WorksheetsAnatomy Semester 1 Review
Total questions: 74
Worksheet time: 37mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Anatomy is the study of
a)
body function
b)
body structure
c)
human development
d)
disease
2.
The term pathology refers to the study of:
a)
pain and suffering
b)
disease
c)
dead people
d)
genetics
3.
Which body structure is visible from a dorsal view?
a)
nose
b)
back
c)
top of head
d)
bottom of foot
4.
The eyes are located ________to the nose.
a)
anterior
b)
inferior
c)
lateral
d)
medial
5.
The fingers are located _______ to the wrist.
a)
dorsal
b)
ventral
c)
proximal
d)
distal
6.
The midsagittal plane cuts the body into:
a)
upper and lower sections
b)
two equal left and right sections
c)
two equal front and back sections
d)
unequal left and right sections
7.
Which position requires a patient to sit?
a)
Fowler’s position
b)
supine position
c)
Trendelenburg’s position
d)
dorsal lateral recumbent position
8.
A person is lying prone in this position:
a)
supine position
b)
knee-chest position
c)
Trendelenburg position
d)
lithotomy position
9.
Moving the whole leg away from the center of the body is an example of:
a)
extension
b)
adduction
c)
flexion
d)
abduction
10.
Feet twisted toward the body are in the _______ position.
a)
extension
b)
adduction
c)
eversion
d)
inversion
11.
Which structure is considered unilateral?
a)
lungs
b)
eyes
c)
kidneys
d)
heart
12.
The _______ layer forms the outer wall of the stomach.
a)
inferior
b)
superficial
c)
visceral
d)
parietal
13.
The heart is mostly located in which quadrant?
a)
LLQ
b)
RLQ
c)
LUQ
d)
RUQ
14.
The thoracic cavity contains the following structures:
a)
heart and lungs
b)
lungs and stomach
c)
stomach and intestines
d)
reproductive system and urinary bladder
15.
The inferior part of the spinal cavity is called the ______ region.
a)
cervical
b)
thoracic
c)
sacral
d)
coccyx
16.
All matter is composed of…
a)
mass
b)
atoms
c)
peptides
d)
cells
17.
The atomic number of an atom is determined by:
a)
multiplying the mass by two
b)
counting the number of electrons
c)
counting the number of protons
d)
the number of protons added to the number of neutrons
18.
The bonding properties of an element are primarily determined by the:
a)
protons
b)
neutrons
c)
electrons
d)
atomic mass
19.
Which bond is common to all biochemicals?
a)
ionic
b)
sulfhydroxyl
c)
hydrogen
d)
covalent
20.
A chemical capable of neutralizing an acid or a base is called a(n):
a)
indicator
b)
moderator
c)
buffer
d)
catalyst
21.
A molecule with an abundance of this functional group would readily dissolve in water:
a)
hydroxyl
b)
sulfhydryl
c)
amino
d)
neutrino
22.
pH is a measure of the ________ concentration of a solution.
a)
hydrogen ion
b)
hydroxide ion
c)
electrolyte
d)
electron
23.
Which molecule is a monosaccharide or simple sugar?
a)
starch
b)
glucose
c)
lipid
d)
glycogen
24.
Human muscle stores sugars in the form of:
a)
glycogen
b)
fatty acid
c)
starch
d)
sucrose
25.
Which of these lipids act as chemical messengers in the body?
a)
triglycerides
b)
fatty acids
c)
sterols
d)
monoglycerides
26.
Fats are needed in the diet to help provide these important structural lipids:
a)
diglycerides
b)
monoglycerides
c)
saturates
d)
steroids
27.
Which essential nutrients are converted into proteins in humans?
a)
nucleic acids
b)
amino acids
c)
carbonic acids
d)
inorganic acids
28.
Peptides that carry out chemical work for the body are called?
a)
nucleosomes
b)
aminozymes
c)
enzymes
d)
albumins
29.
Monomers of nucleic acids are essential for the following role:
a)
converting into structural proteins
b)
long-term storage of body energy
c)
transmitting genetic information
d)
energy transfer
30.
Which of the following is not a common cause of molecular aging?
a)
ultraviolet (UV) light
b)
oxidation
c)
antioxidants
d)
stress on covalent bonds
31.
The ability of the body to maintain its internal environment is called:
a)
chemotaxis
b)
homeostasis
c)
catabolism
d)
enzymology
32.
Which of the following is directly above the cell level of organization?
a)
molecular level of organization
b)
organ level of organization
c)
tissue level of organization
d)
metabolic level of organization
33.
Many of the life-giving properties of water are due to this characteristic of water:
a)
It is composed of covalent bonds.
b)
It forms ionic bonds.
c)
It is made of low atomic weight elements.
d)
It has polarity.
34.
Enzymes convert ______ to _______ in the act of carrying out chemical reactions.
a)
product;substrate
b)
molecules;elements
c)
substrate;product
d)
excretions;secretions
35.
The movement of water across the cell membrane is called:
a)
dehydration
b)
hydrolysis
c)
osmosis
d)
active transport
36.
Depriving a cell of ATP would affect the following cell transport method:
a)
diffusion
b)
endocytosis
c)
passive transport
d)
osmosis
37.
A scientist notices that a molecule moved into a cell from an area of low concentration of the molecule to an area of high concentration. Which transport mechanism was observed?
a)
osmosis
b)
membrane diffusion
c)
facilitated diffusion
d)
active transport
38.
Which structure is common to bacterial and human cells?
a)
nucleus
b)
genome
c)
cell wall
d)
organelles
39.
Nicotine slows down the movement of mucus in the respiratory system. Given this information, which organelles are most likely directly affected by nicotine?
a)
flagella
b)
vesicles
c)
cilia
d)
Golgi bodies
40.
A defect of SER would directly affect the following cell function:
a)
lipid production
b)
energy release from food
c)
water balance
d)
genetic expression
41.
Which stage of respiration requires oxygen to operate?
a)
glycolysis
b)
electron transport chain
c)
Krebs cycle
d)
anaerobic respiration
42.
Sperm and eggs are produced by this type of cell division:
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
asexual reproduction
d)
clonal selection
43.
Which stage of the cell cycle occurs during interphase?
a)
anaphase
b)
metaphase
c)
G1
d)
differentiation
44.
Cuboidal cells are found in this type of tissue:
a)
epithelium
b)
muscle
c)
nerve
d)
connective
45.
Which organ system removes the bulk of the body’s nitrogen wastes?
a)
endocrine system
b)
respiratory system
c)
digestive system
d)
urinary system
46.
The outermost layer of skin called the:
a)
hypodermis
b)
dermis
c)
epidermis
d)
fascia
47.
Which of the following is not part of the integumentary system?
a)
melanocyte
b)
mucous membrane of mouth
c)
nail
d)
iris of the eye
48.
Which statement is true about the dermis?
a)
It protects underlying layers from sunlight.
b)
It provides structural strength for the skin.
c)
It contains large amounts of adipose tissue.
d)
It produces epidermis.
49.
Which skin or associated structure lacks blood vessels?
a)
epidermis
b)
dermis
c)
fascia
d)
subcutaneous layer
50.
Which layer of epidermis is composed of dead cells?
a)
stratum corneum
b)
stratum granulosum
c)
stratum spinosum
d)
stratum basale
51.
Where or when does keratinization occur?
a)
in fascia
b)
during the formation of ectoderm
c)
as epidermis cells mature
d)
as fibroblasts secrete proteins
52.
Eccrine sweat glands produce the following type(s) of secretion(s)
a)
oil
b)
wax
c)
water and salts
d)
pheromones
53.
Earwax is produced by:
a)
sebaceous glands
b)
lacrimal glands
c)
cerumenous glands
d)
eccrine sweat glands
54.
Hair is produced by the:
a)
hair cortex
b)
hair follicle
c)
hair bulb
d)
hair medulla
55.
Melanin in the integumentary system provides the following function:
a)
skin coloration
b)
protection from ultraviolet light
c)
hair coloration
d)
all of these
56.
Which of the following is not a function of blood vessels in the skin:
a)
provides nutrients for cell division
b)
regulates skin temperature
c)
carries wastes to the sweat glands
d)
all of these
57.
Nails are produced by the:
a)
nail matrix
b)
nail root
c)
nail gland
d)
keratin gland
58.
Which type of burn is defined by damage to the dermis?
a)
steam burn
b)
first-degree burn
c)
third-degree burn
d)
rope burn
59.
Birthmarks are best defined as:
a)
skin cancers
b)
benign tumors
c)
glandular tumors
d)
abnormal blood vessels of the skin
60.
The gradual loss of skin pigmentation due to melanocyte abnormalities is called:
a)
hypermelanism
b)
albinism
c)
lanugo
d)
vitiligo
61.
Which of the following bones is part of the appendicular skeleton?
a)
sphenoid
b)
clavicle
c)
sternum
d)
rib
62.
Carpals are found in this region:
a)
lower appendages
b)
upper appendages
c)
skull
d)
rib cage
63.
Which is the most superior portion of the spinal column?
a)
lumbar
b)
cervical
c)
thoracic
d)
sacral
64.
Which of the following is not a cranial bone?
a)
maxilla
b)
ethmoid
c)
occipital
d)
temporal
65.
Which bones would be directly damaged by a blow to the cheek?
a)
occipital and sphenoid
b)
zygomatic and ethmoid
c)
maxilla and zygomatic
d)
temporal and parietal
66.
Where would you look for Wormian bones?
a)
cranium
b)
pelvic girdle
c)
shoulder girdle
d)
facial bones
67.
Fusion of this type of joint would have the greatest effect on body movement:
a)
synovial
b)
suture
c)
synarthrosis
d)
diarthrosis
68.
Damage to this bone structure could restrict blood flow into a bone:
a)
sulcus
b)
foramen
c)
crest
d)
trochanter
69.
A reduction of these cells would slow bone growth and hardening in adults:
a)
osteoblasts
b)
fibrocytes
c)
osteoclasts
d)
melanocytes
70.
Which of the following bones supports more of the body’s weight than the other bones?
a)
mandible
b)
calcaneus
c)
fibula
d)
atlas
71.
Intramembraneous bone formation is most important for the development of the:
a)
upper extremities
b)
lower extremities
c)
skull
d)
lower vertebrae
72.
Bone density is likely to be lost by overactivity of these cells:
a)
osteoclasts
b)
osteocytes
c)
osteoblasts
d)
chondrocytes
73.
Which of the following conditions would require yellow marrow to be converted into red marrow?
a)
excessive blood loss from a major injury
b)
the intake of toxins that damage blood forming cells
c)
intake of too many fats in the diet
d)
starvation
74.
Aging is usually accompanied by:
a)
increased bone density
b)
increased blood flow to bones
c)
a loss of bone density
d)
rapid replacement of the joint cartilage surfaces
100 %
