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Worksheets100 Nutrition/Elimination/Pain/Rest
Total questions: 87
Worksheet time: 3hrs 48mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
While doing a nutritional assessment of a low-income family, the community health nurse determines that the family’s diet is inadequate in protein content. The nurse suggests which of the following foods to increase protein content with little increase in food expenditure?
a)
oranges and potatoes
b)
potatoes and rice
c)
rice and macaroni
d)
peas and beans
2.
A client is suspected of having a fat-soluble vitamin deficiency. To assist the client with this deficiency, the nurse informs the client:
a)
“More exposure to sunlight and drinking milk could solve your nutritional problem.”
b)
“Eating more pork, fish, eggs, and poultry will increase your vitamin B complex intake.”
c)
“Increasing your protein intake will increase your negative nitrogen imbalance.”
d)
“Decreasing your triglyceride levels by eating less saturated fats would be a good health intervention for you.”
3.
When introducing a feeding to a client with an indwelling gavage tube for enteral nutrition, the nurse should first:
a)
Irrigate the tube with normal saline solution
b)
Check to see that the tube is properly placed
c)
Place the client in a supine position
d)
Introduce some water before giving the liquid nourishment
4.
A client is seen in the outpatient clinic for follow-up of a nutritional deficiency. In planning for the client’s dietary intake, the nurse includes a complete protein, such as:
a)
eggs
b)
oats
c)
lentils
d)
peanuts
5.
According to the Food GuidePyramid, vegetables should be included in the average adult’s diet as:
a)
1 to 3 servings per day
b)
2 to 4 servings per day
c)
3 to 5 servings per day
d)
6 to 11 servings per day
6.
The parent of an 8-year-old asks the nurse about any special nutritional needs for children in this age group. The nurse identifies that children during this period need to:
a)
Increase their intake of B vitamins
b)
Significantly increase iron intake
c)
Maintain a sufficient intake of protein, and vitamins A and C
d)
Increase carbohydrates to meet increased energy needs
7.
After a surgical procedure, the client is advanced to a full liquid diet. The nurse is able to recommend which one of the following foods for this client?
a)
custard
b)
pureed meats
c)
soft fresh fruit
d)
canned soup
8.
A client has an enteral tube in place and is receiving tube feedings. While the nurse is administering the feeding, the client begins to experience abdominal cramping and nausea. The nurse should:
a)
Cool the formula
b)
Remove the tube
c)
Use a more concentrated formula
d)
Decrease the administration rate
9.
The nurse is speaking with parents of a child at a day-care center. The parents ask the nurse about the nutritional needs of their toddler. An appropriate finger food that is identified by the nurse is:
a)
nuts
b)
popcorn
c)
cheerios
d)
hot dogs
10.
A school nurse in a high school is reviewing the nutritional needs of adolescents. The nurse is aware that in this age group:
a)
Girls require less protein
b)
Boys require additional iron
c)
Vitamin B needs are decreased
d)
Energy and caloric needs are decreased
11.
The client is assessed by the nurse as having a high risk for aspiration. The nursing diagnosis identified for the client is Self-care deficit, feeding related to unilateral weakness. An appropriate technique for the nurse to use when assisting the client with feeding is to:
a)
Place food to the unaffected side of the mouth
b)
Place the client in semi-Fowler’s position
c)
Have the client use a straw
d)
Use thinner liquids
12.
The patient reports to the nurse that she feels as if her eyes are persistently dry. This symptom is consistent with a deficiency in which of the following dietary elements?
a)
Protein
b)
Vitamin D
c)
Calcium
d)
Vitamin A
13.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has been experiencing prolonged wound healing from a surgical procedure. A deficiency in which of the following nutrients would be associated with this condition?
a)
Vitamin B1
b)
Calcium
c)
Folic Acid
d)
Vitamin C
14.
The nurse is providing education to a patient concerning calcium intake. During the discussion the nurse addresses a potential health concern related to inadequate calcium intake. Which of the following conditions is most impacted by inadequate calcium intake?
a)
Dental caries
b)
Anemia
c)
Osteoporosis
d)
Dry eyes
15.
Which vitamin is found only in animal foods?
a)
Vitamin C
b)
Vitamin B12
c)
Vitamin A
d)
Vitamin D
16.
A patient who has bleeding tendencies has a deficiency in which vitamin?
a)
Vitamin A
b)
Vitamin C
c)
Vitamin B
d)
Vitamin K
17.
The nurse is reviewing the health assessment of a patient. The nurse is concerned that the patient may have a deficiency of Vitamin D. Which of the following conditions most supports this suspicion?
a)
Night blindness
b)
Clotting disorder
c)
Rickets
d)
Dental decay
18.
You are educating a group of adolescent girls on bone and teeth growth. Which fat-soluble vitamin assists to build bone and teeth?
a)
Vitamin A
b)
Vitamin C
c)
Vitamin E
d)
Vitamin B1
19.
The nurse is providing teaching to a patient with high triglyceride and cholesterol levels. Which of the following foods should the patient be cautioned to avoid?
a)
Coconut
b)
Fish
c)
Chicken
d)
Sunflower
20.
The nurse is reviewing a patient’s understanding of dietary choices that will help reduce high triglyceride and cholesterol levels. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the best options to be included in the diet?
a)
“I plan to use more sunflower oil in my diet selections.”
b)
“Coconut oil has shown to be a good choice for people hoping to reduce cholesterol levels.”
c)
“I am using palm oil in most of my cooking right now.”
d)
“Palm kernel oil is a smart choice because it is one of the oils lowest in triglyceride and cholesterol.”
21.
Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?
a)
Vitamin C
b)
Vitamin B12
c)
Vitamin E
d)
Vitamin B6
22.
Which of the following foods eaten with peanut butter would provide the patient with complete protein?
a)
Wheat bread
b)
Milk
c)
Jelly
d)
Carrots
23.
A patient has just had abdominal surgery, and the nurse is consulting with him about his diet now that he is allowed to eat. Which nutrient is most important for wound healing?
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Protein
c)
Fats
d)
Vitamins
24.
An athlete wants to increase her intake of complex carbohydrates and asks the nurse about potential sources. Which of the following foods is considered a complex carbohydrate?
a)
Molasses
b)
Syrup
c)
Brown sugar
d)
Bread
25.
What vitamin is synthesized with an adequate supply of carbohydrates?
a)
Vitamin A
b)
Vitamin D
c)
Vitamin E
d)
Vitamin K
26.
A woman consumes pasta, grains, and other carbohydrates for
a)
Weight gain
b)
Energy
c)
Weight loss
d)
Source of fiber
27.
The average dietary nutrient intake level that meets the nutritional requirement of almost all healthy people in a selected age and gender group is the
a)
AI level
b)
UL level
c)
EAR level
d)
RDA level
28.
Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding the functions of protein?
a)
Proteins can be a primary fuel source even if there is adequate carbohydrate intake.
b)
Proteins are a necessary nutrient to provide energy for the body in times of stress.
c)
Proteins can be used as coenzyme factors during cell metabolism.
d)
Proteins are essential to tissue building and repair within the body.
29.
The body’s main storage form of carbohydrate is
a)
glycogen
b)
glycerol
c)
glucagon
d)
glucose
30.
The basic building units of protein are called _____ acids.
a)
fatty
b)
amino
c)
nucleic
d)
caroboxyl
31.
The main nutrients involved in metabolic regulation and control are
a)
water and vitamins.
b)
vitamins and minerals.
c)
vitamins and fatty acids.
d)
minerals and carbohydrates.
32.
The dietary regimen that would provide optimal nutrition for a person who is recovering from an extended illness is a diet
a)
low in protein, fat, and carbohydrates; high in minerals and vitamins; and very low in fiber.
b)
providing adequate amounts of carbohydrates, protein, fat, minerals, and vitamins along with adequate water and fiber.
c)
high in protein, fiber, and fluid; low in carbohydrates; and adequate in vitamins and minerals.
d)
with essential amounts of vitamins and minerals; high in protein; and low in fat, carbohydrates, and fiber.
33.
Which is least likely to be a primary cause of malnutrition?
a)
conditions of poverty
b)
prolonged hospitalization
c)
homelessness
d)
exercise
34.
The Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) address the nutrient needs of
a)
all adults.
b)
most healthy population groups.
c)
minority ethnic groups.
d)
pregnant women, infants, and children.
35.
You are asked to explain the Dietary Guidelines for Americans to an adult community evening class at the local college. The most appropriate areas to cover in teaching this topic include
a)
appropriate amounts of sodium, saturated fat, cholesterol, trans—fatty acids, whole grains, and alcohol.
b)
adequate calories and protein for weight maintenance, smoking cessation, herbal supplements, and food fads.
c)
importance of low-carbohydrate diets, smoking cessation, herbal supplements, appropriate food groups, and sodium and potassium.
d)
food security, weight maintenance, glucose monitoring, and blood pressure monitoring technique.
36.
A patient asks you what he should eat to maintain an optimal diet. An appropriate response would be to
a)
eat a variety of foods and eat in moderation.
b)
avoid all fast food and processed foods.
c)
eat only natural, organic foods.
d)
use vitamin and mineral supplements to ensure adequate nutrients.
37.
A 52-year-old single woman comes to the health professional for advice on maintaining optimal nutritional health. Her food intake records indicate that she likes to eat at fast food restaurants at least twice a week, and relies on processed foods for the majority of her dietary intake. She maintains an active lifestyle and works part time at the local bank. The next step to assist this woman would be to
a)
assess meal plan options along with the ability to prepare nutritious foods.
b)
obtain laboratory values to further assess her nutrition status and recommend supplementing her diet with vitamins and minerals.
c)
find ways to decrease eating at fast food restaurants and incorporate physical exercise into her daily routine.
d)
recommend that she use the MyPlate food guide to change her eating style and attend cooking classes at the local community center.
38.
C.G. is a 45-year-old man who has a history of diabetes, and the dietary history reveals that he enjoys a good breakfast with whole grain cereal and fruit. For lunch he usually eats soup or an entrée consisting of a salad and meat along with 2% milk and a sugared soda. He usually has an afternoon snack of chips and sugared soda and dinner is eaten at a restaurant most days of the week where he chooses steaks, hamburgers, and fries or onion rings along with a salad and a beer or other high- calorie beverage. One of the most important recommendations for C.G. would be
a)
not to eat at restaurants on a regular basis unless he chooses salads only along with water.
b)
to continue with whole grains, lean proteins, and vegetables and replace sugary sodas with sugar-free beverages.
c)
to drink skim milk and eliminate soups, replacing them with fatty fish five meals a week.
d)
to enjoy his diet as is but encourage adequate amounts of exercise throughout the week.
39.
Which organ relies almost exclusively on glucose for energy?
a)
liver
b)
heart
c)
pancreas
d)
brain
40.
Which polysaccharide is stored in the liver?
a)
Insulin
b)
Ketones
c)
Glycogen
d)
Glucose
41.
While addressing a community group, the nurse explains the importance of replacing saturated fats in the diet with mono- and polyunsaturated fats. She emphasizes that doing so greatly reduces the risk of which complication?
a)
Kidney failure
b)
Liver failure
c)
Stroke
d)
Lung cancer
42.
Patients may be deficient in which vitamin during the winter months?
a)
A
b)
D
c)
E
d)
K
43.
During the day shift, a patient’s temperature measures 97°F (36.1°C) orally. At 2000, the patient’s temperature measures 102°F (38.9°C). What effect does this rise in temperature have on the patient’s basal metabolic rate?
a)
Increases the rate by 7%
b)
Decreases the rate by 14%
c)
Increases the rate by 35%
d)
Decreases the rate by 28%
44.
A patient who underwent surgery 24 hours ago is prescribed a clear liquid diet. The patient asks for something to drink. Which item may the nurse provide for the patient?
a)
Tea with cream
b)
Orange juice
c)
Gelatin
d)
Skim milk
45.
Which laboratory test result most accurately reflects a patient’s nutritional status?
a)
Albumin
b)
Prealbumin
c)
Transferrin
d)
Hemoglobin
46.
A patient refuses to eat all types of meat, which has led to a protein deficiency. The nurse recognizes that the only plant source that contains all nine essential amino acids is:
a)
Bean sprouts
b)
Lima beans
c)
Kidney beans
d)
Soybeans
47.
The nurse consults with a patient who is a vegan and stresses that this diet puts the patient at risk for:
a)
Diabetes
b)
Iron Deficiency
c)
Osteoporosis
d)
Scurvy
48.
The patient states that he uses a large amount of table sugar (sucrose) in his foods because it gives him quick energy. The nurse explains that sucrose will:
a)
quickly raise the blood sugar, and the level drops slowly.
b)
not raise the blood sugar as quickly as a protein source will.
c)
cause a hunger and energy lag because of the rapid fall of the blood sugar.
d)
also act as a good support to the digestion of fiber.
49.
The nurse evaluates the patient’s understanding of the fiber content of grains and cereals when the patient selects:
a)
white bread toast with an orange.
b)
wheat bread toast with a peeled apple.
c)
shredded wheat and a banana.
d)
a biscuit and a grapefruit.
50.
The nursing action that is most beneficial toward creating an atmosphere conducive to eating for a hospitalized patient immobilized in bed is:
a)
lower the head of bed as tolerated.
b)
remove the urinal from the over-the-bed table.
c)
invite the patient to wash hands and face before eating.
d)
use a deodorizer to remove any unpleasant odor in the room.
51.
What sympathetic responses to pain might be assessed by the nurse?
a)
Increased blood pressure, increased pulse, and increased respiratory rate
b)
Decreased blood pressure, decreased pulse, and increased respiratory rate
c)
Increased blood pressure, decreased pulse, and increased respiratory rate
d)
Decreased blood pressure, decreased pulse, and decreased respiratory rate
52.
A nurse notices that a patient seems calm and peaceful despite an assessment that the patient’s injuries might be causing severe pain. The patient tells the nurse that using yoga and meditation lessens the perceptions of pain to tolerable levels. Which other alternative intervention should the nurse suggest to help relax this patient for pain relief?
a)
Indulging in a favorite food
b)
Music by a favorite artist
c)
Reading exciting science fiction
d)
Self-administration of drugs
53.
What intervention of pain control exemplifies the gate control methods of pain relief?
a)
Assisting the patient to ambulate
b)
Giving a massage
c)
Providing an ice cold beverage
d)
Instructing the patient in stretching exercises
54.
What assessment should a nurse make to evaluate the presence of pain in a patient who is cognitively impaired?
a)
Amount of time spent sleeping during the day
b)
Consistent stoic facial expression
c)
Increased social interaction
d)
Increasing confusion
55.
A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving morphine via a patient controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. When assessing the patient, she notes that his respiratory rate is 4. What should the nurse do first?
a)
Notify the physician
b)
Stop the PCA pump
c)
Administer naloxone
d)
Increase the primary IV rate
56.
Besides controlling pain of the post-abdominal surgery patient with narcotics, the nurse suggests to the patient that he
a)
Focus on pain relief
b)
Use distraction
c)
Describe the pain
d)
Think about the next dose
57.
A nurse is assessing a patient’s pain. The nurse notes which of the following database findings that is indicative of acute pain?
a)
Pupil constriction
b)
Decreased pulse rate
c)
Increased blood pressure
d)
Decreased respiratory rate
58.
The nurse identifies the pain described by a patient whose back discomfort began after an automobile accident and has persisted for 8 months as
a)
acute
b)
recurrent
c)
chronic
d)
malignant
59.
The nurse must frequently assess a client experiencing pain. When assessing the intensity of the pain, the nurse should:
a)
Ask about what precipitates the pain
b)
Question the client about the location of the pain
c)
Offer the client a pain scale to objectify the information
d)
Use open-ended questions to find out about the sensation
60.
The client will be going home on medication administered through a PCA (patient-controlled analgesia) system. To assist the family members with an understanding of how this therapy works, the nurse explains that the client:
a)
Has control over the frequency of the IV analgesia
b)
Can choose the dosage of the drug received
c)
May request the type of medication received
d)
Controls the route for administering the medication
61.
Nurses working with clients in pain need to recognize and avoid common misconceptions and myths about pain. In regards to the pain experience, which of the following is correct?
a)
The client is the best authority on the pain experience.
b)
Chronic pain is mostly psychological in nature.
c)
Regular use of analgesics leads to drug addition.
d)
The amount of tissue damage is accurately reflected in the degree of pain perceived.
62.
A patient suddenly develops right lower-quadrant pain, nausea, vomiting, and rebound tenderness. How should the nurse classify this patient’s pain?
a)
acute
b)
chronic
c)
intractable
d)
neuropathic
63.
How should the nurse classify pain that a patient with lung cancer is experiencing?
a)
radiating
b)
deep somatic
c)
visceral
d)
referred
64.
A patient who underwent a left above-the-knee amputation complains of pain in his left foot. The nurse should document this finding as what type of pain?
a)
psychogenic
b)
phantom
c)
referred
d)
radiating
65.
A patient who sustained rib fractures in a motor vehicle accident is complaining that his pain medication is ineffective. Inadequate pain control places this patient at risk for which complication?
a)
metabolic alkalosis
b)
pneumothorax
c)
pneumonia
d)
hemothorax
66.
When should the nurse assess pain?
a)
Whenever a full set of vital signs is taken
b)
During the admission interview
c)
Every 4 hours for the first 2 days after surgery
d)
Only when the patient complains of pain
67.
A patient is prescribed morphine sulfate 4 mg intravenously for postoperative pain. Which action should the nurse take before administering the medication?
a)
Monitor the patient’s respiratory status.
b)
Auscultate the patient’s heart sounds.
c)
Check blood pressure in supine and sitting positions.
d)
Monitor the patient for psychological drug dependence.
68.
What is typically the most reliable indicator of pain?
a)
Patient’s self-report
b)
Past medical history
c)
Description by caregiver(s)
d)
Behavioral cues
69.
The nurse answers a patient’s call for pain medication, only to find the patient laughing and joking with visitors. Which response by the nurse is appropriate?
a)
“You don’t need this pain medication after all, do you?”
b)
“I’ll bring your medication back later after your visitors are gone.”
c)
“I can see your pain is better. Call again when you need your medication.”
d)
“Would you like your visitors to step out while I give you your pain medication?”
70.
A patient has abdominal pain after gallbladder surgery. For which type of pain should the nurse provide care?
a)
chronic
b)
nociceptive
c)
neuropathic
d)
non-physiological
71.
A person who is deprived of REM sleep for several nights in succession will usually experience:
a)
Extended NREM sleep.
b)
Paradoxical sleep.
c)
REM rebound.
d)
Insomnia.
72.
Which of the following factors has the greatest positive effect on sleep quality?
a)
Sleeping hours in synchrony with the person’s circadian rhythm
b)
Sleeping in a quiet environment
c)
Spending additional time in stage IV of the sleep cycle
d)
Napping frequently during the day hours
73.
When making rounds on the night shift, the nurse observes her patient to be in deep sleep. His muscles are very relaxed. When he arouses as the nurse changes the IV tubing, he is confused. What stage of sleep was the patient most likely experiencing?
a)
Stage V
b)
Stage IV
c)
Stage III
d)
REM
74.
What is the purpose of using a sleep diary?
a)
Identify sleep–rest patterns over a 1-year period.
b)
Note the trend in sleep–wakefulness patterns over a 2-week period.
c)
Note typical sleep habits and most common daily routines.
d)
Examine the patterns of sleep during the night and naps during the day.
75.
Patterns of waking behavior that appear during sleep are known as:
a)
parasomnias
b)
dyssomnias
c)
insomnia
d)
hypersomnia
76.
A 6-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital for a surgical procedure associated with a hospital stay. When the nurse asks his mother about the boy’s sleep patterns, she says, “Sometimes he will get out of bed, walk into the kitchen, and get the cereal out of the cabinet. Then he just turns around and goes back to bed.” The nurse explains that he is sleepwalking. The best nursing diagnosis for Tad would be:
a)
Risk for Insomnia related to sleepwalking.
b)
Risk for Fatigue related to sleepwalking.
c)
Disturbed Sleep Pattern related to dyssomnia.
d)
Risk for Injury related to sleepwalking.
77.
The primary focus of your interventions for a 6-year-old child who sleepwalks would be to:
a)
Maintain patient safety during episodes of somnambulation.
b)
Administer and teach about medications to suppress stage IV sleep.
c)
Encourage the child to verbalize feelings regarding sleep pattern.
d)
Provide a quiet environment for nighttime sleep.
78.
From what stage of sleep are people typically most difficult to arouse?
a)
NREM, alpha waves
b)
NREM, sleep spindles
c)
NREM, delta waves
d)
REM
79.
During which of the following developmental stages does a person tend to need the most hours of sleep?
a)
toddler
b)
adolescence
c)
middle adulthood
d)
older adulthood
80.
The 70-year-old client tells the nurse, “I can go to sleep without a problem, but then I wake up in a couple of hours and can’t go back to sleep.” What nursing action would help promote rest and sleep in this client?
a)
Have the client develop a bedtime ritual of quiet music and a glass of wine.
b)
Encourage the client to avoid taking pain medication prior to sleep.
c)
Evaluate if the client perceives sleeplessness to be a serious problem.
d)
Have the client perform moderate exercises before bedtime.
81.
The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client diagnosed with narcolepsy. Which intervention should the nurse include in this plan of care?
a)
Encourage the client to take an over-the-counter medication to improve nighttime sleep.
b)
Be certain the client has the prescription for modafinil (Provigil) filled.
c)
Have the client purchase sodium oxybate (Xyrem) over the counter to prevent daytime drowsiness.
d)
Be certain the client obtains antihistamines to control nasal stuffiness.
82.
The nurse is planning interventions for a client who has difficulty falling asleep. Which intervention regarding sleep times would be most helpful?
a)
Maintain a regular bedtime and wake-up time for all days of the week.
b)
If bedtime is delayed on one night, go to bed that much earlier the next night.
c)
Sleep at least 1 hour later on mornings you don’t have to go to work.
83.
The hospitalized client requests a bedtime snack. Which food should the nurse offer this client?
a)
Hot chocolate
b)
Tea and crackers
c)
Cereal with milk
d)
Chips and salsa
84.
The nurse is admitting a client to the emergency department with complaints of severe abdominal pain. What is the nurse’s first action?
a)
Administer IV pain medication as ordered.
b)
Start an IV line of lactated Ringer’s.
c)
Assess pain using a scale of 1 to 10.
d)
Place a Foley catheter to bedside drainage.
85.
A client is surprised to learn of the diagnosis of a heart attack when there was no chest pain experienced but only some left shoulder pain. What should the nurse explain to the client about the type of pain experienced?
a)
phantom pain
b)
referred pain
c)
visceral pain
d)
chronic pain
86.
A client rates pain as being 7 on a scale from 0 to 10. What will the nurse document as this client’s pain intensity?
a)
Mild pain
b)
Moderate pain
c)
Severe pain
d)
Physiological pain
87.
A client is experiencing pain after spraining an ankle. The nurse realizes the type of pain the client is most likely experiencing would be:
a)
mild pain
b)
severe pain
c)
somatic pain
d)
visceral pain
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