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Introduction and Assessment Standards

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which action best helps introduce and build rapport with a new patient?

a)

Explaining procedures briefly without greetings

b)

Starting care silently to avoid disturbing them

c)

Using medical terms without polite phrases

d)

Addressing the patient by their first and last name

2.

What is the primary purpose of obtaining informed consent before care?

a)

To allow procedures with adequate explanation

b)

To protect staff from physical strain

c)

To document grooming standards in records

d)

To speed up workflow and reduce wait time

3.

Which statement reflects professional grooming for clinical settings?

a)

Keep hair tied up and minimal make-up

b)

Leave shaila outside the lab coat

c)

Use heavy perfume with covered shoes

d)

Wear visible jewelry with clean uniform

4.

During patient lifting, which ergonomic technique reduces injury risk?

a)

Keep the back straight with bent knees

b)

Bend from the waist while pulling

c)

Stand far and extend arms fully

d)

Place feet close together for balance

5.

Which step supports safe patient care in the environment?

a)

Organize only after finishing the day

b)

Ask patients to move clutter themselves

c)

Ensure area is free of risks and obstacles

d)

Leave equipment where last used

6.

When finishing a module of care, what should be done before leaving?

a)

Leave items ready for the next team

b)

Organize the environment to a safe state

c)

Ask the patient to tidy their space

d)

Turn off lights and lock the door

7.

Which communication builds trust and respect during care?

a)

Speaking quickly without patient questions

b)

Using only technical procedure names

c)

Avoiding the patient’s preferred name

d)

Using please, hello, thank you, goodbye

8.

Which foot placement provides a stable base during transfers?

a)

Wide stance with back rounded

b)

One foot forward, weight on toes

c)

Feet together with knees locked

d)

Feet at comfortable distance, solid base

9.

Which action aligns with standard safety policies and confidentiality?

a)

Discuss a patient’s case in public areas

b)

Store notes openly at the nurses’ station

c)

Post updates to personal social media

d)

Follow standard safety policies during care

10.

Look at the handwashing diagram step sequence. What is the recommended total duration for the entire handwashing procedure?

a)

30–40 seconds

b)

40–60 seconds

c)

20–30 seconds

d)

60–90 seconds

11.

In the handwashing steps, which action comes immediately after wetting hands with water?

a)

Apply enough soap to cover surfaces

b)

Rinse hands with water

c)

Rub hands palm to palm

d)

Dry with single-use towel

12.

According to the hand-rub poster, what is the recommended duration for the alcohol-based hand-rub procedure?

a)

10–15 seconds

b)

15–20 seconds

c)

20–30 seconds

d)

30–45 seconds

13.

Which motion ensures cleaning of the thumbs during hand hygiene?

a)

Rotational rubbing of clasped thumb

b)

Palm to palm with fingers interlaced

c)

Backs of fingers to opposing palms

d)

Right palm over left dorsum

14.

A nurse finishes lathering with soap and rubbing all surfaces. Which step must occur before drying the hands?

a)

Repeat palm to palm motion

b)

Rinse hands with water

c)

Apply more soap to fingertips

d)

Use towel to turn off faucet

15.

You are about to insert a peripheral IV line. Which ‘Five Moments for Hand Hygiene’ applies?

a)

Before touching a patient

b)

Before clean/aseptic procedure

c)

After body fluid exposure risk

d)

After touching patient surroundings

16.

During hand-rub, what initial amount should be applied to the cupped hand?

a)

A pea-sized drop

b)

A palmful of product

c)

Two fingertip-sized drops

d)

Half a teaspoon only

17.

Which action reduces recontamination after drying in handwashing?

a)

Turn off faucet with bare hand

b)

Turn off faucet using towel

c)

Wave hands to air dry faucet

d)

Apply hand rub to the faucet

18.

Which action should be done first before approaching a casualty with severe bleeding?

a)

Introduce yourself to the casualty

b)

Secure a compression pad first

c)

Apply a tourniquet immediately

d)

Check scene safety for hazards

19.

When preparing to manage severe bleeding, which personal protective step is essential?

a)

Remove bulky clothing

b)

Loosen tight dressings

c)

Wear gloves or PPE

d)

Apply cold packs

20.

Where should a tourniquet be placed relative to the bleeding site on a limb?

a)

Directly on the wound

b)

Two to three inches above

c)

Centered over a joint

d)

Below the nearest joint

21.

Which statement about tourniquet placement is correct?

a)

Place it over the elbow

b)

Keep it visible at all times

c)

Loosen it every ten minutes

d)

Cover it fully with gauze

22.

What indicates proper tightening of a tourniquet?

a)

Skin turns mildly cool

b)

Bleeding stops completely

c)

Pulse becomes stronger

d)

Bleeding slows slightly

23.

During initial hemorrhage control without a tourniquet, what is the preferred first action?

a)

Apply direct pressure to wound

b)

Elevate the injured limb

c)

Rinse with clean water

d)

Apply a cervical collar

24.

After bleeding has slowed under direct pressure, what is the next step to enhance control?

a)

Massage the area gently

b)

Apply ice to the site

c)

Remove the dressing

d)

Add a compression pad

25.

How should pressure be applied over a compression pad?

a)

Alternating fast and slow

b)

Firm and consistent

c)

Light and intermittent

d)

Only during exhalation

26.

Which communication approach supports the casualty during bleeding control?

a)

Ask only yes/no questions

b)

Use medical jargon rapidly

c)

Reassure and explain actions

d)

Remain silent to focus

27.

Which step helps ensure circulation is not overly restricted by a dressing and pad?

a)

Avoid checking for continued bleeding

b)

Secure dressing without constricting

c)

Tie knots as tight as possible

d)

Place pad directly on bone

28.

In team spinal immobilization, which role is prioritized first?

a)

Applying leg straps

b)

Maintaining manual in-line stabilization

c)

Positioning chest strap

d)

Setting up head blocks

29.

Before immobilization steps like log roll or collar application, what should the team do?

a)

Assign roles and verbalize plan

b)

Move quickly without discussion

c)

Apply straps immediately

d)

Rotate leaders mid-procedure

30.

Which assessment is performed before immobilizing a patient on a spine board?

a)

Check PMS of limbs

b)

Assess capillary refill in fingers only

c)

Estimate total blood loss

d)

Measure body temperature

31.

During application of a cervical collar, what is a key caution?

a)

Do not move the head

b)

Remove manual stabilization early

c)

Tilt head slightly forward

d)

Ask the patient to assist

32.

Which statement best describes the log roll in spinal care?

a)

Roll first, then discuss plan

b)

A solo maneuver by the leader

c)

Lift or roll while maintaining alignment

d)

Rapid turn to the stronger side

33.

Which step should be done first before splinting an ankle fracture?

a)

Position the limb correctly

b)

Perform hand hygiene and gloves

c)

Check PMS before splinting

d)

Explain the procedure calmly

34.

What does PMS stand for when assessing an injured limb?

a)

Pain, mobility, stiffness

b)

Perfusion, motion, stability

c)

Pressure, muscle strength

d)

Pulse, movement, sensation

35.

When securing an ankle splint, why use a figure-of-eight wrap at the ankle?

a)

To reduce swelling quickly

b)

To stabilize joint contours

c)

To anchor padding firmly

d)

To improve circulation flow

36.

After applying an ankle splint, which action ensures it is fitted well?

a)

Reassure the person calmly

b)

Recheck PMS after splinting

c)

Dispose waste and gloves

d)

Add more padding if needed

37.

During triangular bandage application for a shoulder sprain, which step helps position the patient correctly?

a)

Assess pain and swelling

b)

Ask what happened first

c)

Fold and apply bandage

d)

Support injured area effectively

38.

When tying the triangular bandage for a shoulder sprain, where should the knot NOT be placed?

a)

On the spine; tuck ends properly

b)

On the clavicle; leave ends loose

c)

On the scapula; ends outside

d)

On the deltoid; knot visible

39.

Which sequence best describes initial actions in the recovery position?

a)

Remove glasses then check breathing

b)

Check scene safety then PPE

c)

Open airway then call for help

d)

Assess responsiveness then airway

40.

How long should you check breathing after performing head tilt–chin lift?

a)

For 5 seconds only

b)

For 10 seconds total

c)

For 15 seconds minimum

d)

Until help arrives

41.

Which arm is positioned at a right angle during recovery position setup?

a)

The far arm across chest

b)

The nearest arm bent 90°

c)

Both arms extended straight

d)

The upper arm under head

42.

While rolling a patient into the recovery position, where should your hand be placed to grasp and turn safely?

a)

On far leg and shoulder

b)

On near hip and ankle

c)

On near arm and wrist

d)

On far leg for leverage

43.

Which action helps maintain airway patency once on the side in recovery position?

a)

Press chin downward gently

b)

Tilt head back slightly

c)

Elevate shoulders slightly

d)

Keep mouth tightly closed

44.

What is the correct simple technique to open the airway in an unresponsive person without trauma?

a)

Neutral head alignment only

b)

Two-handed neck extension

c)

Jaw thrust maneuver only

d)

Head tilt–chin lift method

45.

Which step best prevents further harm before treating a burn?

a)

Identify burn type and location

b)

Ask how the injury happened

c)

Check scene safety before approaching

d)

Introduce yourself and reassure calmly

46.

How long should you cool a burn with running cool water?

a)

Until the skin turns pale

b)

Less than five minutes

c)

At least ten to twenty minutes

d)

Exactly thirty minutes

47.

After cooling a burn, what is the correct next action?

a)

Apply burn gel evenly to the area

b)

Burst blisters to release fluid

c)

Cover with adhesive cotton pads

d)

Remove dressings to check frequently

48.

Which item should be removed gently near a burn if safe to do so?

a)

Scabs forming over the wound

b)

Loose skin around blisters

c)

Jewelry or tight items

d)

Any sterile dressing

49.

What dressing is appropriate for a cooled burn?

a)

Non-stick sterile dressing or cling film

b)

Warm compress and gauze pads

c)

Alcohol swabs and paper tape

d)

Cotton wool and adhesive bandage

50.

During burn care, which action should be avoided?

a)

Dispose of waste and gloves properly

b)

Apply pressure over the wound

c)

Maintain calm, confident sequence

d)

Reassure the casualty throughout

51.

For a nosebleed, what is the correct initial position?

a)

Side-lying with pillow support

b)

Standing straight, head tilted back

c)

Sitting upright, head slightly forward

d)

Lying flat with head back

52.

Where should pressure be applied during a nosebleed?

a)

Cheeks beside the nose

b)

Upper lip under the nostrils

c)

Soft part just below the bridge

d)

Hard bony bridge of the nose

53.

How long should continuous pressure be maintained for a nosebleed before checking?

a)

Three minutes without pause

b)

Fifteen minutes with breaks

c)

Five minutes with quick checks

d)

Ten minutes without checking

54.

Which advice is correct during a nosebleed to reduce swallowing blood?

a)

Hold cold compress inside the nostril

b)

Breathe through the mouth calmly

c)

Tilt the head backward slowly

d)

Lie down and elevate the feet

55.

When should medical help be sought for a nosebleed?

a)

If a single tissue is soaked with blood

b)

If bleeding doesn’t stop after twenty minutes

c)

If the person feels thirsty

d)

If bleeding stops within five minutes

56.

For minor bleeding, which immediate action helps reduce blood flow if appropriate?

a)

Loosen any bandage to allow air

b)

Elevate the injured part carefully

c)

Apply warm compresses firmly

d)

Remove all debris with bare hands

57.

What solution is appropriate for cleaning a minor wound?

a)

Alcohol and cotton wool

b)

Saline and sterile gauze

c)

Hydrogen peroxide spray

d)

Soap directly on the wound

58.

What should be done after bleeding stops in a minor wound?

a)

Burst blisters to prevent infection

b)

Apply a clean dressing or bandage

c)

Leave the wound uncovered to dry

d)

Apply pressure for another hour

59.

Which sign should the person be advised to monitor after minor bleeding care?

a)

Increased thirst after cleaning

b)

Signs of infection developing

c)

Improved skin warmth quickly

d)

Shortness of breath at rest

60.

Which step best describes the purpose of PMS checks during a wrist sprain assessment?

a)

Confirm only pulse strength in the injured wrist

b)

Evaluate pulse, movement, sensation to ensure perfusion

c)

Assess pain scale without touching the injured area

d)

Check skin temperature to estimate swelling progression

61.

When applying the RICE method for a wrist sprain, which action prevents skin damage while reducing swelling?

a)

Use tight elastic tape for firm compression

b)

Massage the wrist to improve circulation

c)

Apply heat pack directly on the wrist

d)

Place cold compress without direct skin contact

62.

During figure-of-8 bandaging of the hand and wrist, what is the main goal of alternating loops?

a)

Prevent removal of ice after 15 minutes

b)

Create a secure "8" while maintaining even pressure

c)

Cover the entire forearm to immobilize the elbow

d)

Increase compression to limit blood flow

63.

Which sequence best reflects safe early steps in managing a suspected wrist sprain?

a)

Remove gloves, check temperature, tighten wrap

b)

Ask about work history, apply heat, elevate

c)

Hand hygiene, reassure, ask what happened

d)

Elevate first, apply tight tape, check pain

64.

Why should the hand be elevated above heart level after bandaging a wrist sprain when possible?

a)

To keep the hand immobilized completely

b)

To increase compression from the bandage

c)

To improve pulse strength for PMS checks

d)

To reduce swelling by aiding venous return

65.

After applying compression and elevating the wrist, what is the correct follow-up action?

a)

Re-check PMS after compression is applied

b)

Ignore symptoms if pain increases later

c)

Apply heat to counteract cold therapy

d)

Remove bandage to allow full movement

66.

In the image showing the long orange device, what is its primary purpose during spinal emergencies?

a)

Support limb fractures securely

b)

Immobilize the entire spine safely

c)

Provide padding under the patient

d)

Lift patients using mechanical leverage

67.

Which item is used with a spine board to restrict head movement, as shown in the red foam device?

a)

Elastic bandage wraps for pressure

b)

Burn gel packs for cooling

c)

Head blocks for lateral support

d)

Trauma pad wedges for cheeks

68.

The black strap device with a windlass is indicated for which situation?

a)

Preventing blisters from friction

b)

Stabilizing a suspected neck injury

c)

Severe limb bleeding not controlled by gauze

d)

Minor cuts requiring light dressing

69.

When placing a rigid cervical collar, what is the most appropriate sequence?

a)

Lift patient, then fit collar later

b)

Size the collar, align head, secure snugly

c)

Apply collar, then assess airway

d)

Secure chin first, then measure collar

70.

Which material pictured is best for packing a deep wound to stop bleeding?

a)

Adhesive tape strips in long lengths

b)

Soft foam blocks for cushioning only

c)

Sterile gauze swabs for direct pressure

d)

Cooling gel pads for thermal burns

71.

Which item shown is most appropriate for covering a large bleeding wound to absorb blood quickly?

a)

Triangular bandage for limb support

b)

Trauma pad for heavy bleeding control

c)

Instant ice pack for swelling reduction

d)

Normal saline for wound irrigation

72.

In the image of the triangular bandage used as a sling, what is its primary purpose during an ankle fracture scenario?

a)

Cool the ankle to reduce inflammation

b)

Clean debris from the ankle wound

c)

Seal the ankle with an occlusive dressing

d)

Immobilize and support the injured arm

73.

Which resource is best used first to gently rinse a minor contaminated wound before applying a sterile dressing?

a)

Instant ice pack for numbing the area

b)

Normal saline for wound irrigation

c)

Elastic wrap for joint compression

d)

Triangular bandage for pressure application

74.

You have an athlete with a mild wrist sprain and no open wound. Which item should you choose to manage swelling during the first 24 hours?

a)

Triangular bandage to secure gauze

b)

Normal saline to flush tissue

c)

Instant ice pack for cold therapy

d)

Trauma pad to absorb bleeding

75.

While preparing to transport a person with a suspected arm fracture, which step using the triangular bandage is most important to prevent further injury?

a)

Apply a trauma pad over the shoulder

b)

Irrigate the arm with normal saline

c)

Place ice directly on exposed skin

d)

Tie the sling behind the neck for support