal deletion

c)

Isotype switching

d)

Affinity maturation

4.

Which event occurs FIRST during B-cell activation?

a)

Plasma cell differentiation

b)

Antigen binding to BCR

c)

Class switching

d)

Memory cell formation

5.

Somatic hypermutation primarily affects the

a)

Constant regions

b)

Framework regions

c)

Variable regions

d)

Fc region

6.

The process that increases antibody affinity during an immune response is

a)

Isotype switching

b)

V(D)J recombination

c)

Affinity maturation

d)

Gene conversion

7.

Which cytokine is MOST directly involved in immunoglobulin class switching?

a)

IFN-γ

b)

IL-2

c)

TGF-β

d)

IL-4

8.

Antibody-secreting plasma cells are characterized by

a)

Large nucleus

b)

Extensive rough ER

c)

High surface Ig expression

d)

Active DNA rearrangement

9.

Memory B cells differ from plasma cells mainly in their ability to

a)

Secrete antibodies

b)

Undergo apoptosis

c)

Rapidly respond to antigen

d)

Present antigen

10.

Failure of clonal selection would MOST likely result in

a)

Immunodeficiency

b)

Autoimmunity

c)

Reduced inflammation

d)

Lack of memory

11.

Monoclonal antibodies are defined as antibodies that

a)

Recognize multiple epitopes

b)

Are derived from multiple B-cell clones

c)

Recognize a single epitope

d)

Are polyreactive

12.

Hybridoma technology involves fusion of

a)

Two B cells

b)

B cell and T cell

c)

B cell and myeloma cell

d)

Myeloma and T cell

13.

The major advantage of hybridoma cells is their ability to

a)

Secrete antibodies transiently

b)

Undergo class switching

c)

Produce unlimited identical antibodies

d)

Activate T cells

14.

Selection of hybridomas is achieved using

a)

Antibiotic resistance

b)

HAT medium

c)

Serum deprivation

d)

Growth factors

15.

Which enzyme deficiency makes myeloma cells unable to survive in HAT medium?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Thymidine kinase

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

Reverse transcriptase

16.

The primary limitation of murine monoclonal antibodies in therapy is

a)

Low affinity

b)

High cost

c)

Immunogenicity in humans

d)

Short half-life

17.

Human anti-mouse antibody (HAMA) response leads to

a)

Increased efficacy

b)

Faster clearance

c)

Enhanced complement activation

d)

Prolonged half-life

18.

Humanization of antibodies mainly involves replacing

a)

Entire antibody

b)

Murine constant regions

c)

Murine variable framework regions

d)

Murine Fc region only

19.

Chimeric antibodies differ from humanized antibodies because they

a)

Are fully human

b)

Retain murine variable regions

c)

Replace only Fc regions

d)

Lack Fc domains

20.

Fully human monoclonal antibodies are LEAST likely to cause

a)

Complement activation

b)

Effector functions

c)

Immunogenic reactions

d)

Antigen binding

21.

Monoclonal antibodies used in cancer therapy often function by

a)

Direct DNA damage

b)

Blocking growth factor receptors

c)

Killing normal cells

d)

Enhancing mutation rates

22.

Trastuzumab (Herceptin) is effective in cancer treatment primarily by targeting

a)

EGFR

b)

HER2/neu

c)

PD-1

d)

VEGF

23.

Rituximab is used in lymphoma therapy because it targets

a)

CD3

b)

CD4

c)

CD20

d)

CD28

24.

Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) is mediated mainly by

a)

B cells

b)

T cells

c)

NK cells

d)

Neutrophils

25.

The Fc region of therapeutic antibodies is crucial for

a)

Antigen specificity

b)

Tumor recognition

c)

Immune effector recruitment

d)

Epitope binding

26.

Checkpoint inhibitor antibodies enhance anti-tumor immunity by

a)

Suppressing T cells

b)

Blocking inhibitory signals

c)

Activating B cells

d)

Neutralizing cytokines

27.

Anti-PD-1 antibodies improve cancer outcomes by

a)

Killing tumor cells directly

b)

Enhancing T-cell activation

c)

Activating complement

d)

Blocking angiogenesis

28.

One major risk associated with immune checkpoint therapy is

a)

Immunodeficiency

b)

Autoimmune-like toxicity

c)

Reduced memory response

d)

Antibody neutralization

29.

Monoclonal antibodies show greater specificity than polyclonal antibodies because they

a)

Are more abundant

b)

Recognize single epitope

c)

Have higher avidity

d)

Activate complement

30.

Antibody production following antigen exposure shows clonal expansion because

a)

Multiple clones respond

b)

One clone proliferates

c)

Memory cells die

d)

Antigen mutates

31.

A defect in somatic hypermutation would MOST affect

a)

Antibody class

b)

Antibody affinity

c)

Antibody specificity

d)

Antibody secretion

32.

Which immunoglobulin class is MOST commonly engineered for cancer therapy?

a)

IgA

b)

IgD

c)

IgE

d)

IgG

33.

Antibody humanization improves therapy primarily by

a)

Increasing binding

b)

Reducing immune rejection

c)

Enhancing complement activation

d)

Increasing avidity

34.

A monoclonal antibody blocking VEGF would MOST directly inhibit

a)

Metastasis

b)

Angiogenesis

c)

Apoptosis

d)

Cell cycle arrest

35.

Which step ensures selection of antigen-specific B-cell clones?

a)

Bone marrow maturation

b)

Antigen binding

c)

Hybridoma fusion

d)

Class switching

36.

Failure of negative selection in B cells could lead to

a)

Immunodeficiency

b)

Autoantibody production

c)

Reduced diversity

d)

Lack of memory

37.

The main clinical advantage of monoclonal antibodies over chemotherapy is

a)

Lower cost

b)

Target specificity

c)

Rapid action

d)

Broad toxicity

38.

Antibody engineering allows modification of Fc region to

a)

Reduce specificity

b)

Enhance effector function

c)

Eliminate antigen binding

d)

Prevent class switching

39.

Tumor resistance to monoclonal antibodies may arise due to

a)

Antigen loss

b)

Increased antibody affinity

c)

Enhanced ADCC

d)

Improved immune memory

40.

CAR-T therapy conceptually relies on clonal selection by

a)

Random activation

b)

Antibody secretion

c)

Antigen-specific receptor design

d)

Complement fixation

41.

Generation of long-lived plasma cells occurs mainly in

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Thymus

c)

Lymph node cortex

d)

Spleen red pulp

42.

Antibody gene rearrangement occurs primarily during

a)

Antigen exposure

b)

B-cell development

c)

Plasma cell differentiation

d)

Memory formation

43.

Monoclonal antibodies can be conjugated with toxins to

a)

Enhance specificity

b)

Reduce dosage

c)

Induce tolerance

d)

Deliver targeted cytotoxicity

44.

Loss of clonal diversity would MOST impair

a)

Affinity

b)

Memory

c)

Ability to recognize diverse antigens

d)

Isotype switching

45.

The experimental proof of clonal selection theory was supported by

a)

Serum transfer

b)

Single-cell specificity

c)

Antigen–antibody precipitation

d)

Complement fixation

46.

Hybridoma technology ensures monoclonality by

a)

Limiting dilution

b)

Antibiotic selection

c)

Antigen excess

d)

Adjuvant use

47.

Antibody humanization preserves antigen specificity because

a)

Constant regions bind antigen

b)

CDRs are retained

c)

Fc is modified

d)

Glycosylation is altered

48.

The success of monoclonal antibodies in cancer reflects which immune principle?

a)

Immune tolerance

b)

Specific recognition

c)

Non-specific immunity

d)

Physical barriers

49.

Antibodies used as immune checkpoint inhibitors primarily modulate

a)

B cells

b)

T cells

c)

NK cells

d)

Macrophages

50.

Future cancer therapy combining monoclonal antibodies aims mainly to

a)

Increase toxicity

b)

Reduce specificity

c)

Personalize treatment

d)

Eliminate immune memory

51.

Antigenicity is best defined as the ability of a substance to

a)

Induce immune response

b)

Bind specifically to immune receptors

c)

Activate complement

d)

Produce antibodies only

52.

Immunogenicity differs from antigenicity because immunogenicity requires

a)

Specific binding

b)

Recognition only

c)

Induction of immune response

d)

Antibody formation

53.

Which property of antigens MOST strongly influences immunogenicity?

a)

Solubility

b)

Molecular size

c)

Electrical charge

d)

Temperature

54.

Small molecules that become immunogenic only when attached to carriers are called

a)

Adjuvants

b)

Haptens

c)

Isotypes

d)

Allotypes

55.

The immune response to a hapten–carrier complex is primarily directed against

a)

Hapten only

b)

Carrier only

c)

Both hapten and carrier

d)

Neither

56.

Which adjuvant mechanism enhances immune response by depot formation?

a)

Alum

b)

CpG DNA

c)

Freund’s incomplete adjuvant

d)

Liposomes

57.

Adjuvants enhance immune responses mainly by

a)

Increasing antigen size

b)

Stimulating innate immunity

c)

Inhibiting tolerance

d)

Producing antibodies

58.

The smallest antigenic determinant capable of binding antibody is termed

a)

Epitope

b)

Paratope

c)

Idiotope

d)

Isotype

59.

Conformational epitopes are MOST likely destroyed by

a)

pH change

b)

Proteolysis

c)

Heat denaturation

d)

Oxidation

60.

Which antigen property explains cross-reactivity between unrelated antigens?

a)

Molecular size

b)

Epitope similarity

c)

Charge density

d)

Solubility

61.

The basic immunoglobulin unit consists of

a)

Two heavy chains

b)

Two light chains

c)

Four identical chains

d)

Two heavy and two light chains

62.

Disulfide bonds in immunoglobulins primarily contribute to

a)

Antigen binding

b)

Structural stability

c)

Complement activation

d)

Isotype switching

63.

The antigen-binding site of an antibody is formed by

a)

Constant regions

b)

Heavy chains only

c)

Light chains only

d)

Variable regions of both chains

64.

Hypervariable regions are also known as

a)

Framework regions

b)

Constant domains

c)

Complementarity-determining regions

d)

Isotypic determinants

65.

The hinge region of immunoglobulin mainly provides

a)

Antigen specificity

b)

Structural rigidity

c)

Enzymatic activity

d)

Flexibility

66.

Which immunoglobulin is the FIRST produced in a primary immune response?

a)

IgG

b)

IgA

c)

IgM

d)

IgE

67.

The immunoglobulin class that can cross the placenta is

a)

IgM

b)

IgA

c)

IgG

d)

IgE

68.

Secretory IgA differs structurally from serum IgA due to presence of

a)

Hinge region

b)

J chain

c)

Fc region

d)

Secretory component

69.

IgE mediates allergic reactions primarily through binding to

a)

Macrophages

b)

Mast cells

c)

Neutrophils

d)

B cells

70.

Which immunoglobulin is most efficient at activating complement via classical pathway?

a)

IgA

b)

IgG

c)

IgE

d)

IgM

71.

Isotypes of immunoglobulins are determined by differences in

a)

Variable regions

b)

Light chains

c)

Constant regions of heavy chains

d)

Idiotopes

72.

Allotypes represent

a)

Species differences

b)

Individual genetic variations

c)

Antigen-binding sites

d)

Isotype classes

73.

Idiotypes are associated with

a)

Constant region epitopes

b)

Antibody subclasses

c)

Variable region determinants

d)

Light chain types

74.

A monoclonal antibody recognizes

a)

Multiple epitopes

b)

Multiple antigens

c)

A single epitope

d)

Entire antigen

75.

The functional fragment Fab contains

a)

Fc region

b)

Antigen-binding site

c)

Complement-binding site

d)

Hinge only

76.

Enzymatic digestion of IgG with papain produces

a)

One Fab and one Fc

b)

Two Fab and one Fc

c)

Two Fab fragments

d)

One F(ab’)₂

77.

Pepsin digestion of IgG yields predominantly

a)

Fab fragments

b)

Fc fragments

c)

F(ab’)₂ fragment

d)

Heavy chains only

78.

Class switching in B cells changes

a)

Antigen specificity

b)

Variable regions

c)

Idiotype

d)

Effector function

79.

Affinity maturation improves antibody function by

a)

Increasing concentration

b)

Altering isotype

c)

Enhancing antigen-binding strength

d)

Activating complement

80.

Which immunoglobulin is predominantly found in mucosal secretions?

a)

IgG

b)

IgA

c)

IgM

d)

IgD

81.

The Fc region of antibodies is responsible for

a)

Antigen recognition

b)

Effector functions

c)

Epitope binding

d)

Specificity

82.

Therapeutic monoclonal antibodies are MOST commonly produced using

a)

Polyclonal sera

b)

Hybridoma technology

c)

Chemical synthesis

d)

Recombinant antigens

83.

Humanized monoclonal antibodies reduce immunogenicity by

a)

Replacing murine constant regions

b)

Removing Fc region

c)

Replacing murine variable regions

d)

Removing light chains

84.

Fully human antibodies are produced using

a)

Hybridoma in mice

b)

Phage display

c)

Polyclonal immunization

d)

Chemical coupling

85.

Which antibody modification improves serum half-life?

a)

Fab fragmentation

b)

Fc engineering

c)

Hinge removal

d)

Glycan deletion

86.

Antibody–drug conjugates function primarily by

a)

Neutralization

b)

Targeted delivery

c)

Complement activation

d)

Immune suppression

87.

Bispecific antibodies are designed to

a)

Bind two antigens

b)

Increase affinity

c)

Reduce immunogenicity

d)

Activate complement

88.

The major limitation of murine monoclonal antibodies in therapy is

a)

Low specificity

b)

High cost

c)

Human anti-mouse antibody response

d)

Poor binding

89.

Fc receptor binding determines antibody

a)

Antigen specificity

b)

Effector mechanisms

c)

Epitope recognition

d)

Isotype class

90.

Chimeric antibodies consist of

a)

Human variable regions only

b)

Mouse constant regions only

c)

Mouse variable + human constant regions

d)

Fully murine regions

91.

Which immunoglobulin has NO known effector function?

a)

IgG

b)

IgA

c)

IgD

d)

IgM

92.

Antibody affinity refers to

a)

Total binding strength

b)

Single epitope interaction

c)

Avidity

d)

Cross-reactivity

93.

Avidity differs from affinity because it

a)

Depends on valency

b)

Is weaker

c)

Involves one binding site

d)

Is independent of concentration

94.

Multivalent antigens increase immune response mainly by

a)

Increasing affinity

b)

Enhancing avidity

c)

Activating complement

d)

Reducing tolerance

95.

Which antibody class predominates in secondary immune responses?

a)

IgM

b)

IgG

c)

IgE

d)

IgD

96.

Antigen–antibody precipitation occurs optimally at

a)

Antigen excess

b)

Antibody excess

c)

Equivalence zone

d)

Prozone

97.

The idiotype network theory suggests antibodies can

a)

Replace antigens

b)

Regulate immune responses

c)

Destroy lymphocytes

d)

Activate complement

98.

Engineered antibodies targeting immune checkpoints are mainly used in

a)

Autoimmunity

b)

Allergy

c)

Cancer immunotherapy

d)

Vaccination

99.

CAR-T cell therapy relies on antibodies for

a)

Passive immunity

b)

Antigen recognition domains

c)

Complement activation

d)

Antibody secretion

100.

The future advantage of antibody engineering lies in

a)

Increased immunogenicity

b)

Reduced specificity

c)

Short half-life

d)

Targeted precision therapy

101.

The most potent antigen-presenting cells capable of activating naïve T cells are

a)

Macrophages

b)

B lymphocytes

c)

Dendritic cells

d)

Neutrophils

102.

The primary role of dendritic cell migration from tissues to lymph nodes is to

a)

Phagocytose pathogens

b)

Secrete cytokines

c)

Present antigen to T cells

d)

Destroy infected cells

103.

Langerhans cells are specialized dendritic cells found mainly in

a)

Blood

b)

Lymph nodes

c)

Skin

d)

Spleen

104.

Which molecule is highly expressed on mature dendritic cells for T-cell activation?

a)

CD8

b)

MHC II

c)

IgE

d)

Complement receptors

105.

Failure of dendritic cell maturation would MOST impair

a)

Innate immunity

b)

T-cell priming

c)

Phagocytosis

d)

Antibody secretion

106.

The thymus is considered a primary lymphoid organ because it

a)

Produces antibodies

b)

Filters lymph

c)

Supports T-cell maturation

d)

Traps blood antigens

107.

The cortex of the thymus is primarily associated with

a)

Negative selection

b)

Plasma cells

c)

Immature T cells

d)

Antigen presentation

108.

Hassall’s corpuscles are structural features unique to the

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Spleen

c)

Lymph node

d)

Thymus

109.

The main function of bone marrow in immunity is

a)

Antigen trapping

b)

T-cell education

c)

B-cell maturation

d)

Immune memory storage

110.

Which lymphoid organ lacks lymphatic vessels but filters blood-borne antigens?

a)

Thymus

b)

Lymph node

c)

Spleen

d)

Tonsil

111.

The white pulp of the spleen is rich in

a)

Erythrocytes

b)

Platelets

c)

Neutrophils

d)

Lymphocytes

112.

Marginal zone macrophages of the spleen are important for

a)

Antibody secretion

b)

Removal of aged RBCs

c)

Antigen capture

d)

T-cell deletion

113.

Lymph nodes are strategically positioned to monitor

a)

Blood

b)

Cerebrospinal fluid

c)

Lymph

d)

Bone marrow

114.

The paracortex of a lymph node is predominantly populated by

a)

B cells

b)

T cells

c)

Plasma cells

d)

Macrophages

115.

Germinal centers are indicative of

a)

Innate immunity

b)

T-cell deletion

c)

Active humoral response

d)

Immune tolerance

116.

Which structural feature distinguishes primary from secondary lymphoid organs?

a)

Vascularization

b)

Antigen exposure

c)

Cell density

d)

Connective tissue

117.

Innate immunity differs from adaptive immunity mainly in its

a)

Specificity

b)

Speed

c)

Memory

d)

Clonal expansion

118.

Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) are characteristic of

a)

Adaptive immunity

b)

Humoral immunity

c)

Innate immunity

d)

Passive immunity

119.

Which immune response shows clonal selection?

a)

Complement activation

b)

Inflammation

c)

Adaptive immunity

d)

Physical barriers

120.

Immunological memory is a hallmark feature of

a)

Innate immunity

b)

Adaptive immunity

c)

Phagocytic response

d)

Acute inflammation

121.

A patient lacking functional thymus would show impaired

a)

B-cell production

b)

T-cell mediated immunity

c)

Phagocytosis

d)

Complement activation

122.

Which dendritic cell subtype is specialized for antiviral responses via interferon-α?

a)

Langerhans cells

b)

Myeloid DCs

c)

Follicular DCs

d)

Plasmacytoid DCs

123.

Follicular dendritic cells differ from classical dendritic cells because they

a)

Express MHC II

b)

Activate naïve T cells

c)

Present antigen to B cells

d)

Migrate via lymph

124.

The functional unit of the lymph node responsible for antibody production is the

a)

Paracortex

b)

Medulla

c)

Germinal center

d)

Sinus

125.

Removal of the spleen (splenectomy) increases susceptibility mainly to

a)

Viral infections

b)

Intracellular bacteria

c)

Fungal infections

d)

Encapsulated bacteria

126.

Which immune compartment recovers LAST after bone marrow transplantation?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Monocytes

c)

T lymphocytes

d)

NK cells

127.

Successful bone marrow transplantation restores immunity primarily by

a)

Antibody infusion

b)

Cytokine therapy

c)

Hematopoietic stem cell engraftment

d)

Passive immunity

128.

Early post-transplant immunity relies heavily on

a)

Adaptive immunity

b)

Innate immunity

c)

Immunological memory

d)

Vaccination

129.

Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) is mainly mediated by

a)

Donor T cells

b)

Host B cells

c)

NK cells

d)

Macrophages

130.

Failure of bone marrow engraftment would MOST affect

a)

Antibody diversity

b)

Leukocyte production

c)

Thymic hormones

d)

Antigen presentation

131.

Which lymphoid organ undergoes involution with age?

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Spleen

c)

Thymus

d)

Lymph node

132.

Adaptive immune responses are delayed compared to innate immunity due to

a)

Lack of cytokines

b)

Requirement for clonal expansion

c)

Absence of phagocytes

d)

Reduced circulation

133.

The red pulp of the spleen primarily functions in

a)

Immune memory

b)

Blood filtration

c)

Antibody production

d)

T-cell selection

134.

Which cell population is the first to recover after bone marrow transplant?

a)

T cells

b)

B cells

c)

Neutrophils

d)

Plasma cells

135.

Loss of lymph nodes would MOST impair immune response to

a)

Blood antigens

b)

Tissue injury

c)

Lymph-borne antigens

d)

Viral replication

136.

Which immune organ directly supports central tolerance?

a)

Spleen

b)

Thymus

c)

Lymph node

d)

Tonsil

137.

Innate immunity is evolutionarily conserved because it

a)

Is antigen-specific

b)

Has memory

c)

Recognizes common microbial patterns

d)

Requires gene rearrangement

138.

A delayed adaptive response following BMT is mainly due to

a)

Poor stem cell homing

b)

Slow T-cell reconstitution

c)

Lack of antibodies

d)

Reduced macrophage activity

139.

The stromal framework of lymphoid organs is formed mainly by

a)

Epithelial cells

b)

Fibroblasts

c)

Reticular cells

d)

Endothelial cells

140.

Which feature best explains why vaccines fail in early post-BMT period?

a)

Defective innate immunity

b)

Absence of memory cells

c)

Hyperactive macrophages

d)

Excess cytokines

141.

Antigen presentation in lymph nodes occurs primarily via

a)

Blood vessels

b)

High endothelial venules

c)

Afferent lymphatics

d)

Efferent lymphatics

142.

Thymic selection ensures

a)

Maximum diversity

b)

Self-tolerance

c)

Antibody production

d)

Rapid inflammation

143.

Which immune component functions WITHOUT antigen specificity?

a)

Antibodies

b)

TCR

c)

PRRs

d)

Memory cells

144.

A patient with impaired dendritic cell function would MOST likely show defective

a)

Inflammation

b)

T-cell activation

c)

Complement cascade

d)

Phagocytosis

145.

Bone marrow serves as a secondary lymphoid organ because it

a)

Traps antigen

b)

Supports plasma cell survival

c)

Filters lymph

d)

Activates T cells

146.

The major cellular outcome of adaptive immunity is

a)

Physical barrier

b)

Immediate response

c)

Specific memory

d)

Pattern recognition

147.

Which organ coordinates immune responses to antigens entering via tissues?

a)

Spleen

b)

Bone marrow

c)

Lymph node

d)

Thymus

148.

Long-term immune reconstitution after BMT depends MOST on

a)

Donor antibodies

b)

NK cell expansion

c)

Thymic output

d)

Complement levels

149.

Which immune difference explains rapid innate but slow adaptive responses?

a)

Antibody affinity

b)

Gene rearrangement

c)

Pre-existing receptors

d)

Cytokine diversity

150.

Successful immune recovery after bone marrow transplantation indicates restoration of

a)

Passive immunity

b)

Central and peripheral immunity

c)

Inflammation only

d)

Innate immunity only

151.

The concept of acquired immunity was first experimentally demonstrated by

a)

Jenner

b)

Pasteur

c)

Koch

d)

Ehrlich

152.

The primary distinction between innate and adaptive immunity is based on

a)

Speed of response

b)

Presence of memory

c)

Cellular components

d)

Site of action

153.

A vaccine that induces protection mainly by antibody production relies predominantly on

a)

Cell-mediated immunity

b)

Complement activation

c)

Humoral immunity

d)

Phagocytic immunity

154.

Which historical observation led to the development of immunological memory concept?

a)

Fever during infection

b)

Recovery after disease

c)

Inflammation

d)

Antigen specificity

155.

Transfer of delayed-type hypersensitivity can be achieved by

a)

Serum

b)

Plasma proteins

c)

T lymphocytes

d)

Antibodies

156.

Which immune response is most critical for eliminating intracellular pathogens?

a)

Humoral immunity

b)

Complement pathway

c)

Cell-mediated immunity

d)

Acute inflammation

157.

Failure of thymus development primarily affects

a)

B cells

b)

T cells

c)

Plasma cells

d)

Macrophages

158.

Which lymphoid organ is correctly matched with its primary function?

a)

Spleen – T cell maturation

b)

Thymus – antibody production

c)

Bone marrow – B cell maturation

d)

Lymph node – hematopoiesis

159.

Null cells are best described as

a)

Immature B cells

b)

Antibody-secreting cells

c)

Lymphocytes lacking surface markers

d)

Suppressor T cells

160.

The most reliable surface marker distinguishing T lymphocytes is

a)

CD4

b)

CD8

c)

CD3

d)

CD19

161.

Which cell type acts as a bridge between innate and adaptive immunity?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Macrophages

c)

Eosinophils

d)

Basophils

162.

Phagocytosis is enhanced most effectively by

a)

Antigen binding

b)

Opsonization

c)

Cytokine release

d)

Degranulation

163.

The respiratory burst in phagocytes primarily functions to

a)

Digest proteins

b)

Produce reactive oxygen species

c)

Activate antibodies

d)

Trigger inflammation

164.

Which antimicrobial mechanism is unique to neutrophils?

a)

Antibody secretion

b)

NET formation

c)

Antigen presentation

d)

Cytokine memory

165.

Failure of NADPH oxidase leads to increased susceptibility to infection due to impaired

a)

Chemotaxis

b)

Phagolysosome formation

c)

Respiratory burst

d)

Opsonization

166.

Eosinophils are most effective against

a)

Viruses

b)

Bacteria

c)

Fungi

d)

Helminths

167.

Which granulocyte plays a major role in allergic inflammation through histamine release?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Eosinophil

c)

Basophil

d)

Monocyte

168.

Mast cells differ from basophils primarily because they

a)

Circulate in blood

b)

Are tissue resident

c)

Lack granules

d)

Do not bind IgE

169.

Cross-linking of IgE on mast cells leads directly to

a)

Antibody synthesis

b)

Degranulation

c)

Phagocytosis

d)

Cell apoptosis

170.

The nucleus of a neutrophil is characteristically

a)

Round

b)

Kidney-shaped

c)

Multilobed

d)

Absent

171.

Which agranulocyte differentiates into macrophages in tissues?

a)

Lymphocyte

b)

Monocyte

c)

Basophil

d)

Eosinophil

172.

Mononuclear phagocyte system includes all EXCEPT

a)

Kupffer cells

b)

Microglia

c)

Osteoclasts

d)

Erythrocytes

173.

Cytotoxic activity of macrophages is primarily mediated by

a)

Antibodies

b)

Nitric oxide

c)

Histamine

d)

Complement

174.

Antigen presentation by macrophages requires expression of

a)

MHC I only

b)

MHC II only

c)

CD8

d)

CD28

175.

Which immune cell population is MOST affected in severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)?

a)

B cells only

b)

T cells only

c)

Both B and T cells

d)

NK cells only

176.

Granulocytes are distinguished from agranulocytes based on

a)

Size

b)

Nuclear shape

c)

Cytoplasmic granules

d)

Origin

177.

Basophils contribute to immune defense mainly through

a)

Phagocytosis

b)

Antibody production

c)

Release of mediators

d)

Antigen processing

178.

The major function of lymph nodes is to

a)

Produce RBCs

b)

Filter blood

c)

Destroy aged cells

d)

Filter lymph

179.

Which immune cell lacks antigen-specific receptors?

a)

B lymphocyte

b)

T lymphocyte

c)

NK cell

d)

Plasma cell

180.

The earliest cells recruited to acute inflammation are

a)

Macrophages

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Neutrophils

d)

Eosinophils

181.

Which feature best distinguishes adaptive immunity from innate immunity?

a)

Rapid activation

b)

Non-specificity

c)

Immunological memory

d)

Physical barriers

182.

Plasma cells originate directly from

a)

T cells

b)

B cells

c)

Monocytes

d)

NK cells

183.

Which cell mediates antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

NK cell

c)

Basophil

d)

Mast cell

184.

The major antimicrobial enzyme in neutrophil granules is

a)

Lysozyme

b)

Perforin

c)

Histamine

d)

Interferon

185.

Histamine increases vascular permeability mainly by acting on

a)

Platelets

b)

Endothelial cells

c)

Neutrophils

d)

Lymphocytes

186.

Which immune organ lacks afferent lymphatic vessels?

a)

Lymph node

b)

Spleen

c)

Tonsil

d)

Peyer’s patch

187.

A decrease in CD4⁺ T cells would MOST impair

a)

Antibody class switching

b)

Phagocytosis

c)

Complement activation

d)

Neutrophil migration

188.

Which leukocyte is primarily responsible for chronic inflammation?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Monocyte/macrophage

c)

Basophil

d)

Eosinophil

189.

Which statement best describes humoral immunity?

a)

Mediated by T cells

b)

Effective against intracellular pathogens

c)

Antibody-dependent

d)

Inflammation-driven

190.

The term “null cell” historically referred to cells now known as

a)

Plasma cells

b)

NK cells

c)

Memory T cells

d)

Dendritic cells

191.

Which immune cell contains major basic protein?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Eosinophil

c)

Basophil

d)

Monocyte

192.

The lifespan of neutrophils in circulation is approximately

a)

Hours

b)

Days

c)

Weeks

d)

Months

193.

Which immune response is responsible for graft rejection?

a)

Innate immunity

b)

Humoral immunity

c)

Cell-mediated immunity

d)

Passive immunity

194.

Which organ is the primary site of antigen trapping from blood?

a)

Thymus

b)

Lymph node

c)

Spleen

d)

Bone marrow

195.

Monocytes differ from macrophages mainly in

a)

Function

b)

Origin

c)

Location

d)

Phagocytic ability

196.

Which cell is most abundant in peripheral blood?

a)

Lymphocyte

b)

Monocyte

c)

Neutrophil

d)

Eosinophil

197.

Failure of phagolysosome fusion would MOST impair

a)

Chemotaxis

b)

Antigen binding

c)

Microbial killing

d)

Cytokine release

198.

Which immune cell is central to type I hypersensitivity reactions?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Mast cell

c)

Macrophage

d)

NK cell

199.

The primary function of eosinophils in allergy is to

a)

Enhance histamine action

b)

Neutralize mediators

c)

Phagocytose bacteria

d)

Produce antibodies

200.

Which immune concept BEST explains why second exposure to antigen is faster?

a)

Clonal deletion

b)

Immune tolerance

c)

Immunological memory

d)

Self-recognition

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12th Grade - University