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WorksheetsMAP 155 PREP FOR CERTIFICATION PRACTICE
Total questions: 76
Worksheet time: 40mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The 8th cranial nerve (acoustic) is responsible for:
a)
sense of taste
b)
sense of smell
c)
sense of hearing and equilibrium
d)
sense of sight
2.
Olfactory senses are those of:
a)
taste
b)
sight
c)
smell
d)
touch
3.
Myelocele is a form of:
a)
spina bifida
b)
Down syndrome
c)
meningitis
d)
CVA
4.
Which of the following is a hereditary degenerative disorder?
a)
TIA
b)
CVA
c)
Huntington's chorea
d)
spina bifida
5.
Which word means half the body is paralyzed?
a)
quadriplegia
b)
hemiparesis
c)
hemiplegia
d)
paraparesis
6.
Bradykinesia, akinesia and shuffling gait are symptoms of:
a)
Alzheimer's disease
b)
Bell's palsy
c)
spina bifida
d)
Parkinson's disease
7.
If the spine does not close properly in fetal development, the infant will have:
a)
sciatica
b)
spina bifida
c)
Bell's palsy
d)
multiple sclerosis
8.
A fatty substance that protects nerve fibers is known as:
a)
dendrite
b)
axon
c)
myelin
d)
ganglia
9.
Which of the following is an example of the work of the sympathetic nervous system?
a)
heart rate decreases
b)
bladder sphincter relaxes
c)
blood pressure decreases
d)
pupils constrict
10.
Which disease causes the loss of memory?
a)
Huntington's chorea
b)
Parkinson's disease
c)
Alzheimer's disease
d)
spina bifida
11.
What is the name of the substance that fills the posterior cavity of the eyeball?
a)
vitreous humor
b)
nasolacrimal fluid
c)
aqueous humor
d)
lacrimal fluid
12.
The structure of the eye in which the rods and cones determine color perception is called the:
a)
pupil
b)
retina
c)
ciliary body
d)
choroids
13.
Which of the following is the term for farsightedness, in which the patient cannot focus well on objects close at hand?
a)
hyperopia
b)
astigmatism
c)
myopia
d)
glaucoma
14.
A condition of the eye in which the lens clouds over and prevents light from entering is:
a)
glaucoma
b)
cataracts
c)
retinal detachment
d)
astigmatism
15.
A highly contagious condition of the eye, also known as a stye is:
a)
corneal abrasion
b)
hordeolum
c)
conjunctivitis
d)
macular degeneration
16.
The apparatus that comprises all the structures that produce, store, and remove the tears that cleanse and lubricate the eye is called the:
a)
retina
b)
lacrima
c)
conjunctiva
d)
iris
17.
The ear bone that is shaped like a stirrup is called the:
a)
malleus
b)
stapes
c)
incus
d)
anvil
18.
Which of the following is an ear disorder?
a)
blepharitis
b)
glaucoma
c)
presbycusis
d)
strabismus
19.
Which of the following organs/structure is/are NOT found in the endocrine system?
a)
ovaries
b)
thymus
c)
testes
d)
liver
20.
Addison's disease is a result of the dysfunction of what structure?
a)
thymus
b)
ovary
c)
thyroid
d)
adrenal gland
21.
The endocrine gland that is responsible for calcitonin secretion is the:
a)
pancreas
b)
ovary
c)
thyroid
d)
adrenal cortex
22.
The result of hypersecretion of thyroid hormones is
a)
tetany
b)
diabetes mellitus
c)
exophthalmic goiter
d)
Addison's disease
23.
A disease caused by the hypofunction of the thyroid gland is:
a)
myasthenia gravis
b)
myxedema
c)
Grave's disease
d)
Addison's disease
24.
Which of the following is NOT of of the cardinal signs of diabetes mellitus?
a)
polyphagia
b)
polypharmacy
c)
hyperglycemia
d)
polydipsia
25.
Increasing rates of obesity in teens and children are resulting in which disease being diagnosed at a younger age?
a)
Type 1 diabetes
b)
Type 2 diabetes
c)
Cushing disease
d)
Gigantism
26.
An excessive amount of hair on the body because of a hormone imbalance is known as
:
:
a)
Hashimoto's disease
b)
Hirsutism
c)
Myxedema
d)
myasthenia gravis
27.
Testosterone affects all of the following EXCEPT
a)
sexual desire
b)
deepening of voice
c)
masculine body features
d)
gastric secretions
28.
Undersecretion of GH (growth hormone) results in
a)
exophthalmos
b)
dwarfism
c)
Cushing's syndrome
d)
gigantism
29.
Which type of physical examination will reveal abnormalities of the nervous system?
a)
oncological
b)
urological
c)
neurological
d)
gynecological
30.
Diabetes mellitus is the result of the impaired action of what hormone?
a)
insulin
b)
adrenaline
c)
glucagon
d)
testosterone
31.
To test a patient for allergies the physician would order:
a)
fasting blood glucose
b)
lumbar puncture
c)
RAST test
d)
colonoscopy
32.
Before collecting a stool sample for occult blood, aspirin and iron supplements should be avoided for:
a)
12 hours before collection
b)
48 hours before collection
c)
3 days before collection
d)
7 days before collection
33.
Orthopedics pertains to:
a)
nervous system
b)
integumentary system
c)
musculoskeletal system
d)
digestive system
34.
One common symptom of cardiovascular disease is
a)
dyspnea
b)
polydipsia
c)
dysphagia
d)
digitalis
35.
Romberg's sign is a test used to evaluate the:
a)
nervous system
b)
skeletal system
c)
digestive system
d)
endocrine system
36.
Which of the following is NOT taken into consideration when evaluating pupils?
a)
equal dilation
b)
equal reaction to light
c)
ability to consciously adjust to pupil size
d)
rapid constriction to light
37.
Who would you see for treatment of diabetes?
a)
a neurologist
b)
an endocrinologist
c)
an immunologist
d)
a dermatologist
38.
Testing for occult blood is performed on what type of specimen?
a)
blood
b)
serum
c)
CSF
d)
feces
39.
Which of is NOT a role of EMS?
a)
prepare the patient for transport
b)
diagnose patient
c)
administer emergency medication
d)
intubate a patient
40.
Who decides the equipment and supplies to have stocked on a crash cart?
a)
certified medical assistant
b)
physician
c)
clinical supervisor
d)
malpractice insurance company
41.
When assessing an unconscious infant for responsiveness you should:
a)
sharply poke the feet
b)
gently shake the shoulders
c)
locate the pulse
d)
shout the infant's name
42.
Another term for an abrasion is:
a)
avulsion
b)
friction burn
c)
puncture
d)
laceration
43.
A severe allergic reaction to a substance is known as:
a)
metabolic shock
b)
anaphylactic shock
c)
hypoallergenic shock
d)
sepsis
44.
Hypoglycemia is present when a patient's:
a)
blood sugar is above 120 mg/dL
b)
blood sugar is below 200 mg/dL
c)
blood sugar is above 300 mg/dL
d)
blood sugar is below 70 mg/dL
45.
Arterial bleeding is:
a)
slow and bright red
b)
slow and dark red
c)
rapid and bright red
d)
pulsating and dark red
46.
Hyperthermia occurs when a person's body temperature reaches:
a)
105 F
b)
95 F
c)
109 F
d)
103 F
47.
Syncope is another term for:
a)
vomiting
b)
fainting
c)
dizzyness
d)
respiratory distress
48.
FEMA declares this disaster to be the most common hazard in the US:
a)
hurricane
b)
flood
c)
tornado
d)
earthquake
49.
How many types of WBC's are there?
a)
5
b)
1
c)
4
d)
3
50.
Which of the following is NOT a plasma protein?
a)
albumin
b)
globulin
c)
fibrinogen
d)
urea
51.
Which test helps to determine the functioning ability of the kidney?
a)
hemoglobin
b)
hematocrit
c)
calcium
d)
BUN and creatinine
52.
Which test indicates the overall number of leukocytes in a specific amount of blood?
a)
BUN
b)
WBC
c)
Differential
d)
SGOT
53.
The normal range for glucose is:
a)
70-120 mg/dL
b)
40-150 mg/dL
c)
130-200 mg/dL
d)
132-142 mg/dL
54.
The normal RBC volume in an adult female is:
a)
5.0-6.0 million/mm3
b)
4.0-5.5 million/mm3
c)
6.0-7.0 million/mm3
d)
7.0-8.0 million/mm3
55.
The normal WBC counts range from__________ to _________ thousand in adults:
a)
4.5, 11
b)
11, 14
c)
1.0, 4.5
d)
6.0, 9.0
56.
The percentage range of basophils in adult blood is:
a)
50-70%
b)
1-4%
c)
0-1%
d)
20-35%
57.
To perform a differential white blood cell count, the microscope must be placed on
a)
40X
b)
60X
c)
20X
d)
100X
58.
All of the following are fat-soluble vitamins stored in the liver EXCEPT:
a)
Vitamin A
b)
Vitamin D
c)
Vitamin B
d)
Vitamin K
59.
Which of the following are food sources for carbohydrates?
a)
eggs and fish
b)
milk and salmon
c)
pasta and potatoes
d)
butter and fish
60.
A BRAT diet has been ordered for David Abilene, who is 2 years old. What foods will be included on that diet?
a)
apple juice
b)
peanut butter sandwich
c)
bananas and rice
d)
pureed vegetables
61.
When restricting food on a 1,200 calorie diet that is being adapted for a diabetic patient using food exchange lists, what must be remembered?
a)
Alcohol
b)
exercise increases the need for insulin
c)
water should be restricted with diabetics
d)
consider foods from all 5 food groups
62.
All of the following are milk products EXCEPT:
a)
yogurt
b)
butter
c)
cereal
d)
ice cream
63.
Which of the following statements about cholesterol is TRUE?
a)
All cholesterol is bad.
b)
Good cholesterol is LDL.
c)
Cholesterol is an essential element normally found in the body
d)
The info "cholesterol 0 mg" on a food label means that there is no fat present.
64.
Which of the following is a good source of iron?
a)
oat cereal
b)
milk
c)
nuts
d)
butter
65.
Which of the following is NOT a function of water?
a)
removes waste products from cells
b)
carries oxygen and nutrients to cells
c)
decreases blood pressure
d)
prevents dehydration
66.
Which of the following is NOT allowed on the bland diet?
a)
citrus juices
b)
milk products
c)
cooked friuts
d)
low-fiber foods
67.
Invasion of the body by any pathogen is called:
a)
contagion
b)
infection
c)
pandemic
d)
communicable
68.
Material for a CSF specimen is collected from what area?
a)
throat
b)
mouth
c)
pharynx
d)
spinal canal
69.
Cocci occurring in chains are:
a)
diplococci
b)
streptococci
c)
micrococci
d)
staphylococci
70.
Which of the following is caused by a virus?
a)
malaria
b)
herpes zoster
c)
strep throat
d)
gonorrhea
71.
An organism that can live with or without oxygen in its environment is:
a)
gram positive
b)
gram negative
c)
anaerobic
d)
a facultative anaerobe
72.
The test that checks for the susceptibility of an organisms to specific antibiotic is the:
a)
culture test
b)
sensitivity test
c)
isolation test
d)
screening test
73.
After a Gram stain, what color do gram-negative organisms stain?
a)
blue
b)
black
c)
pink
d)
violet
74.
Staphylococcus aureus is:
a)
gram-negative Bacilli in chain
b)
gram-positive Cocci in chain
c)
a cause of MRSA
d)
acid-fast Bacilli
75.
The causative agent of scarlet fever & rheumatic fever is:
a)
streptococcus pyrogens
b)
streptococcus pneumoniae
c)
staphylococcus enteritidis
d)
chlamydia trachomatis
76.
The study of ova and parasites is known as:
a)
cytology
b)
serology
c)
mycology
d)
hematology
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