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WorksheetsAnatomy and Physiology project
Total questions: 77
Worksheet time: 39mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What is Anatomy?
a)
The function of the body
b)
Structure of the body.
2.
What is Physiology?
a)
The function of living organisms.
b)
The structure of living organisms.
3.
The levels of Structural Organization from smallest to largest are?
a)
Chemicals -> Cells -> Organs -> Tissues -> Organ Systems
b)
Cells -> Chemicals -> Tissues -> Organs -> Organ Systems
c)
Chemicals -> Cells -> Tissues -> Organs -> Organ Systems
4.
what is Homeostasis?
a)
idk
b)
Maintaining relatively stable internal conditions despite constant changes.
c)
Prevents internal change.
5.
what does the Receptor do?
a)
Provides the action needed to maintain Homeostasis.
b)
Interprets information from the receptor.
c)
A sensor that monitors and responds to changes in the environment.
6.
what does the control center do?
a)
Determines the response needed to maintain Homeostasis.
b)
A sensor that responds and monitors to changes in the environment.
c)
Provides the action needed to maintain Homeostasis.
7.
what does the Effector do?
a)
Interprets information from the receptor.
b)
Provides the action needed to maintain Homeostasis.
c)
delivers information to the control center.
8.
what is the Negative Feedback Mechanism?
a)
Mechanisms that decrease or reverse initial change.
b)
Mechanisms that increase or accelerate initial change.
9.
what is the Positive Feedback Mechanism?
a)
Mechanisms that increase or accelerate initial change.
b)
mechanisms that decrease or reverse initial change.
10.
What is Anatomical Position?
a)
- Body is erect
- Feet parallel
- Arms at sides
- Palms facing forward
- Feet parallel
- Arms at sides
- Palms facing forward
b)
- Body facing forward
- Feet parallel
- Arms at side
- Feet parallel
- Arms at side
11.
What are two main concerns for burn victims?
a)
Dehydration/Electrolyte imbalance
b)
- Dehydration
- Secondary Infection
- Secondary Infection
c)
- Dehydration/Electrolyte Imbalance
- Secondary Infection
- Secondary Infection
12.
What are four ways a person can get burned?
a)
- Intense Heat
- Electricity
- UV Radiation
- Certain Chemicals
- Electricity
- UV Radiation
- Certain Chemicals
b)
The sun
c)
Acid
13.
What are the characteristics of a 1st degree burn?
a)
- Epidermis is damaged
- Red and swollen
- No permanent damage
- Heals within 2 to 3 days
- Red and swollen
- No permanent damage
- Heals within 2 to 3 days
b)
- Epidermis and top of dermis is damaged
- Red and painful
- Blisters may appear
- Red and painful
- Blisters may appear
14.
What are the characteristics of a 3rd degree burn?
a)
- All layers are destroyed
- Full thickness burn
- Burned area appears blanched
- No pain
- Regenerated Tissue no possible
- Skin graft needed
- Full thickness burn
- Burned area appears blanched
- No pain
- Regenerated Tissue no possible
- Skin graft needed
b)
Epidermis and top of dermis is damaged
- Red and painful
- Blisters may appear
- Red and painful
- Blisters may appear
15.
What are the four functions of the skin?
a)
1. Protect deeper tissues
2. excretion of waste
3. Regulates body temperature
4. Synthesis Vitamin D
2. excretion of waste
3. Regulates body temperature
4. Synthesis Vitamin D
b)
Protects tissues
16.
What is Melanin?
a)
A pigment within the skin.
b)
Protein found in dead skin cells.
17.
What are the layers of the skin from top to bottom?
a)
Dermis, Epidermis, Subcutaneous Layer
b)
Epidermis, Dermis. Subcutaneous Layer
18.
What does SPF stand for?
a)
Sun Protection Factor
b)
Sun Protection Fear
c)
idk
19.
What happens to your skin in the sun?
a)
Your skin gets hot
b)
Sunburn
c)
Melanocytes increase production of melanin.
20.
What is the most common type of skin cancer?
a)
Basal Cell Carcinoma
b)
Malignant Melanoma
21.
What models a bone?
a)
Osteoblasts
b)
Hyaline
c)
Bone Marrow
d)
Callus
22.
What is the jawbone called?
a)
Mandible
b)
Clavicle
c)
Scapula
d)
Ulna
23.
What is the shoulder bone called?
a)
Clavicle
b)
Humerus
c)
Mandible
d)
Radius
24.
What are the bones of the hand?
a)
Carpals
b)
Metacarpals
c)
Phalanges
d)
All of the above
25.
Are bones allow?
a)
Protection
b)
Support
c)
Movement
d)
All of the above
26.
Which fracture is two bones forced into each other?
a)
Communited
b)
Impacted
c)
Spiral
d)
Greenstick
27.
What kind of bone is the rib cage?
a)
Irregular
b)
Long
c)
Short
d)
Flat
28.
What kind of fracture is common in children?
a)
Greenstick
b)
Comminuted
c)
Spiral
d)
None of the Above
29.
What is the hard exterior region of the bone called?
a)
Marrow
b)
Exterior
c)
Compact
d)
None of the above
30.
Which factor causes a bone to fracture?
a)
Comminuted
b)
Greenstick
c)
Spiral
d)
Impacted
31.
What are Muscle Fibers?
a)
The cells of muscle tissue.
b)
Connective tissue
32.
What is Endomysium?
a)
A connective tissue layer that covers each individual muscle fiber.
b)
A bundle of multiple muscle fibers.
c)
connective tissue layer.
33.
What are Tendons?
a)
Connective Muscle to Bone.
b)
Connect Muscle to another Bone.
34.
What do Connective Tissue Sheaths Provide?
a)
Strength and Support to the Muscle as a Whole.
b)
Covers the Muscle tissue.
35.
What is a Fascicle?
a)
A bundle of multiple muscle fibers
b)
Connect to the muscle
36.
Where can you find the pulse?
a)
Radial and carotid Arteries
b)
only carotid artery
c)
only radial artery
37.
Where is the location of the radial artery?
a)
Wrist
b)
neck
c)
ear
38.
What are the difference between bradycardia and tachycardia?
a)
Bradycardia is when you have an abnormally low heart rate and tachycardia is when you have an abnormally high heart rate
b)
Bradycardia is when you have an abnormally high heart rate and tachycardia is when you have an abnormally low heart rate
c)
Bradycardia is when your heart rate is normal and tachycardia is when you are close to having an abnormal heart rate
39.
What is blood pressure?
a)
Blood pushing against the walls of the arteries
b)
blood pushing against the walls of the arteries
40.
What are the type(s) of blood pressure?
a)
Systolic and diastolic
b)
systolic and hypertension
c)
diastolic
41.
What does the plasma maintain?
a)
Blood volume
b)
ph. level
c)
fluid balance
d)
all of the above
42.
What are the parts of the blood?
a)
Plasma, rbc, wbc, platelets
b)
iron, plasma, rbc
c)
rbc and wbc
43.
WBC can double their percentage within a few ___ if called upon
a)
Hours
b)
seconds
c)
minutes
44.
What are the types of WBC?
a)
Neutrophils & Monocytes
b)
Eosinophils & Basophils
c)
Lymphocytes
d)
All of the above
45.
What are the human blood groups?
a)
Abo & rh
b)
a&b
c)
a,b & o
46.
Which lung has more lobes?
a)
Right
b)
Left
47.
Which one is a part of the upper respiratory tract?
a)
Larynx
b)
raches
c)
bronchi
d)
alveoli
48.
Larynx is also known as what?
a)
The voice box
b)
the throat
c)
cilia
49.
What is the first event of respiration?
a)
Pulmonary ventilations
b)
external respiration
c)
respiratory gas transport
d)
internal respiration
50.
What is the third event of respiration?
a)
Respiratory gas transport
b)
pulmonary ventilations
c)
external respiration
51.
Boyles law?
a)
Volume ^ = pressure v
b)
volume v = pressure ^
52.
What are the inspiratory muscles?
a)
Diaphragm and external intercostal
b)
internal intercostal
c)
all of the above
53.
What adds up to equal the vital capacity?
a)
Irv + tv + erv
b)
rv + Erv + Irv
c)
Irv + Erv
54.
Residual volume means?
a)
Volumes of air that cannot be expelled
b)
Volume of air that can be expelled
55.
What’s a spirometer?
a)
Device used to measure the respiratory volumes and capacities
b)
device used to measure the residual volume
c)
Device used to measure your blood pressure
56.
What are the functions of the digestive system?
a)
Ingest, digest, absorbs , eliminates
b)
digest, absorbs
c)
eliminates; Ingest
57.
What does the stomach do?
a)
Turns food to chyme
b)
propels food
c)
absorbs nutrients
58.
Accessory organs are?
a)
Pancreas
b)
liver
c)
gallbladder
d)
all of the above
59.
Which is one of the two structures of a nephron?
a)
Proximal tubule
b)
Distal tubule
c)
Renal tubule
d)
Loop of Henle
60.
What does the bowmen’s capsule surround?
a)
Glomerulus
b)
Collecting duct
c)
Distal tubule
d)
Renal tubule
61.
Which of the following processes do not work to form urine?
a)
Secretion
b)
Filtration
c)
Elimination
d)
Reabsorption
62.
What is the typical pH pf urine?
a)
8
b)
5
c)
7
d)
6
63.
Where hydrogen ions would be taken from the blood?
a)
Ascending loop of Henle
b)
PCT
c)
Descending loop of Henle
d)
Collecting duct
64.
How many openings does the urinary bladder have?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
4
d)
3
65.
When does the bladder cause reflex contractions?
a)
400mL
b)
200mL
c)
300mL
d)
400mL
66.
What is the renal Hilus?
a)
Fatty tissue that holds kidneys to its place in the body
b)
Passageway in/out of Kidney
c)
Transparent Fibrous Tissue that Surrounds Kidney
d)
Sites of Nephrons & Urine Formation
67.
In what layer of the kidney are medullary pyramids found?
a)
Renal Medulla
b)
Renal pelvis
c)
Renal cortex
d)
Calyces
68.
Who has mammary glands?
a)
Men
b)
Women
c)
Both
d)
Neither
69.
How long do women bleed during the menses stage?
a)
3- 5 days
b)
1- 2 days
c)
4- 5 days
d)
1 day
70.
What is the average blood loss during the menses stage?
a)
50 – 200 mL
b)
100 – 150 mL
c)
50 – 150 mL
d)
50 – 100 mL
71.
Where is sperm formed?
a)
Epididymis
b)
Seminiferous tubules
c)
Scrotum
d)
Vas deferens
72.
Where in the sperm contains the genetic material?
a)
Acrosome
b)
Head
c)
Mid piece
d)
Tail
73.
What are interstitial cells of the testes found in?
a)
Testosterone
b)
Epididymis
c)
Connective tissues surrounding the seminiferous tubules
d)
Urethra
74.
How many days does it take for a sperm to mature and gain the ability to swim?
a)
20 Days
b)
15 Days
c)
5 Days
d)
10 Days
75.
How much fluid volume of semen does the seminal vesicles produce?
a)
80%
b)
50%
c)
25%
d)
60%
76.
At about what age does women stop releasing eggs?
a)
35
b)
50
c)
60
d)
30
77.
When does ovulation generally occur?
a)
20 Days
b)
25 Days
c)
28 Days
d)
30 Days
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