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WorksheetsAP Biology 2020 Midterm Review
Total questions: 200
Worksheet time: 9hrs 58mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What does Vestigial mean?
a)
change in the heritable traits of biological populations over successive generations.
b)
(an organ or part of the body) degenerate, rudimentary, or atrophied, having become functionless in the course of evolution.
c)
is the differential survival and reproduction of individuals due to differences in phenotype
d)
things that animals eat
2.
The idea that evolution seems to occur in spurts of time.
a)
stabilizing selection
b)
directional selection
c)
disruptive selection
d)
puntuated equilibrium
3.
All of the genetic information found in a population.
a)
population
b)
genetic drift
c)
evolution
d)
gene pool
4.
The entire curve moves in one direction or the other.
a)
Stabilizing selection
b)
Disruptive selection
c)
Directional selection
5.
Favors the middle of the population.
a)
Disruptive selection
b)
Stabilizing selection
c)
Directional selection
6.
The monomer of a nucleic acid is
a)
Monosaccharide
b)
Amino Acid
c)
Nucleotide
d)
Triglyceride (3 Fatty Acids and 1 Glycerol)
7.
What are the carbohydrates in the cell membrane for?
a)
to form channels and pumps
b)
to help cells identify one another
c)
to make the membrane strong
8.
True or false: Regulating what enters and leaves the cell helps the cell maintain homeostasis.
a)
True
b)
False
9.
What type of transport is shown in the picture?
a)
Osmosis
b)
Diffusion
c)
Endocytosis
d)
Exocytosis
10.
The cell below is in a _________ solution.
a)
Hypotonic
b)
Hypertonic
c)
Isotonic
11.
If a molecule passes through a protein, but goes down a gradient, it is called
a)
active transport
b)
endocytosis
c)
facilitated diffusion
d)
exocytosis
12.
Identify the functional group:
a)
steroid
b)
phosphate
c)
carbonyl
d)
carboxyl
13.
The emergence of a new species.
a)
genetic drift
b)
extinction
c)
speciation
d)
evolution
14.
Difference in location or timing of mating, leading to speciation.
a)
geographic isolation
b)
reproductive isolation
c)
punctuated equilibrium
d)
speciation
15.
Which macromolecule is shown?
a)
phospholipid
b)
protein
c)
steroid
d)
glucose (carbohydrate)
16.
Which of these is true about how photosynthesis and respiration are related
a)
photosynthesis stores energy, Respiration releases it
b)
respiration stores energy and photosynthesis releases energy
c)
photosynthesis and respiration are the same
d)
photosynthesis and respiration are not related
17.
A horse and a donkey can successfully mate to produce offspring known as a mule. Mules are sterile . Would mules be classified as a species?
a)
Yes, mules have enough of their own traits to be considered a species.
b)
Yes, the fact that have different number of chromosomes makes them a different species
c)
No, mules are too similar to the parent species
d)
No, due to their inability to reproduce successfully.
18.
Which of the following is not in Hardy-Weinberg equation?
a)
a population with non-random mating
b)
a population in which the allele frequencies do not change over time
c)
p2+2pq+q2=1
d)
a population undergoing natural selection
19.
Which of the following is an example of gene flow?
a)
A subordinate wolf successfully challenges the alpha male and mates with pack females
b)
A deer picks up spores from a plant as it grazes and deposits them next to that plant.
c)
A young stallion is driven out of its herd by the alpha stallion and begins its own herd in another location
d)
All of these answers
20.
A sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base form the building blocks of which organic compound?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
nucleic acids
c)
lipids
d)
proteins
21.
Lipids are made up of which of the following?
a)
glycerol and fatty acids
b)
glycerol and monolipids
c)
fatty acids and phosolipids
d)
amino acids and nucleotides
22.
The following molecule is a monomer of carbohydrates. What is it?
a)
nucleotide
b)
amino acid
c)
glucose
d)
fatty acid
23.
The homozygous recessive phenotype in a population occurs at a 53% frequency. What is the frequence of the dominant allele?
a)
.53
b)
.73
c)
.27
d)
1
24.
Which macromolecule is made of simple and complex sugars?
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
carbohydrates
d)
nucleic acids
25.
Which macromolecule stores energy, insulates us, and makes up the cell membrane?
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
carbohydrates
d)
nucleic acids
26.
Which are enzymes?
a)
simple carbohydrates
b)
proteins that speed up chemical reactions
c)
lipids that make up the cell membrane
d)
a building block of DNA
27.
A liquid with a pH of 4 is _x more concentrated in H+ than a liquid with a pH of 6.
a)
10
b)
100
c)
1,000
d)
10,000
28.
Which of the following is correct about water?
a)
it is a polar molecule and contains polar bonds
b)
it is a polar molecule and contains non-polar bonds
c)
it is a non-polar molecule and contains polar bonds
d)
it is a non-polar molecule and contains non-polar bonds
29.
What molecule is this?
a)
this is a monosaccharide
b)
this is a polysaccharide
c)
this is a protein
d)
this is a lipid
30.
Which of the following is the process used to bond the monomers together?
a)
Hydrolysis
b)
Water Removal
c)
Dehydration Synthesis
d)
Water Synthesis
31.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
32.
Which letter represents the activation energy of a non-catalyzed reaction?
a)
a
b)
b
c)
c
d)
d
33.
All of the following are important characteristics of water in biology EXCEPT which?
a)
cohesion provides surface tension
b)
it is a nonpolar solvent
c)
it is a medium for complex chemical reactions in organisms
d)
it has a high specific heat that stabilizes ambient temperature
34.
ATP synthesis
a)
chloroplast
b)
mitochondria
c)
lysosome
d)
ribosome
35.
Which of these is NOT a cell junction?
a)
Plasmodesmata
b)
desmosome
c)
tight junction
d)
proteoglycan
36.
cristae
a)
mitochondria
b)
chloroplast
c)
ribosome
d)
lysosome
37.
Microtubles make up all of the following structures except ____.
a)
cilia
b)
centrioles
c)
flagella
d)
mitchondria
38.
Genetic variation ____.
a)
is created by the direct action of natural selection
b)
arises in response to changes in the environment
c)
must be present in a population before natural selection can act upon the population
d)
tends to be reduced by when diploid organisms produce gametes
39.
Mutation is the only evolutionary mechanism that ____.
a)
does little to change allele frequencies
b)
is more important in eukaryotes than in prokaryotes
c)
happens in all populations
d)
has no effect on genetic variation
40.
Which of the following is a fitness trade-off (compromise)?
a)
In some hornbill species, the male helps seal the female in a tree with her nest until the young are ready to fledge.
b)
Hummingbirds are the best pollinators of certain flowers, but bees are the best pollinators for orchids.
c)
The strong, thick beak of a woodpecker helps it find insects in trees.
d)
Turtle shells provide protection but are heavy and burdensome when moving.
41.
A farmer uses triazine herbicide to control pigweed in his field. For the first few years, the triazine works well and almost all the pigweed dies; but after several years, the farmer sees more and more pigweed. Which of these explanations best explains what happened?
a)
The herbicide company lost its triazine formula and started selling poor-quality triazine.
b)
Natural selection caused the pigweed to mutate, creating a new triazine-resistant species.
c)
Triazine-resistant pigweed has less-efficient photosynthesis metabolism.
d)
Triazine-resistant weeds were more likely to survive and reproduce.
42.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristics of a stable, non-evolving population in Hardy-Weinberg
a)
the population is small
b)
there is no migration in or out of the population
c)
there is no natural selection in the population
d)
mating in the population is random
43.
Why would a population with a large amount of genetic variation be more likely to survive a severe climate change in its environment?
a)
Individuals will only create offspring well-suited to the climate change
b)
The individuals would produce more offspring
c)
Individuals better suited to the new climate will help less-suited individuals survive
d)
Some individuals will posses traits better suited to the new climate and be more likely to pass them on
44.
Looking at the image in the background, which species is most closely related to species W?
a)
V is most closely related to species W.
b)
X is most closely related to species W.
c)
Y & Z are equally closely related to species W.
d)
It is not possible to say from this tree.
45.
Over time, the movement of people on Earth has steadily increased. This has altered the course of human evolution by increasing
a)
nonrandom mating
b)
geographic isolation
c)
genetic drift
d)
gene flow
46.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life?
1. formation of protobionts
2. synthesis of organic monomers
3. synthesis of organic polymers
4. formation of DNA-based genetic systems
1. formation of protobionts
2. synthesis of organic monomers
3. synthesis of organic polymers
4. formation of DNA-based genetic systems
a)
1, 2, 3, 4
b)
1, 3, 2, 4
c)
2, 3, 1, 4
d)
2, 3, 4, 1
47.
Which statement best describes the modes of selection depicted in the figure?
a)
stabilizing selection, changing the average color of the population over time
b)
directional selection, favoring the average individual
c)
directional selection, changing the average age color of the population over time
d)
disruptive selection, favoring the average individual
48.
Northern elephant seals have reduced genetic variation. Hunting reduced their population size to as few as 20 individuals at the end of the 19th century. Their population has rebounded to over 30,000 they have much less genetic variation than a population of southern elephant seals that was not so intensely hunted. Which agent of change is this ?
a)
Genetic Drift
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Gene Flow
d)
Mutation
49.
A common ancestor for both C and E could be at position __.
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
50.
Domesticated reindeer in western Alaska escape and mate with migrating caribou, adding the alleles for short legs and tame behavior. This is an example of ?
a)
Mutation
b)
Genetic Drift
c)
Gene pool
d)
Gene flow
51.
You look at two species and see very similar DNA. What does this likely tell you?
a)
These are the same animal.
b)
These animals have a common ancestor.
c)
These animals are not likely related.
d)
These animals are likely becoming one species.
52.
Hardy Weinberg: Within a population of butterflies, the color brown (B) is dominant over the color white (b). And, 40% of all butterflies are white. What is the % (frequency) of heterozygotes in the population?
a)
47%
b)
37%
c)
13%
d)
63%
53.
What is the rate of respiration for germinating corn at 12 degrees C between 10 and 20 minutes?
a)
0.4 ml O2 consumed per minute
b)
0.8 ml O2 consumed per minute
c)
0.04 O2 consumed per minute
d)
0.08 O2 consumed per minute
54.
What is the surface area to volume ratio of a cube shaped cell that has 2 micro meter sides?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
0.5
d)
8
57.
What is the water potential of a solution with 0.5 molar concentration of NaCl in 45 degrees C with 2 bar of pressure?
a)
- 26.4
b)
- 24.4
c)
- 28.4
d)
24.4
56.
What is the water potential of an open beaker of water with 0.5M of glucose in it? Temp = 35C
a)
- 154
b)
-25.6
c)
- 12.8
d)
-0.04
57.
What is the water potential of a solution with 0.5 molar concentration of NaCl in 45 degrees C with 2 bar of pressure?
a)
- 26.4
b)
- 24.4
c)
- 28.4
d)
24.4
58.
Which of the following structure is where photosynthesis occurs in the cell?
a)
nucleus
b)
chloroplast
c)
mitochondria
d)
endoplasmic reticulum
59.
Where do substrates bind on an enzyme?
a)
voltage-gated channels
b)
surface receptor
c)
calcium channels
d)
active site
60.
Enzymes are capable of increasing the rate of a chemical reaction within a living cell. Enzymes accomplish this through which of the following means?
a)
reducing the number of products
b)
reducing the activation energy
c)
increasing the temperature of the cell
d)
increasing the concentration of reactants
61.
Any substance that is acted upon by an enzyme is called a(n)?
a)
Coenzyme
b)
Substrate
c)
Vitamin
d)
Polypeptide
62.
Based on the graph, what temperature does this enzyme work best?
a)
15 C
b)
40 C
c)
30 C
63.
Which of the following statement suggests that the shape of an enzyme determines the enzyme's function?
a)
enzymes can operate in a wide range of conditions
b)
enzymes are specific to a substrate
c)
enzymes are activated by neighboring molecules
64.
Which statement explains the effect of the inhibitor?
a)
The inhibitor changes the shape of the active site preventing the substrate from attaching.
b)
the inhibitor causes the substrate to attach to the active site
c)
the inhibitor has no effect on the enzyme
65.
Which line represents an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?
a)
Line 1
b)
Line 2
66.
Organic molecules that temporarily bind to enzymes and enhance an enzyme's ability are called:
a)
CoFactors
b)
CoEnzymes
c)
Allosteric Inhibitors
d)
Allosteric Activators
67.
A molecule binds to an enzyme and opens the active site so it can bind to the substrate. This is called:
a)
Allosteric Activation
b)
Allosteric Inhibition
c)
Competitive Activation
d)
Competitive Inhibition
68.
When a molecule can occupy the same active site as the substrate, a situation called __________________ can result
a)
Competitive lnhibition
b)
Allosteric Regulation
c)
Non-Competitive Inhibition
d)
Feedback Inhibition
69.
Most enzymes have the ending:
a)
-ase
b)
-ose
c)
-ic acid
d)
-ate
70.
At high temperatures enzyme activity declines because of:
a)
Denaturation
b)
Decreased Kinetic Motion
c)
Increased H-Bonding
d)
Dissociation of Ionic Compounds
71.
Energy is released from ATP when
a)
a phosphate group is added
b)
adenine bonds to ribose
c)
ATP is exposed to sunlight
d)
a phosphate group is removed
72.
What do all cells use for energy?
a)
Carbs
b)
Protein
c)
Fat
d)
ATP
73.
What does an exergonic reaction do with energy?
a)
Releases Energy
b)
Stores Energy
74.
What does an endergonic reaction do with energy?
a)
Released energy
b)
Stores energy
75.
The mitochondria is responsible for ...
a)
photosynthesis
b)
anaerobic respiration
c)
aerobic respiration
d)
fermentation
76.
A bacteria that has chlorophyll will be able to do
a)
photosynthesis
b)
cellular respiration
c)
osmosis
d)
activen transport
77.
Aerobic respiration is different from anaerobic respiration in that aerobic respiration needs...
a)
chlorophyll
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
glucose
d)
oxygen
78.
______________ produces the most ATP.
a)
photosnthesis
b)
aerobic respiration
c)
anaerobic respiration
d)
glycolysis
79.
Capillary action is the result of adhesion. Which aspect of water is responsible for this?
a)
Nonpolar covalent bonds enable water to dissolve other substances.
b)
Polar covalent bonds join molecules of water to other substances.
c)
Hydrogen bonds form between water and another substance.
d)
Ionic bonds enable electrons to flow through water and into another substance.
80.
Which of the following properties of water enables molecules to cling together as they move from the roots to the leaves of plants?
a)
Water expands as it freezes.
b)
Water is an excellent solvent.
c)
Water exhibits cohesive behavior.
d)
Water moderates temperature.
81.
Large bodies of water do not quickly fluctuate, or change, in temperature. Why?
a)
Water is a solvent.
b)
Water has a high heat capacity.
c)
Water acts as a buffer.
d)
Water is non-polar.
82.
Attractions between water molecules due to polarity are called:
a)
Covalent bonds
b)
Ionic bonds
c)
Polar bonds
d)
Hydrogen bonds
83.
Why does ice float?
a)
As water freezes, it expands and its density decreases.
b)
As water freezes, it takes up more hydrogen from the atmosphere, causing it to have a greater buoyancy.
c)
As water freezes, air becomes trapped between the hydrogen bonds of water molecules.
d)
As water freezes, it takes up more oxygen from the atmosphere, causing it to have a greater buoyancy.
84.
Which of the following is a chemical message that usually travels through the bloodstream to target cells?
a)
hormone
b)
local regulator
c)
endocrine cell
85.
What determines whether a signal molecule binds on the surface or enters the cell?
a)
size
b)
polarity
c)
ability to cross the membrane
d)
all of these are correct
86.
What determines whether a cell is a target cell for a particular signal molecule?
a)
phosphorylation cascade
b)
cAMP
c)
signal receptors
d)
phosphatase
87.
Signal amplification is most often achieved by
a)
an enzyme cascade
b)
binding of multiple signals
c)
branching pathways
d)
action of adenylyl cyclase
88.
Peptide bonds are formed when _ link to form a polymer.
a)
nucleic acids
b)
amino acids
c)
monosaccharides
d)
polypeptides
89.
DNA & RNA are examples of this type of macromolecule.
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
90.
Which of the following is not a lipid?
a)
triglyceride
b)
phospholipids
c)
steroids
d)
enzymes
91.
Which of the following is not an RNA nitrogenous base?
a)
Adenine
b)
Thymine
c)
Guanine
d)
Uracil
92.
What makes up a protein?
a)
Monosaccharide
b)
Amino Acid
c)
Disaccharide
d)
Fatty Acid
93.
Which of the following explains how natural selection causes a trait to become predominant in a population?
a)
Individuals with traits that are favorable to the environment reproduce more.
b)
Traits of an individual change in order to adapt to changes in enviornment.
c)
organisms select which traits they wish to inherit
d)
all of these answers
94.
Why would a population with a large amount of genetic variation be more likely to survive a severe climate change in its environment?
a)
Individuals will only create offspring well-suited to the climate change
b)
The individuals would produce more offspring
c)
Individuals better suited to the new climate will help less-suited individuals survive
d)
Some individuals will posses traits better suited to the new climate and be more likely to pass them on
95.
A newly identified organism has four limbs and amniotic eggs with shells. Which organism do they most likely share a common ancestor with?
a)
ray-finned fish
b)
birds
c)
rodents
d)
amphibians
96.
Using the cladogram: a common ancestor of amphibians and ray-finned fish would have
a)
a bony skeleton
b)
four limbs
c)
scaly skin
d)
eggs with shells
97.
The wing of a bat and a humans' arm have different functions and appear very different. Yet, the underlying anatomy is basically the same. therefore, these structures are examples of
a)
geographic isolation
b)
analogous structures
c)
homology
d)
reproductive isolation
98.
Animals heavily rely on this mechanism to reduce, or dampen, a stimulus which then returns the body to set point.
a)
Homeostasis
b)
Negative Feedback
c)
Positive Feedback
d)
Circadian Rythm
99.
The three stages of cell signalling are
a)
paracrine, local, and synaptic
b)
reception, transduction, and response
c)
transcription, translation, and folding
d)
alpha, beta, and gamma
100.
Each of the following numbered processes are involved in signal transduction pathways:
I. Response
II. Amplification
III. Reception
IV. Transduction
Which of the following represents the sequence of events in a typical signal transduction pathway?
I. Response
II. Amplification
III. Reception
IV. Transduction
Which of the following represents the sequence of events in a typical signal transduction pathway?
a)
I, II, III, IV
b)
III, I, IV, II
c)
II, IV, I, III
d)
III, IV, II, I
101.
G proteins are a family of proteins involved in transmitting chemical signals originating from outside a cell into the inside of the cell. G proteins function as molecular switches.
Which of the following best describes the role in which the G protein is most intimately involved in the process shown above?
Which of the following best describes the role in which the G protein is most intimately involved in the process shown above?
a)
Production of the ligand molecule.
b)
Reception of the signal.
c)
Transduction of the signal.
d)
Production of response to signal.
102.
When epinephrine binds to cardiac (heart) muscle cells, it speeds their contraction. When it binds to muscle cells of the small intestine, it inhibits their contraction. Which of the following best accounts for the fact that the same hormone can have different effects on muscle cells?
a)
Cardiac cells have more receptors for epinephrine than do intestinal cells
b)
Epinephrine circulates to the heart first and thus is in higher concentration around cardiac cells
c)
The two types of muscle cells have different signal transduction pathways for epinephrine and thus have different cellular responses
d)
Cardiac muscle is stronger than intestinal muscle and thus has a stronger response to epinephrine
103.
Which of the following is an example of a second messenger?
a)
cAMP
b)
GTP
c)
insulin
d)
epinephrine
104.
Epinephrine (also known as adrenaline or adrenalin) is a hormone and a neurotransmitter. The model for the action of Epinephrine is shown below.
Which of the following molecules act as a second messenger in the cascade by which epinephrine stimulates the activation of the enzyme glycogen phosphorylase?
Which of the following molecules act as a second messenger in the cascade by which epinephrine stimulates the activation of the enzyme glycogen phosphorylase?
a)
Adenosine
b)
Adenylyl cyclase
c)
Citric acid
d)
Cyclic AMP
105.
Which of the following can activate a protein by transferring a phosphate group to it?
a)
cAMP
b)
G Protein
c)
protein kinase
d)
protein phosphatase
106.
A small signal molecule that specifically binds to a different, larger molecule is called a
a)
ligand
b)
substrate
c)
kinase
d)
receptor
107.
What are the properties of a signal molecule that is most likely to bind to a receptor that is on the outside of the cell membrane?
a)
small, nonpolar, hydrophobic
b)
large, polar, hydrophilic
c)
small, polar, hydrophilic
d)
large, nonpolar, hydrophobic
108.
Which of the following is a type of signal molecule that can pass through the lipid bilayer and bind to a receptor within the cytoplasm?
a)
protein
b)
ion
c)
steroid
d)
water
109.
Binding of a signal molecule to which type of receptor leads to a change in the concentration of ions on opposite sides of the plasma membrane?
a)
receptor tyrosine kinase
b)
g-protein linked receptor
c)
ligand-gated ion channel
d)
second messenger
110.
Which of the following is the best evidence that cell communication evolved early in the history of living things?
a)
they have receptors on the external surface of the cell membrane
b)
they have receptors in the cytoplasm of cells
c)
they can travel long distances
d)
they are found in primitive cells
111.
What does a cell require to respond to a certain signal molecule?
a)
receptor for the signal
b)
scaffold protein
c)
inactive enzyme
d)
phosphorylation cascade
112.
6. The formation ½ A2 + 2 B2 + C --> CAB4 has an enthalpy of formation of -104 kJ and a change in entropy of -60.8 J/K at 30 °C. What is the free energy and spontaneity of the reaction?
a)
-85.6 kJ, spontaneous
b)
-18.3 kJ, not spontaneous
c)
+18.3 kJ, spontaneous
d)
+85.6 kJ, not spontaneous
113.
Which Hardy-Weinberg equation represents the genotype frequencies in a population?
a)
p + q = 1
b)
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
c)
p2 + pq2 + q2 = 1
d)
p + 2pq + q3 = 1
114.
Which Hardy-Weinberg factor represents the frequency of heterozygous individuals in a population?
a)
p2
b)
2pq
c)
q2
d)
p2 + 2pq
115.
A population of frogs has 37 individuals who are brown in color and 194 individuals who express the dominant green color. What is the dominant allele frequency for this population?
a)
0.2
b)
0.4
c)
0.6
d)
0.8
116.
When a population is at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the allele frequencies should remain constant. Which of the following populations is most likely experiencing Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
a)
When a population is at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the allele frequencies should remain constant. Which of the following populations is most likely experiencing Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
b)
In a spider population, the males with the most intricate courtship dance get selected as mates more quickly than other male spiders.
c)
In a mosquito population, being heterozygous for a given trait makes the individuals resistant to four viral infections
d)
In a large moth population, both red and orange moths are consistently abundant
117.
If a population has the following genotype frequencies: AA = 0.42, Aa = 0.46, and aa = 0.12, what are the allele frequencies?
a)
A = 0.42, a = 0.12
b)
A = 0.6, a = 0.4
c)
A = 0.65, a = 0.35
d)
A = 0.84, a = 0.24
118.
Genetic drift is likely to be seen in a population
a)
That has a low mutation rate
b)
In which natural selection is occurring
c)
That is very small
d)
For which environmental conditions are changing
119.
Gene flow involves
a)
Natural disasters killing most of the members of a population
b)
Individuals moving into and out of the population
c)
Selective mating
d)
Small changes because of the environment
120.
The Hardy-Weinberg Model is?
a)
Available at local hobby stores and retailers throughout the Greater Cleveland area.
b)
A mathematical tool that biologists can use to predict allele frequencies and determine whether or not evolution is occurring within a population.
c)
Always occurring within populations of organisms in nature.
d)
Only useful in the lab and cannot be practically applied to real-world populations of organisms.
121.
An ecologist observes a population of snakes on an island for a month every year. After the eleventh month, he sees the snake population has been decimated, and decides to wait for the snakes to repopulate before coming back for further observation. When he returns five years later, he finds a very homogenous-looking population of snakes. What is the name of the effect he observed?
a)
Genetic Drift
b)
Founder Effect
c)
Disaster effect
d)
Bottleneck effect
122.
Evidence of evolution that shows a common ancestry when structures are the same, but they have different functions (see diagram).
a)
vestigial structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
adaptive radiation structures
d)
analogous structures
123.
When scientists use DNA to study evolution, what type of evidence for evolution is this?
a)
comparative anatomy
b)
embryology
c)
fossil record
d)
molecular
124.
What kind of structures are these?
a)
homologous
b)
temporal
c)
analogous
d)
vestigial
125.
Which of the following is found in eukaryotic cells but NOT prokaryotic cells?
a)
Cell membrane
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Ribosomes
d)
DNA
126.
You might think of me as the trash collector, but recycler is maybe more accurate. What am I?
a)
cytoplasm
b)
lysosome
c)
vacuole
d)
ribosome
127.
Where are proteins made?
a)
Golgi body
b)
Mitoichondrion
c)
Chromosomes
d)
Ribosomes
128.
Produces hormones and lipid molecules for cells and also detoxifies substances that enter the cell
a)
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
b)
rough endoplasmic reticulum
c)
nucleus
d)
ribosome
129.
The two kinds of cells are Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes. How are they different?
a)
Prokaryotes have a nucleus.
b)
Eukaryotes have a nucleus.
c)
Prokaryotes are plant cells.
d)
There is no difference.
130.
The theory of Endosymbiosis explains
a)
The origin of eukaryotes
b)
How species develop
c)
How bacteria live
d)
Why cells rely on one another
131.
What combination is best for cells?
a)
large size; small surface area to volume ratio
b)
large size; large surface area to volume ratio
c)
small size; small surface area to volume ratio
d)
small size; large surface area to volume ratio
132.
Which of the following is an example of an organism with prokaryotic cells?
a)
bacteria
b)
fungi
c)
plant
d)
animal
133.
Which of the following is a characteristic of an eukaryotic cell?
a)
simple
b)
lacking a nucleus
c)
have specialized structures called organelles
d)
smaller the prokaryotic cells
134.
Which pair of organelles came from prokaryotic cells that developed a symbiotic relationship within other cells?
a)
cell membrane and cell wall
b)
ribosomes and lysosomes
c)
mitochondria and chloroplasts
d)
endoplasmic reticulum and golig body
135.
What is the predominant pathway for a protein that is manufactured to be secreted from a cell?
a)
Endoplasmic Reticulum →Golgi Apparatus→Vesicle
b)
Golgi Apparatus→Lysosome→Vacuole
c)
Nucleus→Endoplasmic Reticulum→Plasma Membrane
d)
Vacuole→Lysosome→Mitochondria
136.
Which of the following are prokaryotes and have members that could survive extreme temperatures?
a)
Eubacteria
b)
Protista
c)
Fungi
d)
Archaebacteria
137.
Which way would the purple molecules move through the semi-permeable membrane?
a)
From the A side to the B-side
b)
From the B side to the A side
c)
none of the purple molecules would move
d)
they would move equally back and forth in a state of dynamic equilibrium
138.
A hypertonic solution has a _____ concentration of solute than the interior of the cell and a cell will ______ when placed into this solution.
a)
lower; shrink
b)
lower; swell
c)
higher; shrink
d)
higher; swell
139.
When cells are placed in a __________ solution they begin to swell.
a)
Hypertonic
b)
Isotonic
c)
Hypotonic
d)
Equalized
140.
The movement of molecules against a concentration gradient
a)
simple diffusion
b)
facilitated diffusion
c)
active transport
d)
osmosis
141.
What keeps this plant cell from bursting?
a)
the cell wall
b)
it's vacuole
c)
the membrane
d)
the nucleus
142.
The sodium-potassium pumps requires energy to move ions across the cell membrane against their concentration gradient so it is a type of
a)
active transport
b)
osmosis
c)
diffusion
d)
facilitated diffusion
143.
In animal cells, what molecule aids in cell fluidity and flexibility?
a)
Protein
b)
Polysaccharide
c)
Triglyceride
d)
Cholesterol
144.
How many degrees of freedom will be present?
a)
4
b)
5
c)
6
d)
7
145.
The table shows the number or babies born on each day of the week. Is there evidence that births are more likely on specific days of the week?
a)
yes, the p value is greater than .05
b)
no evidence, the p value is less than .05
c)
yes, the p value is less than .05
d)
no evidence, the p value is greater than .05
146.
The diagram above shows an embryo of different vertebrates at different stages of development. Which field of study would support the similarities in development as evidence for evolution?
a)
comparative biochemistry
b)
paleontology
c)
comparative biogeography
d)
comparative embryology
147.
When scientists compare animals currently living on different continents, they often find those with similar characteristics, who are not actually close relatives, living in similar environmental conditions even though they are geographically very distant. One example is the Anteater/Armadillos of the Americas and the Pangolin of Africa. What can we deduce from this evidence?
a)
Living things can adapt similarly to similar environments over time.
b)
Living things do not change over time
c)
They must all have the same recent common ancestor
d)
I don’t know
148.
What is the name of this molecule?
a)
amino acid
b)
nucleotide
c)
monosaccharide
d)
triglyceride
149.
The process/reaction used to link compounds/monomers together. Releases water.
a)
Dehydration
b)
Hydrolysis
c)
Enzomatic
d)
Tetratonic
150.
The process used to split polymers; this is done by adding water
a)
Dehydration
b)
Hydrolysis
c)
Enzomatic
d)
Tetratonic
151.
What is the role of the spindle during mitosis?
a)
It divides the cell in half.
b)
It duplicates the DNA.
c)
It breaks down the nuclear membrane.
d)
It helps separate the chromosomes.
152.
If an organism’s diploid number is 12, its haploid number is
a)
6.
b)
12.
c)
24.
d)
3.
153.
Gametes are produced by the process of
a)
meiosis.
b)
mitosis.
c)
replication.
d)
crossing-over.
154.
Unlike mitosis, meiosis results in the formation of
a)
2N daughter cells.
b)
haploid cells.
c)
body cells.
d)
diploid cells.
155.
Which of the following is a correct statement about the events of the cell cycle?
a)
DNA replicates during cytokinesis
b)
Little happens during the G1 and G2 phases
c)
Interphase consists of the G1, S, and G2 phases
d)
The M phase is usually the longest phase
156.
How do the daughter cells at the end of mitosis and cytokinesis compare with their parent cell when it was in G1 of the cell cycle?
a)
The daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of
DNA.
DNA.
b)
The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and the same amount
of DNA.
of DNA.
c)
The daughter cells have half the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of
DNA.
DNA.
d)
The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of
DNA.
DNA.
157.
The formation of a cell plate is beginning across the middle of a cell and nuclei are re-forming at
opposite ends of the cell. What kind of cell is this?
opposite ends of the cell. What kind of cell is this?
a)
a plant cell in metaphase
b)
an animal cell undergoing cytokinesis
c)
a plant cell undergoing cytokinesis
d)
an animal cell in metaphase
158.
Cells that are in a nondividing state are in which phase?
a)
G1
b)
G2
c)
S
d)
G0
159.
Which of the following is a protein maintained at constant levels throughout the cell cycle that
requires cyclin to become catalytically active?
requires cyclin to become catalytically active?
a)
Cdk
b)
cyclin
c)
protein kinase
d)
MPF
160.
DNA is replicated at this time of the cell cycle:
a)
S
b)
G1
c)
M
d)
G2
161.
Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that show fluctuations in
concentration during the cell cycle, are called
concentration during the cell cycle, are called
a)
kinetochores.
b)
cyclins.
c)
centrioles.
d)
proton pumps.
162.
Asexual reproduction results in identical offspring unless which of the following occurs?
a)
Natural selection
b)
Cloning
c)
Crossing over
d)
Mutation
163.
Which of these statements is false?
a)
In humans, the 23rd pair, the sex chromosomes, determines whether the person is
female (XX) or male (XY).
female (XX) or male (XY).
b)
In humans, each of the 22 maternal autosomes has a homologous paternal
chromosome.
chromosome.
c)
Single, haploid (n) sets of chromosomes in ovum and sperm unite during
fertilization, forming a diploid (2n), single-celled zygote.
fertilization, forming a diploid (2n), single-celled zygote.
d)
At sexual maturity, ovaries and testes produce diploid gametes by meiosis.
164.
Which of the following happens at the conclusion of meiosis I?
a)
The chromosome number per cell is conserved.
b)
Sister chromatids are separated.
c)
Homologous chromosomes are separated.
d)
Four daughter cells are formed.
165.
Chiasmata are what we see under a microscope that let us know which of the following is occurring?
a)
Crossing over
b)
Anaphase II
c)
Meiosis II
d)
e. Separation of homologs
166.
A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is
a)
a somatic cell of a female.
b)
a somatic cell of a male.
c)
an egg.
d)
a sperm.
167.
Meiosis produces
a)
Body cells
b)
Somatic
c)
Gametes
d)
Skin cells
168.
During which stage does crossing over take place?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
169.
The result of meiosis is:
a)
two diploid cells
b)
two haploid cells
c)
four diploid cells
d)
four haploid cells
170.
When an area of a chromatid is exchanged with the matching area on a chromatid of its homologous chromosome, _________________ occurs
a)
crossing over
b)
mutagenesis
c)
hybridization
d)
fertilization
171.
What phase is represented?
a)
metaphase 1
b)
metaphase 2
c)
anaphase 1
d)
anaphase 2
172.
Meiosis makes sperm and egg cells. In humans, sperm and egg cells each have _____ chromosomes. Therefore a fertilized human egg cell (sperm and egg cell combined) would create a cell with _____ chromosomes.
a)
23, 46
b)
46, 23
c)
2, 4
d)
50, 100
173.
What is the next phase of mitosis?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
174.
Name the previous phase.
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
175.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
176.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
177.
The organelle that helps in cell division and produces spindle fibers.
a)
Chromosome
b)
Centriole
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Chloroplast
178.
What is the correct order of the cell cycle?
a)
PMACTI
b)
IPMATC
c)
IPATC
d)
CTAMPI
179.
What is the end product of Mitosis?
a)
One daughter cell
b)
Two identical daughter cells
c)
Two different daughter cells
d)
Three identical daughter cells
180.
The replication of DNA is being affected in a cell, which phase is responsible for this change?
a)
G1
b)
S phase
c)
G2
d)
Mitosis
181.
What is cancer?
a)
A polypeptide
b)
Regular cell growth
c)
Controlled cell division
d)
Unregulated cell growth and division
182.
In which phase one can observe the chromosomes aligned in the equatorial line?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
183.
In mitosis, if the parent cell is 2n, what are the daughter cells going to be?
a)
2n
b)
4n
c)
1n
d)
6n
184.
In meiosis, if the regular cell is 2n, what are the gametes going to be?
a)
2n
b)
4n
c)
1n
d)
10n
185.
During which phase are the chromosomes pulled away to opposite poles?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
186.
What is the purpose of Mitosis?
a)
To produce gametes
b)
Sexual Reproduction
c)
To cause mutations
d)
To heal, grow and replace cells.
187.
What is the purpose of Meiosis?
a)
To heal, grow and replace cells
b)
To produce two identical daughter cells
c)
To produce cancer
d)
To produce gametes for sexual reproduction
188.
Meiosis is responsible for:
a)
Staying the same
b)
Similar cells
c)
Creating identical cells
d)
Genetic Diversity
189.
In Meiosis, the chromosomes go through crossing over, this leads to:
a)
Genetic variation
b)
Identical daughter cells
c)
To replication of genes
d)
No me acuerdo sir
190.
What are STEM cells?
a)
Cells that only cause cancer
b)
Cells that can specialize into any other cell
c)
Cells that divide uncontrollably and always cause tumors
d)
Cells that take cellfies
191.
Crossing over involves:
a)
synapsis
b)
formation of a tetrad
c)
alignment of homologous chromosomes
d)
all of the above
192.
When a chromosome is NOT dividing, what form does it take?
a)
chromatid
b)
chromatin
c)
chromosome
d)
centromere
193.
The point of attachment between two sister chromatids is called
a)
kinetochore
b)
centromere
c)
chromosome
d)
spindle
194.
Why do cells such as neurons divide very rarely?
a)
They no longer have active nuclei
b)
They have entered G0
c)
they can no longer break down cyclins
d)
They no longer produce MPF
195.
What two components make an active MPF
a)
a growth factor and a mitotic factor
b)
ATP synthetase and a protease
c)
cyclin and tubulin
d)
cyclin and a cyclin-dependent kinase
196.
Cells from cancerous tumors usually have an unusual number of chromosomes, and unusual looking chromosomes. What could explain this?
a)
cancer cells are in G0
b)
cancer cells are arrested in the S phase
c)
cell cycle check points are not in place
d)
transformation introduces new chromosomes to cells
197.
The stages of mitosis in order
a)
Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase
b)
Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase
c)
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
d)
Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase
198.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
199.
Which molecule triggers the cell to pass the G2 checkpoint and enter mitosis?
a)
PDGF
b)
MPF
c)
cyclin
d)
cdk
200.
G1 is associated with what event?
a)
normal growth and cell function
b)
DNA replication
c)
The beginning of mitosis
d)
breakdown of the nuclear membrane
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