VCE Biology Unit 2 revision

Biology AOS 2

Revision

Multiple Choice

Which type of human stem cell would be able to differentiate into the most type of specialised cells?

• Embryonic stem cells

• Adult bone marrow stem cell

• Multipotent stem cells

• Somatic stem cells

Multiple Choice

Which of the following sequences represents the correct order of events in the formation of a human fetus?

• Zygote → Blastocyst → Embryo → Fertilization

• Fertilization → Zygote → Blastocyst → Embryo

• Blastocyst → Embryo → Differentiation → Zygote

• Fertilization → Growth → Differentiation → Zygote

Multiple Choice

The mesoderm forms the

• Bones and muscles

• Urinary bladder

• Skin

• Glands

Multiple Choice

The innermost layer of the blastocyst is the

• endoderm

• gastrula

• ectoderm

• mesoderm

Multiple Choice

The embryo layer that forms the skin and nervous tissue is the _____.

• endoderm

• mesoderm

• ectoderm

• deuterostome

Multiple Choice

The animal's digestive tract forms from the _______.

• endoderm

• mesoderm

• ecotoderm

• protostome

Multiple Choice

How do stem cells know what type of cells to differentiate into?

• The nucleus has instructions to turn some genes on and some genes off.
• Signals from chemicals in the organism or from the environment determine which genes will be turned on and off.
• Genes turn on and off randomly.
• The cell has unique DNA that determines what the cell will become.

Multiple Choice

Which is true about embryonic stem cells?

• They no longer divide, their cell type is set and cannot change.
• They can develop into only one type of cell.
• They can become any cell type in the body.
• They are found in adults.

Multiple Choice

What is the difference between embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells?

• Embryonic can differentiate into more cell types than adult
• Adult only turn into blood, while embryonic turn into many things.
• Adult can differentiate into more cell types than embryonic
• Adult grow bigger than embryonic

Multiple Choice

Stem cells can be obtained from _________.

• embryos
• some adult tissues
• umbilical cord blood
• all of the above

Multiple Choice

Neuron cells, like the one pictured, rarely replicate. Therefore, we consider them to be in the _____ phase.

• G0
• G1
• S
• Delay

Multiple Choice

Apoptosis is

• programmed cell death

• accidental cell death

• programmed cellular mutation

• cell division

Multiple Choice

Place these cells in order of mitosis.

• A, B, C, D, E
• B, E, D, A, C
• C, E, A, D, B
• B, D, A, E, C

Multiple Choice

The following describes_________________________ during mitosis. The chromosomes line up along the middle of the cell and the spindle fibers attach to each chromosome at the centromere.

• prophase

• metaphase

• anaphase

• telophase

Multiple Choice

The following describes_________________________ during mitosis. The chromatin condenses and spindle fibers form at each side of the cell. The chromosomes begin to form and nuclear membrane disappears.

• prophase

• anaphase

• metaphase

• telophase

Multiple Choice

In which stage of the cell cycle does the DNA replicate?

• G1

• S

• G2

• Mitosis

Multiple Choice

In which stage of the cell cycle does the cell grow the most in size?

• G1

• S

• G2

• Mitosis

Multiple Choice

What phase is this?

• Interphase II
• Prophase I
• Metaphase I
• Anaphase II

Multiple Choice

What phase is shown here?

• Telophase II
• Anaphase II
• Metaphase I
• Interphase I

Multiple Choice

What phase is shown here?

• Metaphase II
• Telophase I
• Telophase II
• Metaphase I

Multiple Choice

The nuclear membrane dissolves during

• Prophase
• Metaphase
• Anaphase
• Telophase

Multiple Choice

What phase is shown in the picture?

• anaphase 1

• anaphase 2

• metaphase 1

• metaphase 2

Multiple Choice

What process, and which type of resulting cells are represented?

• mitosis, gametes
• mitosis, body cells
• meiosis, gametes
• meiosis, body cells

Multiple Choice

Which of the following DO NOT occur during the mitosis stage of the cell cycle?

• Sister chromatids separate

• DNA is replicated

• Chromosomes line up at the equator

• Chromatin condenses into chromosomes

Multiple Choice

Meiosis produces 4 cells, they are considered

• N

• 2N

• 3N

• 4N

Multiple Choice

Crossing over occurs in which phase ?

• metaphase I

• prophase II

• metaphase II

• prophase I

Multiple Choice

Mitosis produces how many daughter cells ?

• 6
• 4
• 8
• 2

Multiple Choice

A clone can be BEST thought of as _________ created in a lab.

• an identical twin

• a fertilised egg

• sexual reproduction

• a GMO

Multiple Choice

How many cells are produced during telophase I ?

• 4

• 6

• 2

• 0

Multiple Choice

How many daughter cells are produced from meiosis ?

• 8

• 6

• 4

• 2

Multiple Choice

Cells that have only one chromosome from each pair are

• heterozygous

• haploid

• homologous

• diploid

Multiple Choice

How many nucleotides equal 1 amino acid?

• 1

• 2

• 3

• 4

Multiple Choice

What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?

• the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
• the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
• the color of the nitrogen bases
• the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases

Multiple Choice

What group do these bases belong to?

• Purines

• Pyrimidines

• Uracils

• Histones

Multiple Choice

What group do these bases belong to?

• Purines

• Pyrimidines

• Uracils

• Histones

Multiple Choice

The sugar in DNA is ?

• sucrose

• glucose

• deoxyribose

• ribose

Multiple Choice

What are the three components of a nucleotide?

• deoxyribose sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base

• deoxyribose sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base

• deoxyribose sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base

• deoxyribose sugar, phosphate, protein

Multiple Choice

In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Adenine present is always equal to the amount of

• cytosine
• guanine
• thymine
• uracil

Multiple Choice

Genes that are located on the same chromosome

• human genome project
• pedigree
• biology
• linked genes

Multiple Choice

The position of a gene on a chromosomes is the _______.

• allele

• gene locus

Multiple Choice

Which statement is NOT true about Karyotypes

• Chromosomes (pairs 1-22) are arranged by size
• Sex chromosomes are found at the end
• A normal karyotype has 46 chromosomes or 23 pairs
• Having missing or extra chromosomes does not indicate a disorder

Multiple Choice

Based on the Karyotype shown, at which chromosome pair can we identify a genetic disorder? 

• Chromosome pair 5
• sex chromosomes
• Chromosome pair 21
• There are no chromosomal disorders

Multiple Choice

The structures labeled B are

• centrioles
• chromatids
• centromeres
• chromopheres

Multiple Choice

Autosomes are

• chromosomes found in autotrophs, only
• chromosomes that automatically correct all errors in the DNA
• chromosomes that determine traits other than sex
• chromosomes that determine the sex of the individual

Multiple Choice

Histones are 

• proteins wound up in DNA
• critical to maintaining the shape of chromosomes
• aid in the tight packing of DNA
• all of these 

Multiple Choice

When DNA is in its less coiled, "relaxed," state, between cell divisions, it is called

• autosomes
• chromatid
• chromatin
• centromere

Multiple Choice

genes are defined as

• portions of DNA that can be used to build proteins
• sum total of all the chemical transformations and other work done in all the cells of an organism
• sections of non coding DNA
• the sum total of all the information encoded by and individual's genes

Multiple Choice

This picture is illustrating the ____ nature of DNA.

• anti-parallel
• deoxyribosic
• helical
• radioactive

Multiple Choice

___________________ are structures that contain identical DNA (HINT: They are half of the "X" of chromosomes).

• sister chromatid

• chromatin

• centromere

• chromosome

Multiple Choice

_____________ is the relaxed form of DNA inside of the cell's nucleus

• Chromosomes

• Nucleotides

• Amino Acids

• Chromatin

Multiple Choice

What is the structure of the DNA during DNA replication?

• wrapped around histones in chromatin form

• tightly coiled into chromosomes

• just as it appears in a karyotype

• DNA has no structure during replication

Multiple Choice

Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?

• amino acids

• nucleotides

• proteins

• polysaccharides

Multiple Choice

Unspecialised cells that can differentiate to form many different types of cell are known as...?

• Stem cells
• Specialised cells
• Differential cells
• Special cells

Multiple Choice

When cells become specialised for a particular role, it is known as ...?

• cell differentiation
• cell replication
• cell reproduction
• cell mitosis

Multiple Choice

Which of these shows the correct order, going from the smallest to the largest?

• gene, chromosome, nucleus, cell
• chromosome, gene, nucleus, cell
• nucleus, gene, chromosome, cell
• gene, nucleus, chromosome, cell

Multiple Choice

When do chromosomes line up in the middle?

• Prophase

• Metaphase

• Anaphase

• Telophase

Multiple Choice

The backbone of DNA is made of -

• deoxyribose sugar

• nitrogenous base and deoxyribose sugar

• nitrogenous base and hydrogen

• alternating deoxyribose sugar and phosphate

Multiple Choice

How do nitrogen bases pair in DNA?

• AA, TT, CC, GG

• AC, TG

• AT, CG

• AU, CG

Multiple Choice

identify the structure

• nitrogen base

• phosphate

• deoxyribose sugar

• nucleotide

Multiple Choice

Where is S phase (DNA replication) occurring?

• I

• II

• III

• IV

Multiple Choice

Why is DNA damage repaired before it goes into mitosis?

• so DNA synthesis doesn't need to take place

• to make sure each daughter cell is identical and can continue growth

• so chromosomes line up correctly in metaphase

• to make sure each cell gets cytoplasm in cytokinesis

Multiple Choice

When cells leave the cell cycle, they exit during G1 phase and then enter G0 phase, a resting period. Most normal cells can leave G0 phase and reenter the cell cycle at G1 phase before entering S phase. Cancer cells are different because they cannot enter G0 phase and are likely to do which of the following?

• Fail to complete S phase

• Mutate during G1

• repeat the cell cycle continuously

• die

Multiple Choice

Oncogenes are mutated forms of genes. Oncogenes can transform a cell into a tumor cell. Some

tumor cells are benign, while others are malignant. How does the presence of an oncogene lead

to the formation of a tumor?

• ATP production is inhibited

• cell division is unregulated

• somatic cell growth is inhibited

• antibody activity is unregulated

Multiple Choice

What phase is this?

• Prophase

• Metaphase

• Anaphase

• Telophase

Multiple Choice

In what phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?

• G1 phase of interphase

• G2 phase of interphase

• M phase

• S phase of interphase

Multiple Choice

What do the 2 arrows represent?

• Arrow 1 is prophase, arrow 2 is interphase

• arrow 1 is mitosis, arrow 2 is meiosis

• arrow 1 is interphase, arrow 2 is mitosis

• arrow 1 mitosis, arrow 2 is interphase

Multiple Choice

Centrosome and centrioles play a major role in

• Cell movement

• Cell division

• DNA contraction

• DNA replication

Multiple Choice

Turner's Syndrome has a karyotype notation of

• 47XX+21
• 47XXY
• 45XO
• 44XX

Multiple Choice

What makes this individual's karyotype not normal?

• An extra sex chromosome
• An extra autosome
• A missing sex chromosome
• A missing autosome

Multiple Choice

A pair of identical chromosomes shown in a karyotype, one inherited from the mother, and one inherited from the father are called

• sister chromotids

• centromeres

• homologous chromosomes

• autosomes

Multiple Choice

Which structure is labeled as B in the diagram?

• Centromere

• Chromosome

• Sister chromatids

• Histone

Multiple Select

If the siblings have the blood groups O and A the genotype of parents would be

• I^AI^A and I^Ai

• I^A i and ii

• I^AI^A and I^AI^A

• I^A i and I^Bi

Multiple Choice

an example of polygenic inheritance is...

• height

• haemophilia

• blood types

• freckles

Multiple Choice

The genotype of the affected son and daughter at the bottom of this pedigree...

• homozygous dominant
• homozygous recessive
• heterozygous
• Can't tell

Multiple Choice

What type of heredity is shown in the pedigree?

• X-linked dominant

• X-linked recessive

• Autosomal Dominant

• Autosomal Recessive

Multiple Choice

Alternative forms of a gene are called

• Alleles
• Homozygous
• DNA
• Genetics

Multiple Choice

An example of a homozygous dominant gene is

• Dd

• DD

• dd

• X^DX^d

Multiple Choice

When a plant with red flowers (C^RC^R) is crossed with a plant that has white flowers ( C^WC^W), the resulting offspring has pink flowers ( C^RC^W). If two pink flowers are crossed, what is the probability of having a pink flower?

• A. 0%

• B. 25%

• C. 50%

• D. 75%

Multiple Choice

Human blood type is determined by multiple alleles (A, B, and O). Which ratio would result from a cross between a man with Type AB blood and a woman with Type O blood?

• A. 50% Type A, 50% Type O

• B. 75% Type A, 25% Type B

• C. 50% Type A, 50% Type B

• D. 100% Type O

Multiple Choice

Coat color in a dog breed is determined by incomplete dominance where three colors are produced (Brown, tan and white), and the brown coat allele (B) has incomplete dominance over the white coat allele (b). Which offspring ratio would be expected from a cross between a brown dog and a white dog?

• A. 2 BB: 2 Bb

• B. 4 Bb

• C. 1 BB: 2 Bb: 1 bb

• D. 2 BB: 2 bb

Multiple Choice

When a trait is controlled by more that one gene and the phenotypes show continuous variation

• codominance

• sex linked

• polygenetics

• multiple alleles

Multiple Choice

Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait found on the x chromosome.  Complete a cross between a woman who has hemophilia and a normal man.
What are the chances of a child having hemophilia?

• 100%
• 75%
• 50%
• 25%

Multiple Choice

In chickens, feather color is codominant.  If a black chicken BB is mated with one that is black and white (BW), what is the probability of having a chicken that is black and white?

• 1/4
• 1/2
• 3/4
• 100%

Multiple Choice

How chance the offspring born from this cross will have a homozygous dominant genotype?

• 25%

• 50%

• 75%

• 100%

Multiple Choice

What are the possible combinations of a pea plant with the alleles PP and a male pea plant with the alleles pp.
P= purple
p= white

• all Pp
• all PP
• Pp,PP,Pp,PP
• all pp

Multiple Choice

Heterozygous is when...

• the alleles are the same
• the alleles are different
• the alleles are absent
• the alleles are present

Multiple Choice

Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?

• polar bonds
• ionic bonds
• covalent bonds
• hydrogen bonds

Multiple Choice

Replicate the following strand of DNA: 
AATCATGGA

• AATCATGGA
• TTAGTACCT
• UUAGUACCU
• GGATAUCUA

Multiple Choice

Which organelle is DNA usually found in?

• cell membrane

• vacuole

• nucleolus

• nucleus

Multiple Choice

Guanine bonds with ______________.

• Adenine
• Guanine
• Cytosine
• Thymine

Multiple Choice

Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?

• double helix

• contains ribose

• made of amino acids

• single stranded

Multiple Choice

In a pedigree, what shape represents a male?

• circle
• square
• triangle
• diamond

Multiple Choice

If this pedigree shows an autosomal recessive disorder, what MUST the genotype of individual II-3 be?

• HH
• Hh
• hh
• None of the above

Multiple Choice

Which of the following is a feature of cancer cells that makes them different from normal cells?

• Cancer cells are unable to synthesise DNA.

• Cancer cells are arrested at the S phase of the cell cycle

• Cancer cells continue to divide even when they are tightly packed together.

• Cancer cells are always in the M phase of the cell cycle.

Multiple Choice

Which of the following is not an example of asexual reproduction?

• reproduction via budding in baker’s yeast

• formation of spores during sporogenesis without meiosis in red algae

• formation of plantlets on specialised leaves of kalanchoe

• fertilisation of orchids resulting in formation of a fruit

Multiple Choice

A cell with a diploid number of 12 chromosomes undergoes mitosis. What will the product at the end of mitosis be?

• 2 cells each with 12 chromosomes

• 4 cells each with 6 chromosomes

• 2 cells each with 6 chromosomes

• 4 cells each with 12 chromosomes

Multiple Choice

The figure above represents the stages of mitosis, but they are not in the order in which they occur.

Which of the options below shows the correct order for mitosis?

• A, D, F, C, E, B

• D, A, C, F, E, B

• B, D, A, F, C, E

• D, A, F, C, E, B

Multiple Choice

Which one of the following statements about the cells resulting from mitosis is correct?

• They are identical in shape, size and content to the original cell.

• They are each half the size of the original cell and have identical nuclear content.

• They are daughter and son cells.

• They are each one quarter of the size of the original cell.

Multiple Choice

Which of the following is not true about binary fission and mitosis?

• Binary fission occurs more rapidly than mitosis.

• The nuclear membrane breaks down and reforms during mitosis, but not during binary fission.

• Spindle fibres are present during mitosis.

• Binary fission occurs in eukaryotes, and mitosis occurs in prokaryotes.

Multiple Choice

By which process to bacteria divide?

• Mitosis

• meiosis

• budding

• binary fission