wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Pharmacology Week 4 Part 2

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The adult epinephrine auto-injector dose is typically:

a)

0.3 mg for patients ≥30 kg

b)

0.15 mg for patients ≥30 kg

c)

1 mg for any adult

d)

0.01 mg/kg for any adult

2.

Proper counseling for epinephrine auto-injector use includes:

a)

Inject into the deltoid

b)

Inject into the anterolateral thigh

c)

Delay until symptoms fully progress

d)

Carry one injector only

3.

After using an epinephrine auto-injector, the patient should be advised to:

a)

Avoid emergency care if symptoms resolve

b)

Seek emergency medical care

c)

Start ketoconazole

d)

Apply topical clobetasol

4.

If anaphylaxis symptoms persist, repeat epinephrine dosing is recommended:

a)

Every 1–2 hours

b)

Every 5–15 minutes

c)

Once daily

d)

Only after 24 hours

5.

Angioedema is characterized by:

a)

Localized swelling with increased vascular permeability and vasodilation

b)

Painless petechiae from thrombocytopenia

c)

Follicular pustules with fever

d)

Chronic scaling plaques only

6.

Common drug causes of angioedema include:

a)

Macrolides and tetracyclines

b)

ACE inhibitors and ARBs

c)

SSRIs and benzodiazepines

d)

Loop diuretics only

7.

ACE inhibitor or ARB angioedema is best described mechanistically as:

a)

IgE-mediated classic allergy

b)

Anaphylactoid reaction, not IgE-mediated

c)

Type I hypersensitivity confirmed by skin testing in most cases

d)

COX-1 inhibition driven

8.

A key management nuance after stopping an ACE inhibitor due to angioedema is:

a)

Start sacubitril/valsartan immediately

b)

Wait 36 hours before starting sacubitril/valsartan

c)

Wait 12 hours before starting sacubitril/valsartan

d)

Never restart any antihypertensive

9.

Angioedema assessment priorities include:

a)

Only checking temperature

b)

Airway involvement and facial/oropharyngeal swelling

c)

Skin biopsy first

d)

Platelet function assay

10.

A patient develops flushing during a rapid vancomycin infusion. Best interpretation and management?

a)

IgE-mediated allergy, give epinephrine only

b)

Vancomycin flushing syndrome from histamine release, slow infusion

c)

Stevens-Johnson syndrome, discontinue and start methotrexate

d)

COX-1 reaction, add aspirin

11.

Vancomycin flushing syndrome (Red Man Syndrome) is:

a)

A true IgE-mediated allergy

b)

Not an allergic reaction and due to histamine release from rapid infusion

c)

Caused by beta-lactam cross-reactivity

d)

Prevented only with ketoconazole

12.

Penicillins and cephalosporins share:

a)

A common beta-lactam ring

b)

A sulfonamide group

c)

A steroid nucleus

d)

A calcineurin inhibitor backbone

13.

Structural difference noted between the beta-lactam rings is:

a)

Penicillins have a 6-member ring, cephalosporins a 5-member ring

b)

Penicillins have a 5-member ring, cephalosporins a 6-member ring

c)

Both have identical 7-member rings

d)

Neither contains a ring

14.

Cross-reactivity between penicillins and cephalosporins is primarily related to:

a)

Similarities in R1 and R2 side chains

b)

Similarities in gastric pH

c)

CYP enzyme inhibition

d)

COX-1 inhibition

15.

Penicillin allergy is best described as:

a)

Rarely reported

b)

Frequently overreported and about 90% are not true IgE-mediated

c)

Always lifelong and IgE-mediated

d)

Confirmed by symptoms alone without testing

16.

Penicillin skin testing:

a)

Detects presence of IgE

b)

Detects leukotriene overproduction

c)

Detects CYP inhibition capacity

d)

Is positive in almost all adults after 10 years

17.

Regarding penicillin allergy over time:

a)

Reactivity increases with time

b)

Reactivity declines; fewer than 20% remain positive after 10 years

c)

Reactivity stays constant for life

d)

Reactivity disappears within 24 hours in all patients

18.

Sulfonamides typically cause:

a)

Immediate IgE-mediated reactions only

b)

Delayed hypersensitivity reactions

c)

Vancomycin flushing syndrome

d)

Mineralocorticoid excess

19.

Cross-reactivity between antibiotic and non-antibiotic sulfonamides is:

a)

High due to identical metabolism

b)

Low due to structural and metabolic differences

c)

Guaranteed in all patients

d)

Impossible to assess clinically

20.

Best general management for a suspected true drug allergy is:

a)

Continue the agent and add a moisturizer

b)

Discontinue the offending agent

c)

Switch to a higher dose of the same drug

d)

Only use H2 blockers

21.

NSAID and aspirin reactions are often:

a)

IgE-mediated and confirmed by skin testing

b)

Not IgE-mediated and related to COX-1 inhibition with increased leukotrienes

c)

Caused by beta-lactam rings

d)

Due to adrenal insufficiency

22.

Atopic dermatitis is best described as:

a)

Acute bacterial skin infection

b)

Chronic inflammatory skin disease with pruritus as hallmark

c)

Autoimmune blistering disorder

d)

A condition defined by absence of itching

23.

The atopic triad includes:

a)

Atopic dermatitis, allergic rhinitis, asthma

b)

Psoriasis, asthma, urticaria

c)

Contact dermatitis, COPD, eczema herpeticum

d)

Acne, allergic rhinitis, urticaria

24.

First-line pharmacologic therapy for atopic dermatitis is:

a)

Topical corticosteroids

b)

Oral methotrexate

c)

Ketoconazole

d)

Biologic response modifiers

25.

Second-line therapy for atopic dermatitis includes:

a)

Topical calcineurin inhibitors

b)

Oral acitretin

c)

Apremilast

d)

IV ketoconazole

26.

First-line therapy for contact dermatitis is:

a)

Vitamin D analogs

b)

Topical corticosteroids

c)

TNF-alpha inhibitors

d)

Systemic ketoconazole

27.

Systemic corticosteroids are used for contact dermatitis when:

a)

Any facial rash is present

b)

Greater than 20% body surface area is involved

c)

It is mild and localized

d)

Only if there is fever

28.

First-line options for mild to moderate psoriasis include all EXCEPT:

a)

Topical corticosteroids

b)

Vitamin D analogs

c)

Retinoids

d)

Oral ketoconazole

29.

Which moisturizer type reduces transepidermal water loss and is most effective for atopic dermatitis?

a)

Emollients

b)

Humectants

c)

Occlusives

d)

Retinoids

30.

Humectants:

a)

Increase water-holding capacity and may sting on open skin

b)

Are the most occlusive topical form

c)

Smooth skin surface and are most effective moisturizers

d)

Cause skin atrophy

31.

Emollients are best described as:

a)

Increase water-holding capacity the most

b)

Smooth skin surface and are least effective moisturizers

c)

Reduce transepidermal water loss the most

d)

Must be avoided in atopic dermatitis

32.

Which topical formulation is most occlusive?

a)

Lotion

b)

Cream

c)

Ointment

d)

Gel

33.

Which formulation is least occlusive?

a)

Ointment

b)

Cream

c)

Lotion

d)

Paste

34.

Topical corticosteroids are:

a)

Second-line agents for most inflammatory dermatoses

b)

First-line agents with risk of skin atrophy

c)

Only used systemically

d)

Contraindicated in all psoriasis

35.

Choosing topical steroid potency should consider:

a)

Hair color

b)

Age, area, and severity

c)

ABO blood type

d)

Serum sodium

36.

Which topical potency match is correct?

a)

Hydrocortisone 0.25–1% is very high potency

b)

Triamcinolone 0.1% is medium potency

c)

Clobetasol 0.05% is lowest potency

d)

Triamcinolone 0.5% is lowest potency

37.

Which topical steroid listed is very high potency?

a)

Hydrocortisone 1%

b)

Triamcinolone 0.1%

c)

Triamcinolone 0.5%

d)

Clobetasol 0.05%

38.

Topical calcineurin inhibitors are advantageous because they:

a)

Commonly cause skin atrophy

b)

Do not cause skin atrophy and are suitable for face and skin folds

c)

Are first-line for severe anaphylaxis

d)

Require weekly LFT monitoring

39.

A major warning associated with topical calcineurin inhibitors is:

a)

Nephrolithiasis

b)

Lymphoma and skin malignancy

c)

Tendon rupture

d)

Aortic dissection

40.

A common adverse effect with topical calcineurin inhibitors is:

a)

Profound hypotension

b)

Transient burning sensation

c)

Cushingoid facies after 2 days

d)

Severe hepatotoxicity

41.

Psoriasis severity using the Hand Rule: 1% BSA is approximately:

a)

The patient's forearm

b)

The patient's palm

c)

The patient's head and neck

d)

Both legs

42.

Mild psoriasis is defined as:

a)

Under 3% BSA

b)

3–10% BSA

c)

Over 10% BSA

d)

Exactly 10% BSA

43.

Moderate psoriasis is defined as:

a)

Under 3% BSA

b)

3–10% BSA

c)

Over 10% BSA

d)

Over 20% BSA

44.

Severe psoriasis is defined as:

a)

Over 10% BSA

b)

3–10% BSA

c)

Under 3% BSA

d)

Over 1% BSA only

45.

For mild to moderate psoriasis, topical steroids are considered:

a)

Not recommended

b)

Gold standard

c)

Only adjuncts after biologics

d)

Reserved for pregnancy only

46.

For Class 1 (highest potency) topical steroids, recommended limit of continuous use is:

a)

2–4 weeks

b)

2–4 months

c)

10–12 weeks

d)

No limit

47.

After failure of topical calcineurin inhibitors in psoriasis, the next step discussed is:

a)

Immediate TNF-alpha inhibitor

b)

Phototherapy

c)

Ketoconazole

d)

Hydrocortisone replacement

48.

Which sequence reflects the stepwise escalation for psoriasis treatment?

a)

Biologics → systemic → phototherapy → topicals

b)

Topicals → phototherapy → systemic → biologics

c)

Phototherapy → topicals → biologics → systemic

d)

Systemic → topicals → phototherapy → biologics

49.

Calcipotriene is best characterized by:

a)

Rapid onset with severe atrophy

b)

Slower onset with mild irritation

c)

Contraindicated in all adults

d)

Requires weekly LFT monitoring

50.

Tazarotene is:

a)

Safe in pregnancy

b)

Contraindicated in pregnancy

c)

A TNF-alpha inhibitor

d)

Used only for anaphylaxis adjunct therapy