4.1.2 a - Identify which of the following paragraphs best demonstrates how crossing over and recombination contributes to genetic variation?

Chromosome segments are exchanged between nonsister chromatids of homologous chromosomes during the prophase of meiosis I. This exchange between chromosomes from different parents, creates new combinations of alleles in the gametes that are not found in either parent that had previously been on opposing homologous chromosomes. This recombination contributes to genetic diversity in the gametes.

When a male gamete and a female gamete finally meet, each is the result of an immense number of genetic possibilities created during independent assortment and crossing over. The random nature of this process occurring in the development of both gametes results in almost infinite potential variation in the resulting progeny. The random meeting of these two diverse groups of genes further diversifies the resulting gametes

When cells divide during meiosis, homologous chromosomes are randomly distributed during anaphase I, separating and segregating independent of each other. This results in gametes that have unique combinations of chromosomes that may come from different parents. This means that while all gametes will carry one of each homologous chromosome pair these will be a mix of chromosomes providing new groups of alleles not found in the parent.

4.1.2 b -Identify which of the following paragraphs best demonstrates how independent assortment contributes to genetic variation?

When cells divide during meiosis, homologous chromosomes are randomly distributed during anaphase I, separating and segregating independent of each other. This results in gametes that have unique combinations of chromosomes that may come from different parents.

When a male gamete and a female gamete finally meet, each is the result of an immense number of genetic possibilities created during independent assortment and crossing over. The random nature of this process occurring in the development of both gametes results in almost infinite potential variation in the resulting progeny.

This term is used to name the exchange of chromosome segments between nonsister chromatids during the prophase of meiosis I. It creates new combinations of genes in the gametes that are not found in either parent as they may group alleles that had previously been on opposing homologous chromosomes. This recombination contributes to genetic diversity in the gametes.

4.1.2 b -Identify which of the following paragraphs best demonstrates how random fertilisation contributes to genetic variation?

When a male gamete and a female gamete finally meet, each is the result of an immense number of genetic possibilities created during independent assortment and crossing over. The random nature of this process occurring in the development of both gametes results in almost infinite potential variation in the resulting progeny.

This term is used to name the exchange of chromosome segments between nonsister chromatids during the prophase of meiosis I. It creates new combinations of genes in the gametes that are not found in either parent as they may group alleles that had previously been on opposing homologous chromosomes. This recombination contributes to genetic diversity in the gametes.

When cells divide during meiosis, homologous chromosomes are randomly distributed during anaphase I, separating and segregating independent of each other. This results in gametes that have unique combinations of chromosomes that may come from different parents.

4.1.3 a - PA MOCKEXAM 2020 SA2 Q 1 -Identify the correct definition for the term gene

region/s of DNA that are made up of nucleotides; the molecular unit of heredity

a type of molecule that helps decode a messenger RNA sequence into a protein.

all the genetic material in the chromosomes of an organism, including its genes and DNA sequences

a self-replicating material which is present in nearly all living organisms as the main constituent of chromosomes. It is the carrier of genetic information.

4.1.3 c - Which statement best explains the process of protein synthesis in terms of transcription?

The unzipped double helical DNA of a gene in the nucleus, serves as a template to synthesize a complementary strand of RNA bases. The enzyme called RNA polymerase binds to the single stranded DNA, moving along the strand it catalyzes the formation of a pre-mRNA molecule, binding each complementary RNA base to its corresponding DNA base (replacing Thymine with Uracil). The non-coding introns are removed and the remaining coding exons are spliced to form mature mRNA. The resulting mRNA leaves the nucleus.

The double-stranded DNA is unwound by DNA helicases ahead of polymerases, forming a replication fork containing two single-stranded templates. The enzyme DNA polymerase now starts moving along generating new DNA strands that are complementary to the ‘original’ template strands. The strand is synthesised in a 5’ to 3’ direction. The result is the formation of two identical and separate double stranded helical DNA molecules.

The double-stranded DNA is unwound by DNA polymerase ahead of RNA helicase, forming a replication fork containing two single-stranded templates. The enzyme DNA polymerase now starts moving along generating new DNA strands that are complementary to the ‘original’ template strands. The strand is synthesised in a 5’ to 3’ direction. The result is the formation of two identical and separate double stranded helical DNA molecules.

Single stranded mature mRNA moves out of the nucleus and is "read" by ribosomes. At the ribosome each group of three bases, called a condon, found in the mRNA, specifies a complimentary anit-codon on tRNA molecules which then attaches. Each tRNA molecule is attached to a specific amino acid. The mRNA sequence is thus used as a template to assemble—in order—the chain of amino acids that form a protein.

4.1.3 c - Which statement best explains the process of protein synthesis in terms of translation?

Single stranded mature mRNA moves out of the nucleus and is "read" by ribosomes. At the ribosome each group of three bases, called a condon, found in the mRNA, specifies a complimentary anit-codon on tRNA molecules which then attaches. Each tRNA molecule is attached to a specific amino acid. The mRNA sequence is thus used as a template to assemble—in order—the chain of amino acids that form a protein.

The double-stranded DNA is unwound by DNA helicases ahead of polymerases, forming a replication fork containing two single-stranded templates. The enzyme DNA polymerase now starts moving along generating new DNA strands that are complementary to the ‘original’ template strands. The strand is synthesised in a 5’ to 3’ direction. The result is the formation of two identical and separate double stranded helical DNA molecules.

The double-stranded DNA is unwound by DNA polymerase ahead of RNA helicase, forming a replication fork containing two single-stranded templates. The enzyme DNA polymerase now starts moving along generating new DNA strands that are complementary to the ‘original’ template strands. The strand is synthesised in a 5’ to 3’ direction. The result is the formation of two identical and separate double stranded helical DNA molecules.

The unzipped double helical DNA of a gene in the nucleus, serves as a template to synthesize a complementary strand of RNA bases. The enzyme called RNA polymerase binds to the single stranded DNA, moving along the strand it catalyzes the formation of a pre-mRNA molecule, binding each complementary RNA base to its corresponding DNA base (replacing Thymine with Uracil). The non-coding introns are removed and the remaining coding exons are spliced to form mature mRNA. The resulting mRNA leaves the nucleus.

4.1.3 d - The purpose of gene expression is, best described as being, to?

synthesise a functional gene product (protein or functional RNA).

Transcribe and translate an allele present in the DNA at a particular loci, into a functioning protein.

the process by which information from a gene is used in the synthesis of a functional gene product.

is a tightly regulated process that allows a cell to respond to its changing environment. It acts as both an on/off switch to control when proteins are made and also a volume control that increases or decreases the amount of proteins made.

4.1.3 e - A Transcription Factor is best described as?

any of various proteins that bind to DNA and play a role in the regulation of gene expression by promoting or restricting formation of mRNA.

factors that restrict, coordinate and catalyze the synthesis of polypeptides from mRNA templates by ribosomes.

the study of heritable phenotype changes that do not involve alterations in the DNA sequence. These may result from external or environmental factors, or be part of normal development.

the process whereby the DNA sequence of a gene is "rewritten" in RNA for export from the nucleus.

4.1.3 e - Which of the following does not describe a factor that regulates the phenotypic expression of genes?

the code the body uses to convert the instructions contained in the DNA into the proteins essential for life.

any of various proteins that bind to DNA and play a role in the regulation of gene expression by promoting or restricting formation of mRNA.

environmental exposure or epigenetics resulting in a set of factors that affect which part of the DNA is activated.

factors that restrict, coordinate and catalyze the synthesis of polypeptides from mRNA templates by ribosomes.

4.1.3 f - Differential gene expression, controlled by transcription factors,

regulates cell differentiation for tissue formation and morphology.

contains the genetic instructions used in the development and functioning of all known living organisms (with the exception of RNA viruses).

are used in the synthesis of functional extra cellular proteins such as hormones which regulate morphological development.

are used to synthesis important hormones which result in cellular differentiation.

4.1.3 g - PA MOCKEXAM 2020 MC 11 - A group of genes that control the pattern of body formation in humans is being investigated. A gene that would be part of this group is the

TDF (testis-determining factor) gene.

SRY (sex-determining region Y) gene.

PAX6 (regulatory gene of eye and brain) gene.

4.1.3 g - Correctly identify an example of a transcription factor gene that regulates cell differentiation.

Sex-determining region Y (SRY) genes

hepatocyte nuclear factors gene

4.1.4 b - Identify which of the following best explains how non-disjunction leads to aneuploidy.

In non-disjunction, one or more pairs of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids fails to separate during nuclear division, resulting in an abnormal distribution of chromosomes in the daughter nuclei. The resulting gametes will gain or lose one or more chromosomes and thus the resulting offspring can inherit an abnormal number of chromosomes. As aneuploidy is the condition of having an abnormal number of chromosomes it is caused by the process of non-disjunction.

Having missing or extra chromosomes is a condition called aneuploidy. Trisomy is the most common aneuploidy. In trisomy, there is an extra chromosome. A common trisomy is trisomy 21 (Down syndrome). Other trisomies include trisomy 13 (Patau syndrome) and trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome). Monosomy is another type of aneuploidy in which there is a missing chromosome. A common monosomy is Turner syndrome , in which a female has a missing or damaged X chromosome.

Aneuploidy disturbs the delicate balance of gene products in cells. By definition, aneuploid cells have an abnormal number of chromosomes. Because each chromosome contains hundreds of genes, the addition or loss of even a single chromosome disrupts the existing equilibrium in cells, and in most cases, is not compatible with life. Non-disjunction is the failure of one or more pairs of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate normally, usually resulting in an abnormal distribution of chromosomes in the daughter nuclei.

Nondisjunction means that a pair of homologous chromosomes has failed to separate or segregate at anaphase so that both chromosomes of the pair pass to the same daughter cell. This probably occurs most commonly in meiosis, but it may occur in mitosis to produce a mosaic individual. Having missing or extra chromosomes is a condition called aneuploidy.

4.1.4 d - Identify which of the following best describes how inherited mutations can alter the variations in the genotype of offspring.

Any mutation that results in alteration of germline DNA and is thus heritable is both present across all cells with nuclear DNA in an organism and through each subsequent generation, making it permanent. These variations can result in; no change, a small change or a large change in the genotype of subsequent organisms, potentially resulting in entirely new alleles in a population. Changes in regulatory or control genes in particular can result in major changes in body morphology.

The term "genotype" refers to the genetic makeup of an organism; in other words, it describes an organism's complete set of genes. In a more narrow sense, the term can be used to refer to the alleles, or variant forms of a gene, that are carried by an organism. Genetic variation can be caused by mutation (which can create entirely new alleles in a population), random mating, random fertilization, and recombination between homologous chromosomes during meiosis (which reshuffles alleles within an organism's offspring).

Genetic variation is the presence of differences in sequences of genes between individual organisms of a species. It enables natural selection, one of the primary forces driving the evolution of life. Mutations, the changes in the sequences of genes in DNA, are one source of genetic variation. Mutations that change the genetic composition of gametes (germline mutation leads leads to characteristics in offspring

Genetic variation is an important force in evolution as it allows natural selection to increase or decrease frequency of alleles already in the population. Genetic variation can be caused by mutation (which can create entirely new alleles in a population), random mating, random fertilization, and recombination between homologous chromosomes during meiosis (which reshuffles alleles within an organism’s offspring). Genetic variation is advantageous to a population because it enables some individuals to adapt to the environment while maintaining the survival of the population

4.1.5 a - Long tongues (T) are dominant to short tongues (t) in green tree frogs. If two heterozygous green frogs mate, predict the genotypic frequency, as a percentage, of the resulting offspring?

Homozygous dominant (TT) = 25 %, Heterozygous (Tt) = 50 % Homozygous recesssive (tt) = 25 %

Heterozygous dominant (Tt) = 25 %, Heterozygous recessive (Tt) = 25 % Homozygous (TT) = 50 %

Homozygous dominant (TT) = 25 %, Heterozygous (Tt) = 25 % Homozygous recesssive (tt) = 25 %

Homozygous dominant (TT) = 25 %, Heterozygous dominant (Tt) = 25 %, Homozygous recesssive (tt) = 25 %, Heterozygous recessive (tT) = 25 %

4.1.5 a - (EDITED) PA MOCKEXAM SA1 Q 26c- Predict the next generation's phenotype fequency.

Phenotype 1 = 75% Phenotype 2 = 25%

Phenotype 1 = 25% Phenotype 2 = 75%

4.1.5 a - A roan cow shows co-dominance in fur color (orange & white). What is the phenotype ratio expected if a roan cow and a roan bull mate?

1: Orange: 2 Orange and White: 1 White

2 Orange: 2 Orange and White: 0 White

4.1.5 a - Blood type is an example of multiple allele inheritance patterns, that is to say it is a gene that contains several different allele variants on the same locus . Taking this into consideration, if Tom has the genotype I A I B and Angela has the genotype I B I i , what are the possible phenotypes of their children?

Group A, Group B, Group AB only

Group A, Group B, Group AB, and Group O

4.1.5 b - In polygenic inheritance, alleles do not display dominance over others, rather, each contributing allele gives an additive effect rather than a masking effect. In human skin colour for example the additive effect means that each dominant allele present in a genotype produces one unit of colour. In an example using two parents, heterozygous for each of the melanin-producing genes (AaBbCc x AaBbCc), correctly identify the number of skin colours potentially resulting from the possible allele combinations.

7 from 64 possible combinations

64 from 64 possible combinations

16 from 64 possible combinations

14 from 64 possible combinations

4.1.6 a - Identify which of the following best describes the process of making recombinant DNA.

1. isolation of DNA, 2. cutting of DNA (restriction enzymes) 3. insertion of DNA fragment (into plasmid vector) 4. joining of DNA (DNA ligase) 5. amplification of recombinant DNA (bacterial transformation)

1. isolation of DNA, 2. cutting of DNA (restriction enzymes) 3. joining of DNA (DNA ligase) 4. insertion of DNA fragment (into plasmid vector) 5. amplification of recombinant DNA (bacterial transformation)

1. amplification of recombinant DNA (bacterial transformation) 2. cutting of DNA (restriction enzymes) 3. insertion of DNA fragment (into plasmid vector) 4. joining of DNA (DNA ligase) 5. isolation of DNA,

1. cutting of DNA (restriction enzymes) 2. insertion of DNA fragment (into plasmid vector) 3. joining of DNA (DNA ligase) 4. amplification of recombinant DNA (bacterial transformation) 5. isolation of DNA.

4.1.6 b - Identify which of the following best describes the applications of the biotechnological process of DNA sequencing.

to determine the order of nucleotides within a DNA molecule and map species' genomes. This has applications in the identification of genes, use in medicine or agriculture, or tracking evolutionary relationships.

to introduce genetic material into cells to compensate for abnormal genes or to make a beneficial protein.

production of DNA that has been formed artificially by combining constituents from different organisms.

process of determining DNA characteristics through the breaking of DNA into short sections to identify the unique genetic information in a species or individual's DNA. This has applications in paternity testing, food security and forensic investigation.

to generate large numbers of copies of a specific section of single stranded DNA. This is required because significant amounts of sample are needed for effective DNA analysis.

4.1.6 b - Identify which of the following best describes the application of DNA profiling (DNA finger printing).

process of determining DNA characteristics to identify the unique genetic information in a species or individual's DNA. This can then be used for comparison with other samples and has applications in paternity testing, food security and forensic investigation.

the process of determining the precise order of nucleotides within a DNA molecule. This enables the mapping of a species genome and gives information useful for researchers in understanding the type of genetic information that is carried in the DNA, which may affect its function in the body.

removal and purification of DNA from other cellular components.

to generate large numbers of copies of a specific section of single stranded DNA. This is required because significant amounts of sample are needed for effective DNA analysis.

4.1.6 c - Identify which of the following best describes the purpose of polymerase chain reaction (PCR).

to generate large numbers of copies of a specific section of single stranded DNA. This is required because significant amounts of sample are needed for effective DNA analysis.

to recombine DNA artificially using constituents from different organisms genomes. This enables scientist to manipulate DNA to give organisms a desired trait.

to separate molecules of cut DNA based on their size. This is done to enable comparison of patterns of banding in DNA that represent differences in organisms genotypes.

to identify and eliminate undesirable traits in genomes.

to amplify a segment of DNA, the sample is first heated so the DNA denatures, or separates into two pieces of single-stranded DNA. Next, an enzyme synthesizes - builds - two new strands of DNA, using the original strands as templates. This process results in the duplication of the original DNA, with each of the new molecules containing one old and one new strand of DNA. Then each of these strands can be used to create two new copies, and so on, and so on.

4.1.6 d - An experiment was conducted to test how variation in the length of target DNA sequences affected the rate of successful uptake by the amplification bacteria (bacterial transformation). The graph shows the number of colonies that were successfully impregnated with the varying lengths of recombinant (target DNA plus plasmid vector). Identify a conclusion that could be made in terms of effectiveness of uptake of target DNA and fragment length.

The greatest rate of uptake of target DNA fragments, 80 colonies per (1/4) transformation, appears to be achieved at around 600 bp's of length. Therefore, lengths of DNA of around 600 bp's would provide the best size for efficient amplification in the making of recombinant DNA.

As number of colonies increases to a maximum of 80 colonies per (1/4) transformation, the size of the target sequence increases. Therefore it can be concluded that larger numbers of colonies produce larger lengths of target DNA providing efficient amplification in the making of recombinant DNA.

As size of target sequence increases there is a steep increase in rate of uptake by the bacteria colonies, to an optimum rate of 80 colonies per (1/4) transformation at around 600 bp's. After this point there is a reduction in uptake to around 65 colonies per (1/4) transformation as target length reaches around 1200 bp's.

As can be seen in the given graphic, lengths of DNA of around 600 bp's would provide the best size for efficient amplification in the making of recombinant DNA.

4.2.1. a - Microevolution is defined as?

small-scale variations in gene frequency within a species or population, in which the descendant is of the same taxonomic group as the ancestor.

the variation of allele frequencies at or above the level of species over geological time. These variations result in the divergence of taxonomic groups, in which the descendant is in a different taxonomic group to the ancestor.

the change in the genetic composition of a population during successive generations, which may result in the development of a new species.

pressures ‘select for’ the best-suited individuals in the population. The individuals that have the phenotypes best adapted to the environment are more likely to survive and produce offspring

4.2.1. a - Macroevolution is defined as?

the variation of allele frequencies at or above the level of species over geological time. These variations result in the divergence of taxonomic groups, in which the descendant is in a different taxonomic group to the ancestor.

the change in the genetic composition of a population during successive generations, which may result in the development of a new species.

small-scale variations in gene frequency within a species or population, in which the descendant is of the same taxonomic group as the ancestor.

pressures ‘select for’ the best-suited individuals in the population. The individuals that have the phenotypes best adapted to the environment are more likely to survive and produce offspring

4.2.1. b - Using the given figure determine which of the following geological periods experienced the largest extinction event (in terms of percentage of organisms lost).

The Cretaceous Cenozoic boundary

4.2.1. c - The DNA sequence of part of the mitochondrial DNA for five primate species is shown in the given table. Select the statement that is most consistent with the data.

Homo sapiens reflects Pan paniscus as equivalently as Gorilla gorilla reflects Pongo abelii.

The data is incomparable and it is invalid to draw a conclusion

The sequence of Pan paniscus reflects Gorilla gorilla more closely than Nomascus concolor

Nomascus concolor and Pongo abelii sequences are as equivalent as Gorilla gorilla and Pan paniscus

4.2.2. a - Natural selection occurs when?

the pressures of environmental selection confer a selective advantage on a specific phenotype to enhance its survival (viability) and reproduction (fecundity)

variation of allele frequencies at or above the level of species over geological time, result in the divergence of taxonomic groups, in which the descendant is in a different taxonomic group to the ancestor

small-scale variation of allele frequencies within a species or population, result in a descendant of the same taxonomic group as the ancestor

an animal or plant group changes over time into a wide variety of types adapted to specialized modes of life.

4.2.2. c - The process of 'stabilising selection' is best described as?

a form of natural or phenotypic selection where environmental conditions favours the mean of the distribution because the extremes are at a selective disadvantage - frequency of mean phenotype increases

a form of natural or phenotypic selection in which a single curve splits into two; occurs when individuals at the upper and lower ends of a distribution curve have higher fitness than individuals near the middle

a form of natural or phenotypic selection that favours one phenotypic extreme causing the allele frequency to shift over time in the direction of that phenotype.

a process of natural or phenotypic selection that increases the frequency of a favorable allele.

4.2.2. d - Identify which of the following accurately 'explains the process of microevolution through genetic drift'.

Microevolution is the small scale changes in allele frequency in a population over time. Genetic drift describes changes in the gene pool, and thus the relative frequencies of different alleles, in a population due to chance. This process is generally common in small and or isolated populations where gene frequencies can change rapidly due to random events that are more likely to significantly change gene frequencies in small population. An example of this would be 'Founder Effect'.

Microevolution is the small scale changes in allele frequency in a population over time. Genetic drift, that naturally occur across a population provides new alleles. If these new alleles result in a selective advantage as a result of environmental pressure and over multiple generations (over time), this may result in change or variation in allele frequencies across a population.

Microevolution is the small scale changes in allele frequency in a population over time. Genetic drift describes the mixing of genes from previously isolated populations that have diverged, this can rapidly change gene frequencies in the newly merged population. This change may not be a consequence of environmental pressure and thus natural selection. An example of this would be 'Migration'.

Microevolution is the small scale changes in allele frequency in a population over time. Genetic drift describes what occurs when some alleles are more beneficial than others to survival and/or reproduction, those alleles tend to increase in frequency in the population over generations.

DIAGNOSTIC - Unit 4 - QCAA ATAR Biology

Quiz

•

Biology

•

10th Grade - University

•

Practice Problem

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Hard

Stewart LEE

Used 45+ times

FREE Resource

61 questions

Show all answers

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

30 sec • 1 pt

4.1.1 a - The DNA of prokaryotes as well as that found in chloroplasts and mitochondria is best described as:

a single-stranded, finger like molecule found in the cytosol.

a circular, double-stranded molecule bound around a set of eight histone proteins.

a circular, double-stranded molecule not bound by histone proteins or a double membrane

a double-stranded molecule bound by histone proteins and a double membrane

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

30 sec • 1 pt

4.1.1 a - PAST EXAM 2020 MC 12 - In the structure of DNA, adenine pairs with which other base?

uracil

guanine

cytosine

thymine

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

45 sec • 1 pt

4.1.1 b - Recall the subunits that compose a nucleotide.

a ribose sugar, a phosphate group and one of four nitrogenous bases.

deoxyribose sugar, a phosphate group and one of four nitrogenous bases.

deoxyribose sugar, a phosphate group and one of four nucleic acids.

deoxyribose sugar, phosphorus and one of four nitrogenous bases.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

2 mins • 1 pt

4.1.1 b - What is the correct complementary strand for the following strand of DNA:
AATCATGGA

AATCATGGA

TTAGTACCT

UUAGUACCU

GGATAUCUA

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

30 sec • 1 pt

4.1.1 b - The hydrogen bonds between nitrogenous bases that connect the two strands in a double helix are considered?

weak and base specific

weak and non-base specific

strong and base specific

strong and non-base specific

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

30 sec • 1 pt

4.1.1 c - The following sentence describes the function of which enzyme in the process of DNA replication. 'This enzyme unwinds the DNA double helix and separates the strands to prepare for replication'.

synthase

replicase

polymerase

helicase

FILL IN THE BLANK QUESTION

2 mins • 1 pt

4.1.1 c - The following sentence describes the function of which enzyme in the process of DNA replication. 'This enzyme is responsible for assembling nucleotides to generate new DNA strand that is complementary to the original template strand'.

10.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

30 sec • 1 pt

4.1.2 a - Identify which of the following best compares the processes of spermatogenesis and oogenessis (with reference to haploid and diploid cells).

Both processes involve meiosis in the formation of two haploid daughter cells. Significantly this results in eggs and sperm with half the genetic material of the parents diploid somatic cells.

While in spermatogenesis, 4 functioning gametes are produced in oogenesis, only 1 gamete and 3 non-gamete polar bodies are produced. Therefore 4 times as many sperm are produced as eggs for each stem cell resulting less reproductive opportunities for successful fertilisation of eggs. In spermatogenesis, sperm are continuously produced whilst in oogenesis, eggs are generated before birth. Significantly this means that sperm are produced throughout a male lifespan whilst egg maturation often does not continue into menopause.

Both processes involve meiosis in the formation of two haploid daughter cells. While in spermatogenesis, 4 functioning gametes are produced in oogenesis, 1 only one gamete and 3 non-gamete polar bodies are produced. In spermatogenesis, spermatocytes are continuously produced whilst in oogenesis, oocytes are generated before birth.

Both processes involve meiosis in the formation of two haploid daughter cells. Significantly this results in eggs and sperm with half the genetic material of the parents diploid somatic cells.

While in spermatogenesis, only 1 gamete and 3 non-gamete polar bodies are produced, in oogenesis, 4 functioning gametes are produced. Therefore 4 times as many eggs are produced as sperm for each stem cell resulting less reproductive opportunities for successful fertilisation of eggs.

In spermatogenesis, sperm are generated before birth, while in oogenesis, eggs are continuously produced. Significantly this means that sperm are produced throughout a male lifespan whilst egg maturation often does not continue into menopause.

Both processes involve meiosis in the formation of two haploid daughter cells. While in spermatogenesis, only 1 gamete and 3 non-gamete polar bodies are produced, in oogenesis, 4 functioning gametes are produced. In spermatogenesis, sperm are generated before birth, while in oogenesis, eggs are continuously produced.

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DIAGNOSTIC - Unit 4 - QCAA ATAR Biology

61 questions

4.1.1 a - The DNA of prokaryotes as well as that found in chloroplasts and mitochondria is best described as:

4.1.1 a - PAST EXAM 2020 MC 12 - In the structure of DNA, adenine pairs with which other base?

4.1.1 b - Recall the subunits that compose a nucleotide.

4.1.1 b - What is the correct complementary strand for the following strand of DNA:AATCATGGA

4.1.1 b - The hydrogen bonds between nitrogenous bases that connect the two strands in a double helix are considered?

4.1.1 c - The following sentence describes the function of which enzyme in the process of DNA replication. 'This enzyme unwinds the DNA double helix and separates the strands to prepare for replication'.

4.1.1 c - The following sentence describes the function of which enzyme in the process of DNA replication. 'This enzyme is responsible for assembling nucleotides to generate new DNA strand that is complementary to the original template strand'.

4.1.2 a - PA MOCKEXAM 2020 MC 13 - During meiosis II, what is the role of homologous chromosomes?

4.1.2 a - Identify which of the following paragraphs best demonstrates how crossing over and recombination contributes to genetic variation?

4.1.2 a - Identify which of the following best compares the processes of spermatogenesis and oogenessis (with reference to haploid and diploid cells).

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4.1.1 b - What is the correct complementary strand for the following strand of DNA:
AATCATGGA