

Respiratory Infections Education Series
Presentation
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Health Sciences
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University
•
Practice Problem
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Medium
Alexa Risser
Used 2+ times
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17 Slides • 23 Questions
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By Alexa Risser, Victoria Lam, Joseph Goncalves
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Multiple Choice
Which pathogen is the most common cause of CAP?
Haemophilus influenzae
Legionella pneumophila
Mycoplasma pneumonia
Streptococcus pneumoniae
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75% cases: Streptococcus pneumoniae
10-15% cases: Haemophilus influenzae
~20% cases: Mycoplasma pneumonia
5-15% cases: Chlamydophila pneumoniae
2-15% cases: Legionella pneumophila
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Multiple Choice
Which antibiotic does NOT provide coverage for atypical organisms in a community acquired pneumonia?
Cefuroxime
Azithromycin
Doxycycline
Levofloxacin
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The 2019 IDSA/ATS guideline states empiric treatment targeting the most likely organisms, antibiotic should cover BOTH typical (S. pneumoniae and H. influenzae) and atypical (M. pneumoniae, C. pneumoniae, and Legionella) organisms.
Beta-lactams do NOT cover atypical pathogens as compared to macrolides, doxycycline, and fluoroquinolones
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Multiple Choice
Based on the 2019 IDSA/ATS guidelines, what is the minimum duration of therapy? once the patient has reached clinical stability
1 day
3 days
5 days
7 days
7
Multiple Choice
Based on the 2025 ATS guidelines, what is the minimum duration of therapy once the patient has reached clinical stability?
1 day
3 days
5 days
7 days
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Durations are dependent on the patient reaching clinical stability (afebrile for 48-72 hours and stable, traditionally takes ~5 days)
2019 IDSA/ATS guideline: a minimum of 5 days
2025 ATS guideline: a duration of less than 5 days (minimum of 3 days)
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Multiple Select
Based on the 2019 IDSA/ATS guidelines, what is the recommended treatment for CAP in a patient with diabetes and taking immunosuppressants?
Levofloxacin
Ciprofloxacin
Augmentin + doxycycline
Cefuroxime + azithromycin
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The 2019 IDSA/ATS guidelines recommend that in patients who have CAP and the presence of comorbidities (diabetes, alcoholism, immunosuppression, asplenia) or use of antimicrobials in past 3 months, the treatment could be a respiratory fluoroquinolone (levofloxacin, moxifloxacin) OR a beta-lactam plus a macrolide/doxycycline
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Multiple Choice
Which is NOT a symptom of active tuberculosis?
Cough lasting >3 weeks
Fatigue
Weight gain
Chills
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Cough lasting longer than 3 weeks with or without hemoptysis
Chest pain
Weakness/fatigue
Weight loss
Chills, fever, night sweats
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Multiple Choice
What is a treatment option for active TB?
Rifampin + isoniazid + moxifloxacin
Rifampin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide + ethambutol
Rifapentine + ethambutol
Isoniazid monotherapy
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RIPE – rifampin + isoniazid + pyrazinamide + ethambutol
Starts with RIPE daily for 2 months, followed by just rifampin + isoniazid daily for 4-7 months (total treatment length = 6-9 months)
Rifapentine + isoniazid + moxifloxacin + pyrazinamide x 2 months, then rifapentine + isoniazid + moxifloxacin x 9 weeks
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Multiple Select
What are treatment options for latent TB?
Isoniazid + rifapentine once weekly for 3 months
Isoniazid + rifampin daily for 3 months
Rifampin monotherapy daily for 4 months
Isoniazid daily for 6-9 months
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Isoniazid + rifapentine once weekly for 3 months
Isoniazid + rifampin daily for 3 months
Rifampin monotherapy once daily for 4 months
Isoniazid daily (or twice weekly) for 6 or 9 months
Not preferred due to length of treatment
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Multiple Choice
Which medication must be given concurrently with vitamin B6 25-50 mg/day to prevent neuropathy?
Rifampin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol
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Multiple Choice
Which medication must be taken on an empty stomach with a glass of water?
Pyrazinamide
Rifapentine
Ethambutol
Rifampin
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Must be taken with food: rifapentine
Must be taken on an empty stomach: rifampin, isoniazid
May be taken with or without food: pyrazinamide, ethambutol, moxifloxacin
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Multiple Choice
Which medication has a potential side effect of optic neuritis?
Moxifloxacin
Ethambutol
Pyrazinamide
Rifapentine
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Multiple Choice
Which medication would you avoid using to treat TB in a patient experiencing an acute gout attack?
Rifampin
Ethambutol
Moxifloxacin
Pyrazinamide
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Potential side effect of worsening gout
Contraindicated in patients with acute gout and severe hepatic impairment
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Multiple Select
Which medications put patients at a high risk of progression to severe COVID-19 illness?
High-dose corticosteroids (>20 mg prednisone or equivalent for >4 weeks)
B-cell depleting drugs in the past 12 months
Anti IL-23 drugs
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors
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Corticosteroids 10-20 mg for >4 weeks
Anti IL-6, IL-12, and IL-23 drugs
Moderate risk:
B-cell depleting agents in the past 12 months (rituximab, ocrelizumab)
Abatacept
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors (ibrutinib, acalabrutinib)
High-dose corticosteroids (>20mg prednisone or equivalent for >4 weeks)
CAR-T therapy in past 12 months
High risk:
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Multiple Choice
What is the first-line treatment of COVID-19 if no contraindications exist and there are no severe DDI?
Remdesivir
Nirmatrelvir/
ritonavir
Oseltamivir
Molnupiravir
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If no contraindications exist or there are no severe drug interactions, nirmatrelvir/ritonavir (Paxlovid) is recommended as first line.
If Paxlovid is not clinically appropriate and IV medications are feasible, remdesivir (Veklury) is recommended as a second line agent
Molnupiravir (Logevrio) is recommended as the last line agent if Paxlovid and Veklury are not appropriate/feasible.
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Multiple Choice
You must initiate Paxlovid and Logevrio within ___ days of symptom onset whereas you must initiate Veklury within ___ days of symptom onset.
1; 2
7; 5
5; 7
2; 1
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Multiple Choice
Which COVID-19 treatment does not have any CYP interactions?
Remdesivir
Nirmatrelvir/
ritonavir
Veklury
Molnupiravir
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Nirmatrelvir/ritonavir (Paxlovid): ritonavir is a strong CYP3A4 inhibitor
Remdesivir (Veklury): minor CYP3A4 inhibitor
Molnupiravir (Logevrio): no CYP interactions!
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Multiple Choice
Which COVID-19 treatment is given intravenously?
Paxlovid
Remdesivir
Molnupiravir
Logevrio
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Multiple Choice
Influenza antivirals should be initiated within what time frame after symptom onset?
12 hours
24 hours
48 hours
72 hours
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Multiple Choice
Which health condition/population is not a risk factor for progression to severe influenza illness?
Heart failure
HIV/AIDS
Pregnant patients
Age 5-64 years old
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Pregnant patients
Immunocompromised patients
Children <5 years of age and adults >65 years of age
Diabetes
Asthma
Atherosclerotic disease, heart failure
HIV/AIDS
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Multiple Choice
Which are side effects of oseltamivir?
Nausea/
vomiting
Neuropsychiatric events (confusion, delirium)
Headache
Bronchospasm
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Multiple Choice
Which influenza treatment cannot be used in pregnancy?
Zanamivir
Peramivir
Baloxavir
Oseltamivir
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Multiple Choice
Which influenza antiviral comes as a dosage form of a Diskhaler?
Zanamivir
Baloxavir
Oseltamivir
Peramivir
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Treatment dose: 2 inhalations twice daily for 5 days
Prophylactic dose: 2 inhalations once daily for 7 days
Not recommended for patients with asthma/COPD
Relenza Diskhaler (zanamivir)
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Multiple Select
Which influenza vaccine should be given to a patient with an egg allergy?
Fluzone
Flublok
Fluarix
Fluad
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As of the 2023-2024 influenza season, patients with an egg allergy can receive any influenza vaccine with no additional safety measures, regardless of the severity of their previous reaction to eggs.
40
By Alexa Risser, Victoria Lam, Joseph Goncalves
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