Font size
S
M
L
XL
WorksheetsPNE Renal
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
If a nurse wants to obtain the best estimate of renal function, which test should the nurse monitor?
a)
Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
b)
Circulating antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels
c)
Volume of urine output
d)
Urine-specific gravity
2.
When a patient asks what the most common type of renal stones is composed of, how should the nurse respond? The most common type of renal stone is composed of:
a)
magnesium.
b)
struvite.
c)
calcium.
d)
phosphate.
3.
A 24-year-old female is diagnosed with renal calculus that is causing obstruction. Which of the following symptoms would she most likely experience?
a)
Anuria
b)
Hematuria
c)
Pyuria
d)
Flank pain
4.
A 25-year-old female presents with burning urination. She was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection. When the nurse checks the culture results, which of the following organisms is most likely infecting her urinary tract?
a)
Streptococcus
b)
Candida albicans
c)
Chlamydia
d)
Escherichia coli
5.
A 75-year-old male reports to his primary care provider loss of urine with cough, sneezing, or laughing. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart?
a)
Urge incontinence
b)
Stress incontinence
c)
Overflow incontinence
d)
Functional incontinence
6.
In a client with a history of frequent urinary tract infections (UTIs), the nurse would note the need for further teaching when the client says "I
a)
am on an oral contraceptive.”
b)
often take baths instead of showers.”
c)
use unscented tampons during my period.”
d)
use a water-soluble lubricant for intercourse.”
7.
For a client with a history of recurrent UTIs who is prescribed an acid-ash diet, the nurse would advise the client to include
a)
alcohol.
b)
carbonated beverages.
c)
coffee.
d)
cranberry juice.
8.
For a client experiencing urinary incontinence, in the initial plan of care the nurse would include
a)
encouraging the client to void frequently.
b)
limiting fluid intake.
c)
teaching Kegel exercises.
d)
using adult diapers to prevent accidents.
9.
The nurse reinforces explanations that the procedure for lithotripsy involves
a)
capturing of stones via a scope.
b)
dissolution of stones with medication.
c)
fragmenting of stones by shock waves.
d)
surgical removal of stones.
10.
A nurse is caring for a client with an indwelling Foley catheter. Which intervention takes highest priority?
a)
Administer antispasmotics for bladder spasms.
b)
Provide meticulous perineal care.
c)
Provide privacy when assessing the catheter’s patency.
d)
Record accurate I&O.
11.
In the nursing care plan for a client with acute pyelonephritis, the nurse would include teaching the client to
a)
complete the entire course of antibiotics.
b)
drink 4000 ml of fluid daily.
c)
maintain complete bed rest.
d)
withhold antihypertensive medications.
12.
As part of the care plan for a client with pyelonephritis, the nurse should
a)
assess for manifestations of fluid overload.
b)
encourage increased activity
c)
increase fluid intake to 3 to 4 L/day.
d)
watch for early manifestations of anaphylaxis.
13.
In a client with glomerulonephritis, the nurse would assess for the cardinal manifestation of
a)
edema.
b)
fever.
c)
hypertension.
d)
pyuria.
14.
In caring for a chronic dialysis patient with an arteriovenous fistula, the nurse would
a)
avoid getting the fistula site wet during the client’s bath.
b)
irrigate the fistula with heparin to prevent clotting.
c)
not use the arm with the fistula when taking the client’s BP.
d)
perform dressing changes to prevent infection.
15.
During a client’s first dialysis treatment, the client complains of a severe headache and appears somewhat confused. The priority action by the nurse’s is to
a)
administer oxygen by nasal cannula.
b)
encourage the client to drink fluids.
c)
notify the physician immediately.
d)
slow the rate of the dialysis.
16.
A nurse reviews the urinalysis of a client and notes the presence of glucose. Which action should the nurse take?
a)
Document findings and continue to monitor the client.
b)
Contact the provider and recommend a 24-hour urine test.
c)
Review the client’s recent dietary selections.
d)
Perform a capillary artery glucose assessment.
17.
A nurse reviews the urinalysis results of a client and notes a urine osmolality of 1200 mOsm/L. Which action should the nurse take?
a)
Contact the provider and recommend a low-sodium diet.
b)
Prepare to administer an intravenous diuretic.
c)
Obtain a suction device and implement seizure precautions.
d)
Encourage the client to drink more fluids.
18.
A nurse cares for a client with a urine specific gravity of 1.040. Which action should the nurse take?
a)
Obtain a urine culture and sensitivity.
b)
Place the client on restricted fluids.
c)
Assess the client’s creatinine level.
d)
Increase the client’s fluid intake.
19.
A nurse cares for a client with a urine specific gravity of 1.018. Which action should the nurse take?
a)
Evaluate the client’s intake and output for the past 24 hours.
b)
Document the finding in the chart and continue to monitor.
c)
Obtain a specimen for a urine culture and sensitivity.
d)
Encourage the client to drink more fluids, especially water.
20.
A nurse reviews a female client’s laboratory results. Which results from the client’s urinalysis should the nurse recognize as abnormal?
a)
pH 5.6
b)
Ketone bodies present
c)
Specific gravity of 1.020
d)
Clear and yellow color
21.
A nurse obtains a sterile urine specimen from a client’s Foley catheter. After applying a clamp to the drainage tubing distal to the injection port, which action should the nurse take next?
a)
Clamp another section of the tube to create a fixed sample section for retrieval.
b)
Insert a syringe into the injection port and aspirate the quantity of urine required.
c)
Clean the injection port cap of the drainage tubing with povidone-iodine solution.
d)
Withdraw 10 mL of urine and discard it; then withdraw a fresh sample of urine.
22.
A nurse is assessing a patient with renal impairment. Which facial characteristic is a sign of fluid retention?
a)
Broken blood vessels around the nose
b)
Periorbital edema
c)
Rash on cheeks and neck
d)
Facial twitching
23.
What laboratory value change should indicate to a nurse that a patient with renal failure has entered the oliguric stage?
a)
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level rises.
b)
Serum calcium increases.
c)
Blood volume decreases.
d)
Urine osmolality increases.
24.
Which urine test provides the most accurate measurement of renal function?
a)
BUN
b)
Phosphates
c)
Specific gravity
d)
Creatinine
25.
A nurse is performing frequent catheterizations for residual urine. What causes the greatest concern for the nurse?
a)
Introduction of pathogens into the bladder
b)
Frequent genital exposure of the patient
c)
Presence of the indwelling catheter
d)
Causing urethral erosion
26.
A home health patient diagnosed with cystitis has been prescribed the medication phenazopyridine (Pyridium). When providing patient teaching, what should the nurse caution the patient about?
a)
Staying out of the heat
b)
Nausea
c)
Staining of clothing
d)
Skin rash
27.
What discharge teaching is appropriate for the nurse to provide to a patient who has had a lithotripsy?
a)
Check for edema of the legs and ankles.
b)
Watch for stone debris in the urine in 1 to 4 weeks.
c)
Decrease fluid intake to 1000 mL/day.
d)
Remain on restricted activity for a week.
28.
Which outcome is most necessary for a patient diagnosed with renal calculi?
a)
Patient states an awareness of signs and symptoms of kidney stones and knows where to find pain relief.
b)
Patient will measure intake and output so that they will be approximately equal.
c)
Patient will avoid infections and situations that would increase stress.
d)
Patient is able to describe measures to prevent recurrence of calculi.
29.
Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the kidney. What will a deficiency of erythropoietin in a patient in chronic renal failure result in?
a)
Diminished immunologic function with fewer white blood cells
b)
Elevated lipid levels in the bloodstream, contributing to accelerated atherosclerosis
c)
Anemia as a result of the diminished number of red blood cells being produced
d)
Hypertension as a result of the increased, concentrated blood volume
30.
The nurse is caring for a patient with an acid–base imbalance from kidney disease. How should the nurse explain the role of the kidneys to maintain acid–base balance in the body to the patient?
a)
Promoting retention of proteins
b)
Promoting excretion of carbon dioxide
c)
Conserving or excreting potassium ions
d)
Conserving or excreting bicarbonate ions
31.
The nurse is collecting data from a patient with stress incontinence. Which finding should the nurse document?
a)
The patient is unable to tell when there is the need to urinate.
b)
The patient is unable to hold urine when under emotional stress.
c)
The patient is unable to reach the bathroom and urinates in underwear.
d)
The patient loses small amounts of urine when he or she coughs or sneezes.
32.
The nurse is caring for a male patient with functional incontinence. What action should the nurse take to help prevent incontinence?
a)
Teach the patient how to do Kegel exercises.
b)
Ensure that the patient has ready access to the urinal.
c)
Teach the patient to increase the time between voiding.
d)
Give the patient cranberry juice to keep the urine acidic.
33.
A patient with pneumonia has a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 32 mg/dL and creatinine of 0.8 mg/dL. What should the nurse realize is the most probable explanation for this finding?
a)
The patient is dehydrated.
b)
The patient has septicemia.
c)
The patient is malnourished.
d)
The patient has kidney damage.
34.
During an assessment, the nurse notes that a patient has crystals deposited on the skin. What should this finding indicate to the nurse?
a)
Gout
b)
Uremic frost
c)
Poor hygiene
d)
Metabolic alkalosis
35.
A female patient is embarrassed because of not being able to walk to the bathroom in time before become incontinent of urine. Which type of incontinence should the nurse plan care for this patient?
a)
Urge
b)
Total
c)
Stress
d)
Functional
36.
The nurse is making a visit to the home of a patient with functional incontinence. Which observation indicates that teaching about the disorder has been effective?
a)
Patient wearing sweat pants
b)
Patient drinking a cup of coffee
c)
Patient sitting with the legs elevated
d)
Patient restricting fluid intake after 6 pm.
37.
A patient hospitalized for orthopedic surgery had a urinary catheter inserted. The patient later develops a urinary tract infection (UTI) and asks the nurse what caused it. What is the appropriate response by the nurse?
a)
“There was a change in the pH of your urine.”
b)
You probably did not void frequently enough.”
c)
“Bacteria probably ascended the catheter, causing the infection.”
d)
“There are always bacteria on your perineum that enter your urine.”
38.
The nurse is reviewing the history and physical of a patient who has an infection. What term should the nurse realize describes an infection of the kidneys?
a)
Cystitis
b)
Hepatitis
c)
Urethritis
d)
Pyelonephritis
39.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has renal calculi. Which action is essential for the nurse to take?
a)
Strain all urine.
b)
Limit fluids at night.
c)
Record blood pressure.
d)
Obtain a sterile urine specimen.
40.
A patient hourly urine output is recorded. Which output rates should be brought to the attention of the registered nurse (RN) immediately?
a)
15 mL/hr
b)
40 mL/hr
c)
60 mL/hr
d)
80 mL/hr
41.
A patient with glomerulonephritis asks, “How could I have gotten this?” How should the nurse respond?
a)
“Has anyone in your family had glomerulonephritis?”
b)
“Have you had a sore throat or skin infection recently?”
c)
“Glomerulonephritis almost always follows a bladder infection.”
d)
“Glomerulonephritis often results from having unprotected sex.”
42.
A patient with glomerulonephritis develops acute kidney injury. Which form of kidney injury should the nurse realize has occurred with this patient?
a)
Prerenal
b)
Postrenal
c)
Intrarenal
d)
Suprabladder
43.
A patient is diagnosed with end-stage kidney disease. The nurse realizes that what percentage of functioning nephrons have been lost in this patient?
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
75%
d)
90%
44.
What is the most significant change in kidney function that occurs with aging?
a)
Decreased glomerular filtration rate
b)
Proliferation of micro blood vessels to renal cortex
c)
Formation of urate crystals
d)
Increased renal mass
45.
Which urine specific gravity would be expected in a patient admitted with dehydration?
a)
1.002
b)
1.010
c)
1.025
d)
1.030
46.
The nurse identifies the nursing diagnosis Urinary Incontinence (Total) in an older adult patient admitted after a stroke. Urinary Incontinence places the patient at risk for which complication?
a)
Skin breakdown
b)
Urinary tract infection
c)
Bowel incontinence
d)
Renal calculi
47.
A patient complains that she passes urine whenever she sneezes or coughs. How should the nurse document this complaint in the patient’s healthcare record?
a)
Transient incontinence
b)
Overflow incontinence
c)
Urge incontinence
d)
Stress incontinence
48.
A patient is admitted with high BUN and creatinine levels, low blood pH, and elevated serum potassium level. Based on these laboratory findings the nurse suspects which diagnosis?
a)
Cystitis
b)
Renal calculi
c)
Enuresis
d)
Renal failure
49.
A mother tells the nurse at an annual well-child checkup that her 6-year-old son occasionally “wets himself.” Which response by the nurse is appropriate?1)
a)
Explain that occasional wetting is normal in children of this age.
b)
Tell the mother to restrict her child’s activities to avoid wetting.
c)
Suggest “time out” to reinforce the importance of staying dry.
d)
Inform the mother that medication is commonly used to control wetting.
50.
Which action should the nurse take when beginning bladder training using scheduled voiding?
a)
Offer the patient a bedpan every 2 hours while she is awake.
b)
Increase the voiding interval by 30 to 60 minutes each week.
c)
Frequently ask the patient if she has the urge to void.
d)
Increase the frequency between voiding even if urine leakage occurs.
51.
The nurse is teaching an older female patient how to manage urge incontinence at home. What is the first-line approach to reducing involuntary leakage of urine?
a)
Insertion of a pessary
b)
Intermittent self-catheterization
c)
Bladder training
d)
Anticholinergic medication
52.
What is the best technique for obtaining a sterile urine specimen from an indwelling urinary catheter?
a)
Use antiseptic wipes to cleanse the meatus prior to obtaining the sample.
b)
Briefly disconnect the catheter from the drainage tube to obtain the sample.
c)
Withdraw urine through the port using a needleless access device.
d)
Obtain the urine specimen directly from the collection bag.
53.
Glomerulonephritis is usually caused by:
a)
vesicoureteral reflux.
b)
catheter-induced infection.
c)
antigen-antibody complexes.
d)
glomerular membrane viruses.
54.
The edema that develops in persons with glomerulonephritis and nephrotic syndrome reflects:
a)
obstruction and reflux.
b)
salt and water retention.
c)
inability to concentrate urine.
d)
decreased glomerular permeability.
55.
Which of the following assessment findings is most suggestive of nephrotic syndrome?
a)
Hematuria and anemia
b)
Proteinuria and generalized edema
c)
Renal colic and increased serum sodium
d)
Increased creatinine with normal blood urea nitrogen
56.
A patient has recently undergone successful extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL) for the treatment of renal calculi. Which of the following measures should the patient integrate into his lifestyle to reduce the risk of recurrence?
a)
Increased fluid intake and dietary changes
b)
Weight loss and blood pressure control
c)
Regular random blood glucose testing
d)
Increased physical activity and use of over-the-counter diuretics
57.
A young child has been diagnosed with Wilms tumor after his mother discovered an unusual mass, prompting a diagnostic workup. Which of the following characteristics is typical of Wilms tumor?
a)
The tumor is usually asymptomatic.
b)
The tumor is usually self-limiting.
c)
The tumor is usually a secondary neoplasm.
d)
The tumor is usually encapsulated.
58.
The most common indicator of acute renal failure is:
a)
anemia.
b)
uremia.
c)
edema.
d)
azotemia.
59.
Which of the following individuals likely faces the greatest risk for the development of chronic kidney disease?
a)
A first-time mother who recently lost 1.5 L of blood during a postpartum hemorrhage
b)
A patient whose diagnosis of thyroid cancer necessitated a thyroidectomy
c)
A patient who experienced a hemorrhagic stroke and now has sensory and motor deficits
d)
A patient with a recent diagnosis of type 2 diabetes who does not monitor his blood sugars or control his diet
60.
Which of the following descriptions is true of peritoneal dialysis?
a)
Vascular access is achieved through an internal arteriovenous fistula or an external arteriovenous shunt.
b)
Treatments typically occur three times each week for three to four hours.
c)
The dialyzer is usually a hollow cylinder composed of bundles of capillary tubes.
d)
Treatment involves the introduction of a sterile dialyzing solution, which is drained after a specified time.
61.
Which of the following integumentary problems most often accompanies chronic kidney disease?
a)
Dry skin and pruritus
b)
Petechiae and purpura
c)
Hirsutism and psoriasis
d)
Alopecia
62.
In women, pelvic floor weakness may cause which type of incontinence?
a)
Urge
b)
Stress
c)
Overflow
d)
Overactive
63.
Most common uncomplicated urinary tract infections are caused by ____ that enter through the urethra.
a)
Pseudomonas
b)
Escherichia coli
c)
Staphylococcus aureus
d)
Group B Streptococcus
64.
Which of the following patients is likely at the greatest risk of developing a urinary tract infection?
a)
A pregnant woman who has been experiencing urinary frequency
b)
A patient with a diagnosis of chronic kidney disease who requires regular hemodialysis
c)
A 79-year-old patient with an indwelling catheter
d)
A confused, 81-year-old patient who is incontinent of urine
65.
The nurse reviewing laboratory reports on kidney function identifies a result that suggests decreased renal function, which is:
a)
blood urea nitrogen (BUN), 10.5 mg/dL.
b)
creatinine, 0.6 mg/dL.
c)
BUN, 15 mg/dL.
d)
creatinine, 2.0 mg/dL.
66.
The nurse is collecting data from a patient who complains of having urinary frequency. When reviewing the patient’s health history, the nurse would be prompted to inquire about the patient’s intake of:
a)
red meat.
b)
caffeine.
c)
over-the-counter cold remedies.
d)
tomato juice.
67.
A patient has had diagnostic tests to assess uric acid levels. The tests reveal that levels are elevated. The nurse should consider the patient’s intake of what to potentially explain excessive levels?
a)
Protein
b)
Calcium
c)
Leafy green vegetables
d)
Glucose
68.
When a 90-year-old resident in a long-term care facility becomes progressively confused and irritable, the nurse should:
a)
request an order for a urinalysis.
b)
hold antihypertensive medications.
c)
assess for fecal impaction.
d)
notify the charge nurse.
69.
Before hemodialysis, the nurse will withhold:
a)
anticoagulants.
b)
antacids.
c)
antianxiety agents.
d)
antibiotics.
70.
A creatinine clearance test is ordered for a hospitalized patient with possible renal insufficiency. Which equipment will the nurse need to obtain?
a)
Sterile specimen cup
b)
Large container for urine
c)
Foley catheter and drainage bag
d)
Towelettes for perineal cleaning
71.
A patient with diabetic nephropathy is admitted for a right renal biopsy. Immediately after the biopsy, which of these is an essential nursing action?
a)
Monitor the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine to assess renal function.
b)
Check blood glucose to assess for hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia.
c)
Insert a straight catheter to check for gross or microscopic hematuria.
d)
Apply a pressure dressing and keep the patient on the affected side for 30 to 60 minutes.
72.
A patient with a possible urinary tract infection (UTI) gives the nurse in the clinic a urine specimen that is a red-orange color. Which action should the nurse take first?
a)
Notify the patient’s health care provider.
b)
Ask the patient about use of any medications.
c)
Question the patient about any UTI risk factors.
d)
Teach about the correct procedure for midstream urine collection.
73.
Which information will the nurse include when teaching the patient with a urinary tract infection (UTI) about the use of phenazopyridine (Pyridium)?
a)
Take the medication for at least 7 days.
b)
Use sunscreen while taking the Pyridium.
c)
The urine may turn a reddish-orange color.
d)
Use the Pyridium before sexual intercourse.
74.
Which finding by the nurse for a patient admitted with glomerulonephritis indicates that treatment has been effective?
a)
The patient denies pain with voiding.
b)
The urine dipstick is negative for nitrites.
c)
Peripheral and periorbital edema is resolved.
d)
The antistreptolysin-O (ASO) titer is decreased.
75.
A patient’s renal calculus is analyzed as being very high in uric acid. To prevent recurrence of stones, the nurse teaches the patient to avoid eating
a)
milk and dairy products.
b)
legumes and dried fruits.
c)
organ meats and sardines.
d)
spinach, chocolate, and tea.
76.
To prevent the recurrence of renal calculi, the nurse teaches the patient to
a)
use a filter to strain all urine.
b)
avoid dietary sources of calcium.
c)
drink diuretic fluids such as coffee.
d)
have 2000 to 3000 mL of fluid a day.
77.
A 78-year-old who has been admitted to the hospital with dehydration is confused and incontinent of urine. Which nursing action will be best to include in the plan of care?
a)
Apply absorbent incontinent pads.
b)
Restrict fluids after the evening meal.
c)
Insert an indwelling catheter until the symptoms have resolved.
d)
Assist the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours during the day.
78.
When assessing the patient who has a lower urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse will initially ask about
a)
nausea.
b)
flank pain.
c)
poor urine output.
d)
pain with urination.
79.
A patient who is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome has 3+ ankle and leg edema and ascites. Which nursing diagnosis is a priority for the patient?
a)
Excess fluid volume related to low serum protein levels
b)
Activity intolerance related to increased weight and fatigue
c)
Disturbed body image related to peripheral edema and ascites
d)
Altered nutrition: less than required related to protein restriction
80.
A patient with renal calculi is hospitalized with gross hematuria and severe colicky left flank pain. Which nursing action will be of highest priority at this time?
a)
Encourage oral fluid intake.
b)
Administer prescribed analgesics.
c)
Monitor temperature every 4 hours.
d)
Give antiemetics as needed for nausea.
81.
A patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has an arterial blood pH of 7.30. The nurse will assess the patient for
a)
vasodilation.
b)
poor skin turgor.
c)
bounding pulses.
d)
rapid respirations.
82.
When caring for a patient with a left arm arteriovenous fistula, which action will the nurse include in the plan of care to maintain the patency of the fistula?
a)
Check the fistula site for a bruit and thrill.
b)
Assess the rate and quality of the left radial pulse.
c)
Compare blood pressures in the left and right arms.
d)
Irrigate the fistula site with saline every 8 to 12 hours.
83.
Which action by a patient who is using peritoneal dialysis (PD) indicates that the nurse should provide more teaching about PD?
a)
The patient slows the inflow rate when experiencing pain.
b)
The patient leaves the catheter exit site without a dressing.
c)
The patient plans 30 to 60 minutes for a dialysate exchange.
d)
The patient cleans the catheter while taking a bath every day.
84.
During hemodialysis, a patient complains of nausea and dizziness. Which action should the nurse take first?
a)
Slow down the rate of dialysis.
b)
Obtain blood to check the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level.
c)
Check the patient’s blood pressure.
d)
Give prescribed PRN antiemetic drugs.
85.
When a patient asks what the most common type of renal stones is composed of, how should the nurse respond? The most common type of renal stone is composed of:
a)
magnesium.
b)
struvite.
c)
calcium.
d)
phosphate.
86.
While planning care for a patient with renal calculi, the nurse remembers the most important factor in renal calculus formation is:
a)
urine pH.
b)
body temperature.
c)
gender.
d)
serum mineral concentrations.
87.
A 24-year-old female is diagnosed with renal calculus that is causing obstruction. Which of the following symptoms would she most likely experience?
a)
Anuria
b)
Hematuria
c)
Pyuria
d)
Flank pain
88.
A 29-year-old female presents with cloudy urine, flank pain, hematuria, and fever. Which of the following does the nurse suspect the patient is most likely experiencing?
a)
Acute cystitis
b)
Renal calculi
c)
Chronic renal failure
d)
Postrenal renal failure
89.
A 54-year-old female is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following is a common symptom of this disease?
a)
Hematuria
b)
Dysuria
c)
Oliguria
d)
Proteinuria
90.
A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with renal failure. While the nurse is reviewing lab results, which of the following lab values would be most consistent with this diagnosis?
a)
Elevated plasma creatinine level
b)
Decreased plasma potassium level
c)
Metabolic alkalosis
d)
Increased urea clearance
91.
Anemia accompanies chronic renal failure because of:
a)
Blood loss via the urine
b)
Renal insensitivity to vitamin D
c)
Inadequate production of erythropoietin
d)
Inadequate retention of serum iron
92.
As the body breaks down protein, nitrogen wastes are broken down into urea, ammonia, and:
a)
nitrogen.
b)
uric acid.
c)
nitrates.
d)
creatinine.
93.
What should the nurse encourage, barring any other contraindication, when teaching a patient how to decrease the chance of further problems with urolithiasis?
a)
Increase his fluid intake
b)
Increase intake of dairy products
c)
Restrict his protein intake
d)
Take one baby aspirin daily
94.
The nurse assessing a patient who is taking furosemide (Lasix) finds an irregular pulse. This is likely a sign of:
a)
hypomagnesemia.
b)
hypernatremia.
c)
hypokalemia.
d)
hypercalcemia.
95.
The nurse is collecting a 24-hour urine specimen from a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. How should the nurse collect this specimen?
a)
Empty the catheter bag once a shift and place the urine in a collection container on ice.
b)
Disconnect the catheter from the tubing and drain the urine directly into the collection container.
c)
Aspirate urine from the tubing port with a sterile needle every hour and place in a collection container on ice.
d)
Place the catheter bag on ice and empty regularly into the collection bottle, which is also kept on ice.
96.
An elderly client is diagnosed with a urinary tract infection. Which of the following will the nurse most likely assess in this client?
a)
Jaundice
b)
Vomiting
c)
Poor eating habits
d)
Change in mental status
97.
The nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. Which of the following findings is consistent with this disorder?
a)
Brown urine
b)
Hip pain
c)
Hypotension
d)
Bradycardia
98.
During the admitting assessment process, a client asks, “What is oliguria?” Based on the nurse’s knowledge, the best response would be:
a)
“Oliguria is a urine output less than 50 mL in 24 hours.”
b)
“Oliguria is a urine output less than 250 mL in 24 hours.”
c)
“Oliguria is a urine output less than 400 mL in 24 hours.”
d)
“Oliguria is a decreased urine output indicative of disease.”
99.
A client has been prescribed a restricted potassium diet. An appropriate snack for the client would be:
a)
bananas
b)
applesauce
c)
orange juice
d)
dried dates
100.
A client diagnosed with chronic renal failure is prescribed a diet low in protein. The rationale for this diet is that:
a)
protein sources are broken down and converted to urea, which is then filtered by the kidney.
b)
protein sources are of low biological value.
c)
protein increases calcium and sodium levels.
d)
deficit protein metabolism breaks down muscle tissue.
Reset
