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Psychology Chapter 3,4,5 Revision

Total questions: 49

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which example describes the process of trephination in ancient times?
a)
 using a sharp instrument to cut nerves in the frontal lobe
b)
surgically drilling a hole in the skull to release an evil spirit
c)
tapping the forehead and different veins to try and encourage bad humours to leave
d)
 inducing seizures through administering high levels of insulin
2.
The saying ‘think with your head not your heart’ implies that the heart is capable of thought. This notion would fall under what conflict of ideas?
a)
brain versus body problem
b)
 mind–body problem
c)
 monism
d)
brain versus heart debate
3.
The mind–body problem is best represented by what question?
a)
 Is the mind stronger than the body?
b)
Which comes first: the body or the mind?
c)
 What happens when we die?
d)
 Is the mind a separate entity from the brain and body?
4.
René Descartes believed the mind and body were two distinct systems. Descartes was therefore considered a: 
a)
material monist
b)
dualist
c)
behaviouralist
d)
monist
5.
Phrenology was originally referred to as:
a)
 brain science
b)
 cranioscopy
c)
 mind mapping
d)
neurology
6.
Franz Joseph Gall and his assistant Johann Christoph Spurzheim identified how many faculties, or brain organs, in phrenology? 
a)
27
b)
17
c)
57
d)
37
7.
What did phrenologists claim to measure from the size and shape of a skull?
a)
 a person’s fears and desires
b)
 tension and stress
c)
whether or not a person was telling the truth 
d)
 a person’s intelligence and personality
8.
What kind of brain research method is best to examine a person’s brain once they have died? 
a)
a surgical procedure
b)
a psychograph
c)
 a case study
d)
an autopsy
9.
Why are case studies so important to psychology?
a)
 They give scientists another thing to examine.
b)
They give scientists the opportunity to explore brain function by assessing living examples. 
c)
 The stories of the case studies make psychology more interesting.
d)
They are not an important part of psychology.
10.
Which of the following are types of electrical brain stimulation and measurement devices?
a)
 magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), electroencephalograph (EEG) and diffuse optical tomography (DOT)
b)
direct brain stimulation (DBS), transcranial magnetic stimulation (TSM) and electroencephalograph (EEG)
c)
transcranial magnetic stimulation (TSM), computerised tomograpy (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d)
direct brain stimulation (DBS), transcranial magnetic stimulation (TSM) and computerised tomograpy (CT)
11.
Which of the following are types of neuroimaging devices?
a)
 magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), transcranial magnetic stimulation (TSM)
and diffuse optical tomography (DOT)
b)
positron emission tomography (PET), computerised tomograpy (CT) and electroencephalograph (EEG)
c)
 positron emission tomography (PET), computerised tomograpy (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d)
magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), direct brain stimulation (DBS) and transcranial magnetic stimulation (TSM)
12.
Deep brain stimulation is based on the principles of:
a)
electrical stimulation of the brain
b)
transcranial magnetic stimulation (TSM)
c)
phrenology
d)
computerised tomograpy (CT)
13.
Brain neuroimaging was first invented by Angelo Mosso in the late 1800s. He recorded the pulsations of blood of the human cerebral cortex and noted that these pulsations changed during certain cognitive tasks. What did Mosso conclude from this?
a)
 Mosso was unable to make any conclusions from his work.
b)
Mosso concluded that the blood flow to the brain is constantly changing.
c)
 Mosso concluded that blood flow increases to the brain during mental processing.
d)
 Mosso concluded that the brain contains a lot of blood.
14.
What are some of the advantages of computerised tomography (CT)?
a)
 cost-effective, provides clear 2D images, can identify abnormality in brain structures
b)
 cost-effective, provides clear 3D images, can view blood flow in the brain
c)
provides clear 3D images, provides information on brain activity during cognitive tasks, images are in full colour
d)
provides clear 3D images, can view blood flow in the brain, images are in full colour
15.
What is a major disadvantage of using magnetoencephalography (MEG)?
a)
 There are no significant disadvantages to using MEG.
b)
MEG can be very loud during the procedure.
c)
MEG cannot detect neural activity deeper than 4 cm.
d)
 MEG can be expensive.
16.
What is a major disadvantage of using magnetoencephalography (MEG)?
a)
 There are no significant disadvantages to using MEG.
b)
MEG can be very loud during the procedure.
c)
MEG cannot detect neural activity deeper than 4 cm.
d)
 MEG can be expensive.
17.
The central nervous system comprises which two major features?
a)
the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system
b)
 the brain and the heart
c)
the brain and spinal cord
d)
the brain and the peripheral nervous system
18.
Which of the following is the somatic nervous system responsible for?
a)
 involuntary movement of the skeletal muscles
b)
 communication between the autonomic nervous system and the brain
c)
 communication between the peripheral nervous system and the central nervous system
d)
voluntary movement of skeletal muscles
19.
Gladys likes the feeling of grass on her feet and walks around often in bare feet. What type of neuron would help Gladys register this sensation? 
a)
 transfer
b)
 motor
c)
 feel
d)
 sensory
20.
The autonomic nervous system is comprised of the sympathetic nervous system and the:
a)
spinal cord
b)
peripheral nervous system
c)
parasympathetic nervous system
d)
 somatic nervous system
21.
What is the main role of the peripheral nervous system?
a)
 to communicate information from the body’s organs and muscles to the central nervous system and back again
b)
to transfer information from the right hemisphere of the brain to the left hemisphere
c)
 to transfer information from the sympathetic nervous system to the parasympathetic nervous system
d)
 to communicate information from the body’s organs to the muscle
22.
Which activity would require motor neurons?
a)
 watching television
b)
tasting ice-cream
c)
 writing your name
d)
hearing a doorbell
23.
When Elias went for a run he was stung by a bee. Which neurons would have been activated?
a)
central neurons
b)
motor neurons
c)
sympathetic neurons
d)
 sensory neurons
24.
The role of the parasympathetic nervous system is to return the body to:
a)
a balanced fight, flight or freeze response
b)
 homeostasis
c)
heterostasis
d)
 allostasis
25.
The fight, flight or freeze response is activated by:
a)
the autonomic nervous system
b)
the parasympathetic nervous system
c)
the somatic nervous system
d)
the central nervous system
26.
Lina’s parasympathetic nervous system is the most active when she:
a)
sees a spider that frightens her
b)
 is walking down a dark street at night
c)
 is playing sport
d)
 is watching television
27.
Dendrites, the soma and the axon are components of what structures?
a)
 synapses
b)
brain cells
c)
spinal cords
d)
neurons
28.
Which structure receives neurotransmitters from the presynaptic neuron?
a)
synapse
b)
dendrite
c)
 terminal button
d)
 axon
29.
Myelin appears in segments along the axon of the neuron with small gaps between the segments. What are these small gaps known as? 
a)
myelin sheath
b)
 nodes of Ranvier
c)
synapses
d)
synaptic cleft
30.
Which of the following is not true of glial cells?
a)
 They are not part of the neuron
b)
 They repair dead neurons.
c)
 They can surround neurons and hold them in place.
d)
 They produce myelin.
31.
Jake jumps out at Caitlyn to scare her. She is frightened but does not scream or run away. Which segment of the peripheral nervous system has been activated in Caitlyn?
a)
 the somatic nervous system
b)
the sympathetic nervous system
c)
the central nervous system
d)
 the parasympathetic nervous system
32.
Where would you find the terminal buttons of the presynaptic neuron?
a)
 in the soma
b)
 at the end of the dendrites
c)
 in the nucleus
d)
 at the end of the axon
33.
What is the best definition for reaction time?
a)
the time it takes to respond to an external stimulus
b)
 the time it takes to externalise a thought
c)
the time it takes to make a decision
d)
 the time we need to process a major life event
34.
Joe starts playing video games every day and notices over a few weeks that he can now react faster to the game as it happens. What factor might have influenced this improvement in reaction time?
a)
 preparation
b)
practice
c)
natural ability
d)
 strength of the stimulus
35.
Which structure is responsible for transmitting messages to and from the hemispheres?
a)
 the cerebral cortex
b)
 the corpus callosum
c)
 the cerebellum
d)
 the hippocampus
36.
Which group of components makes up the hindbrain?
a)
the medulla, the pons, the cerebrum
b)
the medulla, the pons, the cerebral cortex
c)
 the medulla, the pons, the cerebellum
d)
 the medulla, the reticular formation, the cerebellum
37.
Elias went for a run and was stung by a bee. Which lobe would receive the information that he had been stung? 
a)
 the frontal lobe
b)
the parietal lobe
c)
 the occipital lobe
d)
 the temporal lobe
38.
Wernicke’s area is located in the:
a)
parietal lobe
b)
 occipital lobe
c)
 frontal lobe
d)
 temporal lobe
39.
When Viktor knocked his left toes and felt pain, which area of his brain was activated?
a)
his left motor cortex
b)
 his right motor cortex
c)
 his left somatosensory cortex
d)
 his right somatosensory cortex
40.
Lucie waves to Tori and Anna with her left hand. This movement would have been initiated by her: 
a)
 right parietal lobe
b)
 left parietal lobe
c)
right frontal lobe
d)
 left frontal lobe
41.
Which lobe controls abstract thought, social skills and planning?
a)
 the temporal lobe
b)
 the frontal lobe
c)
 the parietal lobe
d)
 the occipital lobe
42.
Which lobe does not receive sensory information from the environment?
a)
 the occipital lobe
b)
 the parietal lobe
c)
 the temporal lobe
d)
 the frontal lobe
43.
Sofia’s teacher asks her a question in class. Which area of Sofia’s brain would be activated?
a)
 the somatosensory cortex
b)
Broca’s area
c)
Wernicke’s area
d)
 the parietal lobe
44.
Which area of Sofia’s brain would be most active when she answers the question?
a)
 Broca’s area
b)
 the parietal lobe
c)
 the somatosensory cortex
d)
 Wernicke’s area
45.
Maj has damaged his frontal lobe. As a consequence he can no longer move his left knee, ankle, or toes. Which part of the primary motor cortex has Maj damaged?
a)
 halfway down his primary motor cortex in his right hemisphere 
b)
 halfway down his primary motor cortex in his left hemisphere
c)
 the top of his right hemisphere near the crown of his head
d)
the top of his left hemisphere near the crown of his head
46.
Which area of the body has the greatest representation in the primary motor cortex?
a)
 the hips
b)
 the fingers
c)
the wrist
d)
 the toes
47.
Although some of Phineas Gage’s frontal lobe was removed when he was injured, which behaviour demonstrates that his Broca’s area was not damaged?
a)
 He could attend to information in both the left and right visual fields.
b)
 He could make decisions using logic and sound judgement.
c)
 He could produce clear and articulate speech.
d)
 He could understand what people were saying to him.
48.
If an electrode was used to stimulate the temporal lobe, the person would be most likely to:
a)
 move a limb
b)
 hear a sound
c)
 see shapes in black and white
d)
 see a colourful shape
49.
Which of the following is a role of the association area in the parietal lobe?
a)
 locating objects in the environment
b)
 speech production
c)
 comprehending language
d)
 processing sensory information