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WorksheetsTexas Contracting Study Guide 1
Total questions: 89
Worksheet time: 45mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Created in 1993 by TGC 2162 the Council on competitive Government is used to improve services, ...
a)
Save money and increase competition with the state government
b)
Save quality and increase choices
c)
All of the above
d)
none of the above
2.
A valid contract must have..
a)
offer, acceptance, legal purpose, mututality of obligation, certainty of subject matter, consideration, ccompetent parties
b)
aknowledgement, offer, legal purpose, agreement, competent parties
c)
objective, acceptance, legal status, subject matter
d)
certainty of subject matter, comprehension, incompetent parties, legal purpose
3.
Ina valid contract the consideration part is.
a)
requires that something of value must be tendered in exchange for goods/services
b)
requires documents to be signed
c)
requires understanding by both parties
d)
terms of the contract are reasonable certain
4.
Some current contracts on CCG are..
a)
Computer assisted legal and invetigative research (CALIR)
b)
Print and Mail services
c)
Energy/Fuel procurement
d)
all of the above
5.
State Use programs- is a statutory mandate requiring state agencies to purchase from agencies that employ persons with
a)
disabilities
b)
dates
c)
disclosures
d)
dimes
6.
Which Commission oversees the State Use Program
a)
Texas Workforce Commission
b)
TIBH
c)
TGC
d)
TAC
7.
The TWC is responsible for.
a)
Promoting the state use program, determining fair market price, ensuring goods/services offered are the best value, evaluating exception reports
b)
determining fair market options , evaluating all pos
c)
Contracting with non central profitable agencies
d)
not promoting teh state use programs
8.
Exceptions to not using the state use program providers are.
a)
quantity, quality, delivery time, life cycle costs
b)
cost
c)
delivery costs
d)
renewal options
9.
State agencies must submit monthly
a)
exception reports
b)
exclussion reports
c)
excellent reports
d)
electric reports
10.
One unique quality of TIBH goods is .
a)
100 percent satisfaction guarantee
b)
10 percent guarantees
c)
none of the above
d)
all of the above
11.
Texas Correctional industries purpose is...
a)
job skills for inmates and reducing recidivision
b)
Prison
c)
correctional cleanup
d)
construction
12.
The Prison Made Goods Act of 1963 works with the TCI in what industry..
a)
printing
b)
postal
c)
power
d)
ping pong
13.
Exemptions to the Prison Made Goods Act are...
a)
Price and substantial quality differences and a waiver request form
b)
delivery time, quantity
c)
waiver
d)
all of the above
14.
Two term contracts for the state use program is.
a)
TxSmartBuy and CPA Managed Term Contracts
b)
TxCMBL
c)
ESBD
d)
TGC
15.
Texas SmartBuy purchase order is submitted only..
a)
online
b)
written
c)
verbal
d)
both verbal and written
16.
Texas Department of Information Resources was created in 1989 as the.
a)
Chief information office for Texas
b)
Chief operating officer
c)
chief logistic officer
d)
none of the above
17.
DIR provides contracts for hardware, software..
a)
Technical services and telecommunication infrastructure
b)
consulting services and telecommunication services
c)
lecture services and telecommunication services
d)
all of the above
18.
Exemptions to using Texas DIR are...
a)
Under $1000 purchase, and first obtaining an exemption from DIR
b)
Over $1000 and obtaining an exemption from DIR
c)
Over $5000 and obtaining an exemption from DIR
d)
Under $5000 and obtaining an exemption from DIR
19.
Who can use the Master contracts with DIR..
a)
state agencies and local governments
b)
state agencies and state affiliates
c)
local governments and federal governments
d)
none of the above
20.
Which purchasing threshold with DIR allows an agency to award to any vendor on the DIR list .
a)
Up to $50000
b)
$50000 to $150000
c)
$150000 to $1 Mill
d)
$1 Mill and over
21.
Which purchasing threshold for DIR purchases allows an agency to purchase only after getting 6 bids from vendors on the DIR list..
a)
Up to $50000
b)
$50000 to $150000
c)
$150000 to $1 Mil
d)
$1 Mil an dover
22.
If using a DIR Blanket exemption what must the agency due.
a)
follow the exact scope, terms and requirements specified by the blanket
b)
Nothing
c)
make up your own scope for the exemption
d)
make up your own terms
23.
An Statement of Work for a DIR purchase over $50000 includes...
a)
deliverables, performance specifications and other requirements
b)
handling, shipping
c)
tax, other requirements
d)
shipping, deliverables
24.
An agency has to use DIR for a telecommunication purchase unless..
a)
The Telecommunications planning and oversight council provides a waiver
b)
Texas Government Code provides a waiver
c)
Texas administrative code provides a waiver
d)
CMBL provides a waiver
25.
TXMAS contracts were established to take advantage of previously competitively awarded..
a)
federal, state, local government contracts
b)
for profit contracts
c)
small contracts
d)
large contracts
26.
An emergency purchse is defined as...
a)
a purchase required to prevent loss to life, health, safety, welfare or property to the state
b)
a purchase required to prevent low price, small quanitites
c)
a purchase required to prevent certain colors, smalls and other stuff
d)
none of the above
27.
A solicitation for an emergency purchase must include.
a)
3 informal bids, award best value
b)
Hub vendor
c)
CMBL vendor, if over $25000 must be listed on the ESBD but no time minimum
d)
all of the above
28.
A written justification of an emergency must include..
a)
A. What caused the emergency, impact to the state
b)
b. estimated continual financial damage
c)
A and B
d)
none of the above
29.
In an emergency the agency is responsible for..
a)
Solicitation, Evaluation, Award, Protest
b)
Solicitation, Extinction, Probate
c)
Sourness, excellence, provisions
d)
none of the above
30.
An internal repair according to TAC cannot be determined untill.
a)
equipment is dissasembled
b)
equipment is bought
c)
equipment is sent back
d)
none of the above
31.
An internal repair PO must contain labor, parts,
a)
indicate "internal repair"and state "costs cannot exceed", if over $25000 be posted by ESBD no time frame.
b)
indicate repair, no cost estimate
c)
indicate all estimates price and parts
d)
be posted for $5000 or higher on ESBD
32.
Proprietary purchases have unique features that are..
a)
not shared by others and make a compelling distinction compared to other vendors
b)
shared by others but makes a distinction between vendors
c)
not shared by others but can be bought from others
d)
none of the above
33.
An exclusive acquisition justification states
a)
it has to have the head of the agency signature, explenation of planned need or use, specifications, why other vendors cannot suffice
b)
it doesnt have to be signed by the head of an agency, explained need, specifics, why other vendors cannot suffice
c)
signed by head of agency, specifications, why other vendors will suffice
d)
none of the above
34.
A scheduled managed contract includes
a)
high volume purchases, definite known quantity or commodity, definite known schedules
b)
low volume purchases, known quantity, definite schedules
c)
high volume, not definite quantity or commodity
d)
low volume, known quantity, not definite schedules
35.
A professional or consulting service defined by TGC 2254 who is licensed or registered is an..
a)
A CPA, Physician, Optometrist
b)
B Architect, Land surveyor, Nurse, Real Estate Appraiser
c)
A and B
d)
None of the above
36.
Professional and consulting professionals have to be selected by..
a)
Competitive bid
b)
Informal bid
c)
RFQ
d)
RFP
37.
Fees for the professional service must be consistent with the applicable professional association and may not..
a)
exceed any maximum by law
b)
go under any maximum by law
c)
equal any maximum by law
d)
None of the above
38.
According to delegated purchasing authority up to 5000 requires
a)
No competitive bid
b)
competitive bid
c)
informal bid
d)
Cooperative
39.
According to delegated purchasing authority a purchase from 5000 -25000 requires an informal bid except..
a)
Director publication purchases with purchasing documentation - DIR
b)
Distributor purhcases
c)
Fuel and Oil
d)
Emergency
40.
According to delegated purchsing authority for a purchase between 25000-10000, except Direct publications requires..
a)
A formal bid
b)
An informal Bid
c)
No bid
d)
RFQ
41.
According to delegated purchasing authority a purchase over 100000 for a commodity requires...
a)
Non delegation-sent to state purchasing to buy
b)
formal bid
c)
informal bid
d)
RFQ
42.
According to the delegated purchasing authority a purchase over 100000 and a service requires
a)
possible non delgated with CATRAD review
b)
Formal bid
c)
Informal bid
d)
RGQ
43.
A purchase of over 100000 for a direct publication, perishable good, distributor, fuel/oil, emergency requires...
a)
a formal bid except directo publication
b)
an informal bid except direct publication
c)
no bid except direct publication
d)
RFQ
44.
Purchasers are required to submit monthly state use program exception reports to CPA portal even if no exception items were purchased?
a)
True
b)
False
c)
True sometimes
d)
none of the above
45.
What is the Prison Made Goods Act?
a)
A waiver
b)
Requires an agency to purchase goods and services offered by the Texas Correctional industries (TCI)
c)
Requires the state to make goods for prisons
d)
all of the above
46.
TxSmartBuy is an online ordering system
a)
True
b)
False
c)
False most of the time
d)
None of the above
47.
Where are state agencies required to purchase hardware, software and technical services from.
a)
Best Buy using credit card
b)
CPA
c)
DIR
d)
SAO
48.
Providers of professional services are selected on the basis of competitive bids.
a)
True
b)
False
c)
True sometimes
d)
none of the above
49.
Delegated Purchasing Authority is based on ..
a)
Order amount/Total cost
b)
Price per unit
c)
what is being ordered
d)
who is ordering
50.
One of the requirements for HUB is a business with its principal place of business in Texas
a)
True
b)
False
c)
False sometimes
d)
None of the above
51.
NIGP class codes ranging from 1-899 identify what
a)
commodities
b)
services
c)
hardware
d)
contstruction
52.
Unless except by statue, agencies are required to use the CMBL for purchases greater than 5000
a)
True
b)
False
c)
False for services
d)
none of the above
53.
A HUB subcontracting plan is required for orders exceeding what value.
a)
100
b)
25000
c)
50000
d)
100000
54.
An blank is the solicitation document used during the competitive sealed bid method
a)
open market blanket order
b)
request for information (RFI)
c)
Invitation for Bid (IFB)
d)
None of the above
55.
The CMBL is a ..
a)
list of perferred vendors
b)
list of CPA approved vendors
c)
mailing list of vendors who have paid a fee to receive notice of procurrement opportunities
d)
list of certified HUB vendors
56.
If the initial major contract solicitation document submitted to the CAT changes substantially, agencies are required to resubmit their solicitation documents for CAT review. Changes in the major contract solicitation are considered substantial when:
a)
A The solicitation change caused the estimated value for the original term of the contract, not including reneal periods, to increase by 20 to 25 percent or more
b)
B THere are significant revisions, deletions and or additions to the specifications SOW, deliverables, performance measures, payment method.
c)
Agencies are not required to resubmit the solicitation
d)
A and B
57.
The products or services are provided on a scheduled time for the ordering entity instead of an "as required" basis. The quantities are guaranteed since the ordering entity has committed to a regularly scheduled delivery time.
a)
An open market blanket order
b)
One time TXSmartbuy order
c)
An open market standing order
d)
none of the above
58.
If you have a high dollar, high reisk procurement in which you want to negotiate which solicitation method should you use.
a)
RFI
b)
IFB
c)
RFQ
d)
RFP
59.
The solicitation document should include all of the following except.
a)
Ordering entity's requirements
b)
End user contact information
c)
Terms and conditions
d)
How the vendor will be selected
60.
Which solicitation method is used to gather information and does not request pricing
a)
RFI
b)
RFP
c)
RFO
d)
RFQ
61.
What should you do if you estimated the cost of a contract to be 20000 so you did not post it on the ESBD, but when you opened the bids, the lowest bid was $25002.94?
a)
Call CPA and request an exception
b)
REadvertise the solicitation and post it on ESBD
c)
Proceed with the award since the average is not significant
d)
negotiate with the vendor to get the price under 25000
62.
Solicitation of emergency procurements greater than 25000 are not required to be posted on ESBD
a)
True
b)
False
c)
Only commodities
d)
Only services
63.
Which of the following is true if you post a bid notice on the ESBD instead of the entire bid package.
a)
You are in violation of stte stature
b)
You must post for 14 days
c)
You must post for 21 days
d)
Posting of bid notices is not allowed
64.
Public view contracts must be posted on the state agency website until the contract expires or completed
a)
True
b)
False
c)
Only when completed
d)
Only when started
65.
Negotiations are permitted in a competitive bid environment when there is only one bidder or during an emergency procurement when competition is not practical.
a)
True
b)
False
c)
two bidders
d)
ten bidders
66.
What is the correct procedure when evaluating an invitation for bid from a vendor that meets all of the major specifications and almost all of the minor ones.
a)
Call CPA and get an approval for a variance for your situation
b)
REject the bid as non-responsive and award to the next bidder providing the best value and is within you budget
c)
Award the order as submitted
d)
Award the order after you have negotiated a slightly lower price with the vendor for the minor specifications that they did not meet.
67.
An unsigned bid should/must be disqualified
a)
True
b)
False
c)
only once
d)
less than 5 times
68.
Which preaward verification checks to see if the vendor is barred from contracting by the Federal Government/Texas.
a)
CPA debarred vendor list
b)
EPLS
c)
SAMS
d)
None of the Above
69.
Comptroller tax hold applies to purchase orders and procurement card purchases over 500
a)
True
b)
False
c)
just procurement card
d)
over 1000
70.
When can a bidder withdraw their bid
a)
Anytime
b)
At the bid opening
c)
not allowed
d)
prior to the bid opening date and time
71.
Publid bid openings is required for
a)
bid over 25000
b)
bid over 50000
c)
bid over 100000
d)
all of the above or formal bids
72.
After evaluating proposals the ordering entity may negotiate with respondents to obtain a
a)
CMBL
b)
ESBD
c)
BAFO
d)
SAM
73.
Selecting a contractor based on who offers the best trade-off between price and performance is called
a)
Best value
b)
Appropriate value
c)
Value plus
d)
Low bid meeting specifications
74.
What is the proper procedure to follow if during a delegated purchse you ordered twelve boxes of goods and only received eight.
a)
Make a notation on the manifest, request/adjust the invoice accordingly, and notify the vendor immediately
b)
Make a notation on the manifest, notify vendor and CPA
c)
Refuse the shipment and notify the vendor
d)
Make a notation on the manifest and refuse the entire shipment
75.
FOB determines who is responsible for paying freight
a)
True
b)
False
c)
insurance
d)
none of the above
76.
If you receive a shipment containing damaged items you may
a)
accept
b)
accept un damaged and refuse the damaged
c)
reject the entire order
d)
all of the above
77.
Which of the following is not correct concerning service purchases exceeding 100000
a)
proprietary justification required
b)
an open market formal solicitation is used
c)
CPA approvval required
d)
A hub subcontracting plan is required
78.
emergency purchases are not audited by CPA
a)
True
b)
False
c)
sometimes
d)
none of the above
79.
Agencies are required to submit a procurement plan to CPA each biennium
a)
True
b)
False (annually)
c)
False every three years
d)
none of the above
80.
What is the purpose of PCC Codes
a)
To notify your supervisor that you are making a purchase
b)
To document the purchase method, commodity type,and dollar category of purchse
c)
To search the CMBL
d)
To balance the budget
81.
Three parties involved in an agency procurement relationship are
a)
principal, agent,vendor
b)
agent, actual, retailer
c)
agent contract, retailer
d)
contact, manager, agent
82.
The following are steps in the procurement cycle except
a)
need defined
b)
contract administration
c)
benefit duration
d)
payment
83.
A CTPM is required to make delegated purchases of 25000-100000
a)
True
b)
False
c)
less than 25000
d)
neither
84.
As a public purchaser it is your duty to do which of the following
a)
A serve the best interest of each state organization and taxpayers in the state of texas
b)
interpret state policy and law to the best of your ability and make rational decisions accordingly
c)
C Avoid acts which are improper or give the appearance of impropriety
d)
A and C
85.
Which of the following situations would warrant an emergency purchase
a)
New IT equipment is needed, paperwork was filed in an untimely manner
b)
Agency decided to forgo standard bidding proactices to minimize work load
c)
A new computer virus was unleashed on all office computers over the weekend and new equipment is needed to minimize damages
d)
Department head decides that all out going company work will be reproduced on off white paper only but department only has egg shell white paper
86.
Surplus property is a procurement method used to procure excess property no longer needed by state or federal agencies
a)
True
b)
False
c)
technique
d)
docuement
87.
CPA requires that all orders be placed as
a)
Free on Board Origin
b)
Free on Board Destination
c)
Freight on Board origin
d)
Freight on Board Destination
88.
negotiations are permited in the competitive bid process
a)
always
b)
When there is only one bidder
c)
Never
d)
When purchase is over 100000
89.
CPA will not delegate purchsing authority over 100000 on what two types of purchases
a)
direct publication and distributor purchase
b)
Emergency and distributor purchases
c)
Emergency and commodity purchases
d)
commodity and services purchses
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