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WorksheetsRad Path Midterm Chapters 5-7
Total questions: 140
Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following are signs/symptoms of esophageal atresia?
a)
Salivation
b)
Choking
c)
Cyanosis
d)
All of the above
2.
Which of the following is the most common type of bowel atresia?
a)
Duodenal atresia
b)
Jejunal atresia
c)
Ileal atresia
d)
Colonic atresia
3.
Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) is classified as a(n) _____ condition of the GI system.
a)
congenital
b)
degenerative
c)
inflammatory
d)
neurologic
4.
When imaging an infant with suspected malrotation, a(n) _____ examination should be performed and is considered the gold standard.
a)
transabdominal ultrasound
b)
small bowel follow-through
c)
upper GI
d)
contrast-enhanced CT
5.
If left untreated, Hirschsprung disease can progress to:
a)
bacterial overgrowth.
b)
colonic distention.
c)
electrolyte imbalances.
d)
all of the above.
6.
In the condition of carbohydrate intolerance, the small bowel lacks enough of the enzyme:
a)
lactase.
b)
lipase.
c)
amylase.
d)
lactose.
7.
Currently, _____ is the most accurate imaging examination for evaluating patients who do not have a clear clinical diagnosis of acute appendicitis.
a)
abdominal radiography
b)
computed tomography (CT)
c)
magnetic resonance enterography (MRE)
d)
colonoscopy
8.
A less common type of hiatal hernia is the _____ type.
a)
rolling
b)
sliding
c)
paraesophageal
d)
both a and c
9.
Abdominal radiography is of limited value in cases of diverticulitis unless diagnosing for suspected complications of:
a)
pneumoperitoneum.
b)
obstruction.
c)
both a and c.
d)
none of the above.
10.
Colorectal cancers are the _____ most common gastrointestinal cancer in the United States.
a)
first
b)
second
c)
third
d)
none of the above
11.
Which of the following is currently the standard imaging procedure for staging superficial rectal carcinomas?
a)
Virtual colonoscopy acquired by computed tomography (CT)
b)
Magnetic resonance colonography (MRC)
c)
Digital rectal examination
d)
Transrectal ultrasound (TRUS)
12.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of ultrasound over other imaging modalities in evaluation of the gastrointestinal tract?
a)
Ultrasound provides the opportunity to biopsy during the sonographic procedure.
b)
The examination sensitivity is not highly dependent on the skill of the sonographer.
c)
Abdominal sonographic investigation is very effective in the obese population.
d)
All of the above statements are true.
13.
Which of the following nuclear medicine procedures is performed to detect the presence of Helicobacter pylori in patients with a suspected gastric ulcer?
a)
GI bleed scans
b)
Gastric emptying scans
c)
Urea breath test
d)
SPECT gastric imaging
14.
Which types of esophageal diverticula are located at the pharyngoesophageal junction at the upper-lateral aspect of the esophagus? 1. Epiphrenic 2. Killian-Jameson 3. Zenker
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2, and 3
15.
The ?olive sign? is associated with what pathologic process?
a)
Appendicitis
b)
Esophageal varices
c)
Hypertrophied pyloric stenosis
d)
Leiomyoma
16.
Which of the statements are true in reference to a mechanical bowel obstruction? 1. It occurs from a blockage of the bowel lumen. 2. It may be caused by a herniation of the bowel. 3. It may be caused by a lumen-obliteration gastrointestingal tumor.
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2, and 3
17.
Radiographically, Crohn disease can be differentiated from ulcerative colitis because:
a)
the transmural inflammation penetrates all layer of the bowel wall in Crohn disease.
b)
Crohn disease is limited to the mucosal and submucosal layers of the bowel wall.
c)
the retrograde involvement in Crohn disease rarely reaches past the terminal ileum.
d)
both b and c are .
18.
Which of the following magnetic resonance imaging techniques are used to visualize abdominal organs to differentiate pathologic processes from normal tissue? T1-weighted images 2. T2-weighted images 3. Dark lumen imaging using water as a negative contrast agent
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2, and 3
19.
Sonography has become a standard and highly accurate method for diagnosing hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) without the need for radiation exposure.
a)
True
b)
False
20.
Hirschsprung disease is an absence of neurons in the bowel wall, typically in the descending colon.
a)
True
b)
False
21.
A Meckel diverticulum is a remnant of a duct connecting the small bowel to the umbilicus in the fetus.
a)
True
b)
False
22.
Diagnosis of gluten-sensitive enteropathy is rarely confirmed by biopsy of the small bowel.
a)
True
b)
False
23.
A peptic ulcer is an erosion of the mucous membrane of the lower end of the esophagus, stomach, or duodenum.
a)
True
b)
False
24.
Esophageal varices are best demonstrated in an upright position because the lack of gravity in a recumbent position causes poor visualization.
a)
True
b)
False
25.
A gallstone ileus is an obstruction that occurs when a gallstone reaches the ileocecal valve.
a)
True
b)
False
26.
Benign tumors of the esophagus are almost always leiomyomas.
a)
True
b)
False
27.
Small bowel barium studies are the most common means of identifying small-bowel neoplasms.
a)
True
b)
False
28.
A strangulated hernia occurs when a loop of bowel passes through a constricted area that is tight enough to cut off blood supply to the bowel.
a)
True
b)
False
29.
Treatment for regional enteritis includes bowel resection in approximately 70% of cases, particularly if perforation or hemorrhage is present.
a)
True
b)
False
30.
A category 2 risk of colon cancer is defined as a high risk; it includes hereditary syndromes such as hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) and familial polyposis, or patients with a personal history of ulcerative colitis or Crohn disease.
a)
True
b)
False
31.
What two biliary ducts unite to form the common bile duct?
a)
Right and left hepatic ducts
b)
Cystic and common hepatic ducts
c)
Common hepatic and right hepatic ducts
d)
Common hepatic and main pancreatic ducts
32.
Which hormone stimulates the release of bile into the duodenum?
a)
Cholecystokinin
b)
Estrogen
c)
Testosterone
d)
Cortisol
33.
What are the specialized cells found in the endocrine portion of the pancreas?
a)
Haversian canals
b)
Nephrons
c)
Islets of Langerhans
d)
Osteoblasts
34.
Which radiographic procedure involves the insertion of a needle into the biliary tree by puncture through the abdominal wall?
a)
ERCP
b)
T-tube cholangiogram
c)
OR cholangiogram
d)
PTC
35.
Which imaging modality has almost 100% accuracy for the detection of cholelithiasis?
a)
Radiography
b)
Computed tomography
c)
Sonography
d)
Nuclear medicine
36.
The radiographic appearance of a porcelain gallbladder is often an indication of:
a)
biliary obstruction
b)
liver cirrhosis
c)
gallbladder carcinoma
d)
jaundice
37.
If a patient has hepatitis B, he or she is suffering from a(n) _____ condition.
a)
airborne
b)
bacterial
c)
traction
d)
viral
38.
The yellowish skin discoloration of jaundice is a result of:
a)
accumulation of milk calcium in the gallbladder
b)
infected fecal matter transmitted by direct contact
c)
the presence of bilirubin in the bloodstream
d)
paralysis of the small intestine
39.
Which enzyme begins to autodigest the pancreas with pancreatitis?
a)
CCK
b)
Pepsin
c)
Trypsin
d)
Glutin
40.
Which of the following statements are true regarding cholelithiasis? A. It may cause cholecystitis. B. It is more common in women who have given birth to children. C. Most stones are radiopaque.
a)
A and B
b)
A and C
c)
B and C
d)
A, B, and C
41.
A malignant liver tumor is a(n):
a)
hepatitis
b)
hemangioma
c)
hepatoma
d)
jaundice
42.
The noninvasive modality of choice for visualization of gallbladder diseases that does not use ionizing radiation is:
a)
computed tomography
b)
magnetic resonance imaging
c)
nuclear medicine
d)
sonography
43.
This condition in which a gallstone erodes from the gallbladder and creates a fistula to the small bowel is:
a)
gallstone ileus
b)
incarcerated hernia
c)
volvulus
d)
intussusception
44.
Recurring cholecystitis may cause the gallbladder walls to become weak and thin.
a)
True
b)
False
45.
What is the function of beta cells found in the pancreas?
a)
Production of insulin
b)
Production of glucagon
c)
Production of cholecystokinin
d)
Production of lipase
46.
Which of the following is not a reason for the presence of gas in the biliary tree?
a)
Gallstone ileus
b)
Spontaneous fistula
c)
Cholelithiasis
d)
Postoperative biliary anastomosis
47.
What pathologic condition is caused by hepatocellular dysfunction?
a)
Pancreatitis
b)
Hepatitis
c)
Surgical jaundice
d)
Medical jaundice
48.
What imaging procedure visualizes the biliary tree and main pancreatic duct with a fiberoptic endoscope passed through the duodenum?
a)
PTC
b)
ERCP
c)
OCG
d)
T-tube cholangiogram
49.
What imaging modality provides a noninvasive method of evaluating hepatic function as well as hepatic and splenic perfusion?
a)
Single photon emission computed tomography
b)
Sonography
c)
Spiral computed tomography
d)
Magnetic resonance imaging
50.
What is a chronic liver condition in which the liver parenchyma is destroyed, fibrous tissue is deposited, and regenerative nodules are formed?
a)
Hepatitis
b)
Fatty liver infiltrates
c)
Cirrhosis
d)
Ascites
51.
Which of the following may be caused by cirrhosis? A. impaired liver function B. portal hypertension C. ascites
a)
A only
b)
A and B only
c)
B and C
d)
A, B, and C
52.
Individuals with cirrhosis have an increased risk of developing which of the following?
a)
Hepatic carcinoma
b)
Gallstone ileus
c)
Porcelain gallbladder
d)
Cholecystitis
53.
What term describes a fluid collection within the pancreas as a result of pancreatitis?
a)
Ascites
b)
Ileus
c)
Pseudocyst
d)
Hemangioma
54.
Which palliative procedure involves placement of a shunt to divert the pressure caused by portal hypertension?
a)
T-tube cholangiography
b)
TIPS
c)
ERCP
d)
PTC
55.
What is the most contagious form of hepatitis and is located in excreted fecal material?
a)
Hepatitis A
b)
Hepatitis B
c)
Hepatitis C
d)
Hepatitis D
56.
How is viral hepatitis usually diagnosed?
a)
Clinical examination
b)
Abdomen radiograph
c)
Laboratory tests
d)
ERCP
57.
Which of the following is not a major sonographic criterion when imaging gallstones?
a)
Echogenic focus
b)
Acoustic shadowing below the stone(s)
c)
Gravitational dependence
d)
Radiopaque shadowing
58.
What type of benign liver tumor is linked to the usage of oral contraceptives?
a)
Hepatocellular adenoma
b)
Hemangioma
c)
Hepatoma
d)
Hepatocellular carcinoma
59.
What is the most commonly occurring liver tumor?
a)
Hepatocellular adenoma
b)
Hemangioma
c)
Hepatoma
d)
Hepatocellular carcinoma
60.
Signs or symptoms associated with hepatocellular carcinoma include:
a)
RUQ pain
b)
increased jaundice
c)
hepatomegaly
d)
all of the above are signs and/or symptoms of hepatocellular carcinoma
61.
Primary liver lesions are much more common than metastatic liver lesions.
a)
True
b)
False
62.
A porcelain gallbladder can be a precursor to gallbladder carcinoma.
a)
True
b)
False
63.
What is the fifth most common cause of cancer death in the United States and has a 5-year survival rate of 2%?
a)
Liver cancer
b)
Gallbladder cancer
c)
Stomach cancer
d)
Pancreatic cancer
64.
Fatty infiltrates require what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
65.
Ascites requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
66.
Calcium cholelithiasis requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
67.
A hemangioma requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
68.
Cholecystitis requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
69.
Metastatic disease of the liver requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
70.
Pancreatitis requires what type of technical factor change?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
No change
71.
Text of the question (required)
a)
Text for option 1 (required)
b)
Text for option 2 (required)
c)
Text for option 3 (optional)
d)
Text for option 4 (optional)
72.
What is the functional unit of the kidney?
a)
Neuron
b)
Nephron Correct
c)
Major calyx
d)
Minor calyx
73.
What male anatomic structure serves to function in both urinary and reproductive systems?
a)
Ureter
b)
Prostate
c)
Urethra Correct
d)
Ejaculatory duct
74.
Which of the following is not considered to be a clinical finding associated with urinary disorders?
a)
Oliguria
b)
Polyuria
c)
Dyspnea Correct
d)
Hematuria
75.
What is considered to be the uppermost limit for serum creatinine and generally when intravenous contrast media is contraindicated?
a)
3 mg/dL Correct
b)
13 mg/dL
c)
30 mg/dL
d)
50 mg/dL
76.
Which of the following is a reason to perform a KUB?
a)
To determine if the patient had adequate bowel preparation
b)
To determine the proper selection of technical factors
c)
To visualize radiopaque calculi or other pathology
d)
All of the above Correct
77.
What type of reaction can occur following the injection of iodinated contrast media?
a)
Anaphylactic reaction Correct
b)
Neurogenic shock
c)
Hypovolemic shock
d)
Cardiogenic shock
78.
Why is it important for the radiographer to check BUN and creatinine levels prior to the injection of iodinated contrast media?
a)
To determine if the patient has hematuria
b)
To determine if the patient has uremia
c)
To determine if the patient has renal failure Correct
d)
To determine systemic hypertension
79.
Where are the majority of urinary tract calculi located?
a)
Renal pelvis
b)
Proximal ureter
c)
Urinary bladder
d)
Vesicoureteral junction Correct
80.
What is a common indication for cystography?
a)
Vesicoureteral reflux Correct
b)
Ureteral calculi
c)
Bladder mass
d)
Hematuria
81.
Renal sonography can be performed on either a functional or nonfunctional kidney.
a)
True Correct
b)
False
82.
Because of decreased contrast resolution, conventional radiography is less preferred over CT when imaging renal calculi.
a)
True Correct
b)
False
83.
Which imaging modality is most likely to be utilized when assessing a potential kidney donor?
a)
Radiography
b)
Sonography
c)
Computed tomography
d)
Renal angiography Correct
84.
What type of urinary tube or catheter is placed in the renal pelvis and urinary bladder to maintain patency of a diseased ureter?
a)
Nephrostomy tube
b)
Ureteral stent Correct
c)
Foley catheter
d)
Suprapubic catheter
85.
What type of congenital anomaly involves the absence of a kidney on one side and a compensatory hypertrophic kidney on the opposite side?
a)
Renal agenesis Correct
b)
Potter?s syndrome
c)
Supernumerary kidney
d)
Hypoplastic kidney
86.
The renal anomaly that affects twice as many men as women and presents as a fusion of the lower poles of the kidneys at the midline is known as:
a)
Supernumerary kidney
b)
Crossed ectopy kidney
c)
Malrotation of the kidney
d)
Horseshoe kidney Correct
87.
What radiographic positions or projections will best demonstrate nephroptosis?
a)
Recumbent AP abdomen
b)
Recumbent AP and LPO abdomen
c)
Recumbent AP and erect abdomen Correct
d)
Recumbent AP and left lateral decubitus abdomen
88.
What urinary pathology is demonstrated radiographically as a "cobra head"?
a)
Bladder diverticula
b)
Ureterocele Correct
c)
Polycystic kidney
d)
Horseshoe kidney
89.
What type of renal pathology is categorized as either autosomal recessive or autosomal dominant?
a)
Bladder diverticula
b)
Ureterocele
c)
Polycystic kidney Correct
d)
Horseshoe kidney
90.
What renal disorder involves dilatation of the tubules and usually affects both kidneys?
a)
Horseshoe kidney
b)
Polycystic kidney
c)
Pyelonephritis
d)
Medullary sponge kidney Correct
91.
Which congenital renal disorder generally results in nephrocalcinosis?
a)
Medullary sponge kidney Correct
b)
Horseshoe kidney
c)
Polycystic kidney
d)
Wilms? tumor
92.
Chronic pyelonephritis may present radiographically with blunted calyces.
a)
True
b)
False Correct
93.
A staghorn calculi is a large stone found in the vesicoureteral junction.
a)
True
b)
False Correct
94.
The radiographic appearance of dilated renal pelvis and calyces indicates what pathology?
a)
Polycystic kidney
b)
Hydronephrosis Correct
c)
Urinary tract infection
d)
Glomerulonephritis
95.
Renal cysts will demonstrate sharply defined margins during the nephrogram phase following the injection of contrast media.
a)
True
b)
False Correct
96.
A chest radiograph is generally obtained after a diagnosis of renal adenocarcinoma is made.
a)
True Correct
b)
False Correct
97.
What type of renal tumor occurs in children and often presents as a large, palpable abdominal mass?
a)
Wilms? tumor Correct
b)
Adenocarcinoma
c)
Bladder carcinoma
d)
Hydronephroma
98.
What imaging modality is preferred to assess a Wilms' tumor?
a)
IVU
b)
Sonography
c)
Computed tomography Correct
d)
Nuclear medicine
99.
What is the chief symptom of bladder carcinoma?
a)
Abdominal mass
b)
Polyuria
c)
Vesicoureteral reflux
d)
Painless hematuria Correct
100.
Which of the following is(are) an indication for performing an IVU? A. Systemic hypertension B. Prostatism C. Uremia
a)
A only
b)
A and B only Correct
c)
B and C only
d)
A, B, and C
101.
Nephrosclerosis is often associated with hypertension and diabetes.
a)
True Correct
b)
False
102.
Text of the question (required)
a)
Text for option 1 (required)
b)
Text for option 2 (required)
c)
Text for option 3 (optional)
d)
Text for option 4 (optional)
103.
What subsystem of the circulatory system is responsible for the exchange of blood gases?
a)
Systemic circulation
b)
Capillary circulation
c)
Pulmonary circulation
d)
Respiratory circulation
104.
Of the four cardiac chambers, which one lies midline with the cardiac shadow and is also located anteriorly?
a)
Right atrium
b)
Right ventricle
c)
Left atrium
d)
Left ventricle
105.
Which chamber of the heart is generally the largest?
a)
Right atrium
b)
Right ventricle
c)
Left atrium
d)
Left ventricle
106.
Which chamber of the heart houses the SA node, responsible for the electrical conductivity?
a)
Right atrium
b)
Right ventricle
c)
Left atrium
d)
Left ventricle
107.
What portion of the electrocardiogram (ECG) represents the ventricular depolarization?
a)
P wave
b)
PR interval
c)
QRS complex
d)
T wave
108.
Why is it important to perform chest radiography in the upright position? A. To prevent B. engorgement of the heart and great vessels C. To elevate the diaphragm D. To permit a deep inspiration
a)
A and B only
b)
A and C only
c)
B and C
d)
A, B, and C
109.
Which of the geometric factor(s) may affect the radiographic appearance on the PA chest? A. Focal spot size (FSS) B. Source-to- image distance (SID) C. Object-to-image distance (OID) D. Anode heel effect
a)
A and C only
b)
B and D only
c)
B, C, and D
d)
All of the above
110.
Cardiomegaly can be diagnosed on the PA chest radiograph when the cardiac shadow is more than one half of the transverse diameter of the thorax.
a)
True
b)
False
111.
What type of echocardiography permits real time imaging of the heart?
a)
2-D echocardiography
b)
3-D echocardiography
c)
M-mode echocardiography
d)
Stress echocardiography
112.
What pathological condition can be diagnosed with Doppler sonography?
a)
Carotid stenosis
b)
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
c)
Lower extremity arterial stenosis
d)
All of the above
113.
What is the most widely performed procedure in nuclear cardiology?
a)
PET
b)
Myocardial perfusion
c)
Gated cardiac blood pool
d)
Ventilation scan
114.
What procedure in nuclear cardiology is used to evaluate ventricular function?
a)
PET
b)
Myocardial perfusion
c)
Gated cardiac blood pool
d)
Ventilation scan
115.
Angiography is both a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure.
a)
True
b)
False
116.
All of the following situations may require interventional embolization as a treatment option EXCEPT:
a)
AV malformation
b)
Dialysis access
c)
Clotting of vessels feeding brain tumors
d)
Prevention of excessive hemorrhage during open cranial surgery
117.
Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) is used to connect the jugular vein to the portal vein in cases of severe cirrhosis.
a)
True
b)
False
118.
What congenital pathology occurs when the vessel shunting the blood from the pulmonary artery into the fetal systemic circulation fails to close after birth?
a)
Coarctation of the aorta
b)
Transposition of the great vessels
c)
Ventricular septal defect
d)
Patent ductus arteriosus
119.
What congenital pathology presents radiographically with two bulges of the aorta at the arch and rib notching?
a)
Coarctation of the aorta
b)
Transposition of the great vessels
c)
Ventricular septal defect
d)
Patent ductus arteriosus
120.
Which congenital heart defect involves pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, an overriding aorta, and hypertrophy of the right ventricle?
a)
Coarctation of the aorta
b)
Transposition of the great vessels
c)
Valvular stenosis
d)
Tetralogy of Fallot
121.
What is the most common congenital heart defect?
a)
Coarctation of the aorta
b)
Transposition of the great vessels
c)
Atrial septal defect
d)
Ventricular septal defect
122.
What congenital heart defect presents radiographically with a narrow mediastinum and pulmonary congestion?
a)
Coarctation of the aorta
b)
Transposition of the great vessels
c)
Valvular stenosis
d)
Tetralogy of Fallot
123.
What is the most common cause of chronic heart valve disease?
a)
Rheumatic fever
b)
Endocarditis
c)
Congestive heart failure
d)
Scarring of valve cusps
124.
What heart valve is most likely damaged if a patient has an enlarged superior vena cava, right atrium, and right ventricle?
a)
Bicuspid valve
b)
Tricuspid valve
c)
Aortic valve
d)
Mitral valve
125.
What cardiac pathology presents radiographically with cardiomegaly, chest congestion, and increased vascular markings in the hilar region of the lungs?
a)
Cor pulmonale
b)
Pneumonia
c)
Left-sided congestive heart failure
d)
Right-sided congestive heart failure
126.
What is the most prevalent disease in humans, especially in the United States?
a)
CHF
b)
Valvular disease
c)
Atherosclerosis
d)
Abdominal aortic aneurysm
127.
Which of the following vessels is NOT commonly affected by atherosclerosis?
a)
Aorta
b)
Coronary artery
c)
Cerebral artery
d)
Femoral artery
128.
What cardiac pathology is responsible for more than 30% of all annual deaths in the United States and is the single most frequent cause of death in both males and females?
a)
CHF
b)
CAD
c)
Cor pulmonale
d)
Valvular disease
129.
What cardiac pathology is most commonly caused by an acute thrombus of the coronary arteries?
a)
Myocardial infarction
b)
Coronary artery disease
c)
Congestive heart failure
d)
Aortic aneurysm
130.
Which of the following is not a common thrombolytic agent utilized for myocardial infarctions?
a)
Alteplase
b)
Anistreplase
c)
Streptokinase
d)
Staphylokinase
131.
What type of aneurysm is described as a localized bulge involving one side of the arterial wall?
a)
Pisiform aneurysm
b)
Fusiform aneurysm
c)
Dissecting aneurysm
d)
Saccular aneurysm
132.
Which of the following is the most common site for an aneurysm to occur?
a)
Renal artery
b)
Abdominal aorta
c)
Aortic arch
d)
Thoracic aorta
133.
What type of aneurysm causes an intramural hematoma and is often located in the descending (thoracic) aorta?
a)
Pisiform aneurysm
b)
Fusiform aneurysm
c)
Dissecting aneurysm
d)
Saccular aneurysm
134.
Which of the following patients may not be prone to developing a deep venous thrombosis?
a)
A 40-year-old woman who had a knee arthroscopy 2 days ago
b)
A 75-year-old man who is bedridden
c)
A 33-year-old woman flying from the United States to Australia
d)
A 22-year-old male marathon runner
135.
All of the following may be an initial treatment for a pulmonary embolus EXCEPT:
a)
Coagulant therapy
b)
Pulmonary embolectomy
c)
Administration of tPA
d)
Placement of an inferior vena cava filter
136.
What is the most common cause of a pulmonary embolism?
a)
DVT
b)
Atherosclerosis
c)
CHF
d)
Fat emboli
137.
What anatomic structure adheres directly to lung tissue?
a)
Alveoli
b)
Parietal pleura
c)
Visceral pleura
d)
Epithelium
138.
What diagnostic examination is most frequently performed in the radiology department?
a)
Chest radiography
b)
CT of the head
c)
Upper GI
d)
Nuclear medicine perfusion and ventilation scan
139.
Which sets of paranasal sinuses are present at birth? 1. Maxillary 2. Frontal 3. Ethmoid 4. Spenoid
a)
1 and 2 only
b)
1 and 3 only
c)
2 and 3 only
d)
1, 2, 3, and 4
140.
To decrease patient dose while performing computed chest radiography, which technical factors can be increased?
a)
kVp
b)
mA
c)
Exposure time
d)
Focal spot size
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