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Blood Banking

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

branch of science deals with study of red cell antigens and antibodies important in transfusion of blood components

a)

Immunology

b)

Serology

c)

Hematology

d)

Immunohematology

2.

Plasma carries erythrocytes, leukocytes and (a)  

3.

A clear liquid that carries red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets is called (a)  

4.

Haemal system consists of all except

a)

arteries

b)

veins

c)

platelets

d)

capillaries

5.

If you mix type A and type B blood, the red blood cells join together or 'clump'. Is clumping bad?

a)

Yes

b)

No

6.
a)

Refrigerator

b)

Freezer

c)

Proof Box

7.

True or False:

The superior vena cava carries oxygenated blood.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Blood travels from the left ventricle through this valve when heading to the aorta.

a)

Mitral Valve

b)

Aortic Valve

c)

Pulmonary Valve

d)

Tricuspid Valve

9.
a)

Manual scale

b)

Digital Scale

c)

Mandoline

10.

Which blood vessel carries blood from the heart to the lungs to receive oxygen?

a)

Aorta

b)

Vena Cava

c)

Pulmonary Artery

d)

Pulmonary Vein

11.

In what year was Gel Test Technology developed?

a)

1945

b)

1895

c)

1985

d)

1934

12.

The human heart has ___ chambers.

a)

3

b)

5

c)

4

d)

2

13.

What percentage of human blood is fluid plasma?

a)

30%

b)

55%

c)

75%

14.

Direct Typing's principle is to detect ________ _______ by using patient ______ ______ ______.

a)

Unknown Antigen & Patient Serum

b)

Unknown antibodies & Patient Serum

c)

Unknown Antigen & Patient Red Blood Cells

d)

Unknown Antibodies & Patient Red Cell Suspension

15.

A procedure which is considered as a screening test in blood typing.

a)

Abo typing

b)

Serum Typing

c)

Cell Grouping

d)

Reverse Typing

16.

Procedure used to detect unknown antibodies in the serum using red cell suspension.

a)

Serum Typing

b)

Cell Typing

c)

Blood Typing

d)

Direct Typing

17.

Reagents used in Direct typing are the following except:

a)

Anti-A

b)

Anti-B

c)

Anti-AB

d)

Anti-D

e)

All of the following

18.

There are cases where indirect typing is not required:

a)

Newborns and Young Adults

b)

Young Adults and Adults

c)

Geriatric and Young Adults

d)

Newborns and Geriatric patients

e)

Newborns only

19.

It is the method of choice for rapid or bedside typing, commonly seen used in mass blood donation and medical mission. Used in Direct/forward typing procedure.

a)

Slide Method

b)

Tube Method

c)

Gel Method

d)

All of the Above

20.

It is the method of choice for routine typing. Used in Direct/forward typing and Indirect typing procedure.

a)

Slide Method

b)

Tube Method

c)

Gel Method

d)

All of the Above

21.

An automated method in blood typing. The main advantage of this method is its standardization.

a)

Slide Method

b)

Tube Method

c)

Gel Method

d)

All of the Above

22.

Red blood cell clumping; RBCs form clumps and clumping indicates the presence of LATTICE formation o commonly observed positive reaction in blood typing

a)

Hemolysis

b)

Cytolysis

c)

Hemagglutination Reaction

d)

Clumping or Agglutination

23.

It is a strong hemolytic reaction and strong agglutination reaction

a)

Hemolysis

b)

Cytolysis

c)

Hemagglutination Reaction

d)

Clumping or Agglutination

24.

The cross-bridging or cross-linking of antibodies adjacent to the antigen.

a)

Lattice Formation

b)

Cytolysis

c)

Hemagglutination Reaction

d)

Clumping or Agglutination

25.

A red cell destruction; indication of hemolytic reaction is the release of hemoglobin which would change the serum/anti-sera color into clear red or clear pink

a)

Lattice Formation

b)

Sensitization

c)

Hemolysis

d)

Hemoconcentration

26.

A patient has no reaction in both Anti-A and Anti-B.

a)

Blood type A

b)

Blood type B

c)

Blood type AB

d)

Blood type O

27.

A patient has reactions in both Anti-A and Anti-B.

a)

Blood type A

b)

Blood type B

c)

Blood type AB

d)

Blood type O

28.

A patient has a reactions in Anti-A and no reaction in Anti-B.

a)

Blood type A

b)

Blood type B

c)

Blood type AB

d)

Blood type O

29.

A patient has no reactions in Anti-A and a reaction in Anti-B.

a)

Blood type A

b)

Blood type B

c)

Blood type AB

d)

Blood type O

30.

What is the maximum volume of blood that can be collected from a 10-lb donor, including samples for processing

a)

450 mL

b)

500 mL

c)

525 mL

d)

550 mL

31.

When RBCs are stored, there is a "shift to the left." This means:

a)

Hemoglobin-oxygen affinity increases, owing to an increase in 2 , 3-DPG.

b)

Hemoglobin-oxygen affinity increases, owing to a decrease in 2, 3-DPG.

c)

Hemoglobin-oxygen affinity decreases, owing to a decrease in 2, 3-DPG.

d)

Hemoglobin-oxygen affinity decreases, owing to an increase in 2, 3-DPG.

32.

RBCs can be frozen for:

a)

12 months

b)

1 year

c)

5 years

d)

10 years

33.

One criterion used by the FDA for approval of new preservation solutions and storage containers is an average 24-hour post-transfusion RBC survival of more than:

a)

50%.

b)

60%

c)

65%

d)

75%

34.

what occurs during storage of RBC's?

a)

pH decreases

b)

2,3-DPG increases

c)

ATP increases

d)

plasma K+ decreases

35.

when a recessive trait is expressed:

a)

when a recessive trait is expressed:

b)

2 genes carrying the trait were present

c)

no gene carrying the trait was present

d)

the gene is hemizygous

36.

what is the lowest allowable pH for a platelet component at outdate?

a)

6

b)

6.2

c)

5.9

d)

6.8

37.

which is approved for bacterial detection specific to extending the expiration of apheresed platelets to 7 days?

a)

BacT/ALERT

b)

eBDS

c)

Gram stain

d)

Pan Genera Detection (PGD) test

38.

most common cause of bacterial contamination in platelet products?

a)

incorrect storage temp

b)

environmental contamination during processing

c)

entry of skin plugs into collection bag

d)

T in the donor

39.

When a male possesses a phenotypic trait that he passes to all his daughters and none of his sons, the trait is said to be:

a)

X-linked dominant

b)

X-linked recessive

c)

autosomal dominant

d)

autosomal recessive

40.

When a female possesses a phenotypic trait that she passes to all of her sons and none of her daughters, the trait is said to be:

a)

X-linked dominant

b)

X-linked recessive

c)

autosomal dominant

d)

autosomal recessive

41.

what refers to the effect of an excess amount of antigen present in a test system?

a)

postzone

b)

prozone

c)

zone of equivalence

d)

endzone

42.

refers to the presence of an excess amount of antibody present in a test system

a)

Postzone

b)

Prozone

c)

Zone of equivalence

d)

Endzone

43.

property of antibodies not dependent on the structure of the heavy chain constant region

a)

ability to cross placenta

b)

isotype (class)

c)

ability to fix complement

d)

affinity for antigen

44.

molecules that promote the uptake of bacteria for phagocytosis

a)

opsonins

b)

cytokines

c)

haptens

d)

isotypes

45.

unique confirmation of the antigen that allows recognition by a corresponding antibody

a)

immunogen

b)

epitope

c)

avidity

d)

clone

46.

refers to the net negative charge surrounding red blood cells

a)

dielectric constant

b)

van der waals forces

c)

hydrogen bonding

d)

zeta potential

47.

central dogma of molecular biology

a)

DNA is the genetic material

b)

RNA is the genetic material

c)

DNA is translated to mRNA

d)

proteins are transcribed from mRNA

48.

how many days before a pretransfusion specimen expires?

a)

3 days

b)

7 days

c)

14 days

d)

1 month

49.

how many days must a pretransfusion specimen and donor unit segments be retained post transfusion?

a)

3 days

b)

7 days

c)

14 days

d)

1 month

50.

If a blood type cannot be resolved, what ABO group should be selected for a red blood cell transfusion?

a)

group A

b)

group B

c)

group O

d)

group AB

51.

which antibody specificity is not required in antibody detection tests?

a. K

b. Cw

c. Fya

d. S

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

52.

which is not true rouleaux formation?

a)

mimics agglutination

b)

appears like a stacking of coins

c)

can be seen in the antiglobulin test

d)

can be dispersed by saline

53.

a patients blood type is AB neg, but there are no AB neg red blood cell units available, what donor units could be selected?

a)

O pos

b)

A neg

c)

B pos

d)

all of the above

54.

the major immunoglobulin class of anti-B in a group A individual is:

a)

IgG

b)

IgM

c)

IgA

d)

IgE

e)

IgD

55.

patient cells reacted 4+ with anti A and B, and serum reacted neg with A1 and B cells, what is their blood type?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

O

e)

Ss

56.

what are possible ABO phenotypes of the offspring from the mating of a group A to a group B individual?

a)

A

b)

AB

c)

B

d)

O

e)

All of the Following

57.

what are possible ABO phenotypes of the offspring from the mating of a group A to a group B individual?

a)

A,H,Se

b)

B,H,Se

c)

AB,H,Se

d)

H,Se

58.

what ABO blood group contains the least amount of H substance?

(a)  

59.

An example of a technical error that can result in an ABO discrepancy

a)

cell suspension is too heavy

b)

inappropriate volume use

c)

undercentrifugation

d)

None of the following

60.

What type of serological testing does the blood bank technologist perform when determining the blood group of a patient?

a)

Genotyping

b)

Phenotyping

c)

Both genotyping and phenotyping

d)

Polymerase chain reaction

61.

If anti-K reacts 3+ with a donor cell with a genotype KK and 2+ with a Kk cell, the antibody is demonstrating:

a)

Dosage

b)

Linkage disequilibrium

c)

Homozygosity

d)

Heterozygosity

62.

Which genotype(s) will give rise to the Bombay phenotype?

a)

HH only

b)

hh only

c)

HH and Hh

d)

Hh and hh

63.

Meiosis in cell division is limited to the ova and sperm producing four gametes containing what complement of DNA?

a)

1N

b)

2N

c)

3N

d)

4N

64.

Which of the following describes the expression of most blood group antigens?

a)

Dominant

b)

Recessive

c)

Codominant

d)

Codominant

65.

The minimum Hgb concentration in a fingerstick from a male blood donor is:

a)

12.0 g/dL (120 g/L)

b)

12.0 g/dL (120 g/L)

c)

13.5 g/dL (135 g/L)

d)

15.0 g/dL (150 g/L)

66.

Which of the following constitutes permanent rejection status of a donor?

a)

a tattoo 5 months ago

b)

recent close contact with a patient with viral hepatitis

c)

2 units of blood transfused 4 months previously

d)

confirmed positive test for HbsAg 10 yrs. earlier

67.

Prior to blood donation, the intended venipuncture site must be cleaned with a scrub solution of:

a)

hypochlorite

b)

isopropyl alcohol

c)

10% acetone

d)

PVP iodine complex

68.

All donors blood testing must include:

a)

complete Rh phenotype

b)

anti-CMV testing

c)

DAT

d)

serological test for syphilis

69.

During the preparation of Platelet Concentrates from whole blood, the blood should be:

a)

cooled towards 6 C

b)

cooled towards 20-24 C

c)

warmed to 37 C

d)

heated to 57 C

70.

The western blot is a confirmatory test for:

a)

CMV antibody

b)

anti-HIV-1

c)

HbsAg

d)

serum protein abnormality

71.

Cryo AHF, if maintained in the frozen state at -18 C or below, has a shelf life of:

a)

42 days

b)

6 months

c)

12 months

d)

36 months

72.

Once thawed, FFP must be transfused within:

a)

4 hrs.

b)

8 hrs.

c)

12 hrs.

d)

24 hrs.

73.

In the liquid state, plasma must be stored at:

a)

1 - 6 C

b)

22 C

c)

37 C

d)

56 C

74.

Irradiation of a unit of RBC's is done to prevent the replication of donor:

a. granulocytes

b. lymphocytes

c. red cells

d. platelets

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

75.

Plastic bag overwraps are recommended when thawing FFP in a 37 C water bath. because they prevent:

a)

FFP bag from cracking

b)

water from slowly dialyzing across the bag membrane

c)

the entry ports from being contaminated with water

d)

the label from peeling

76.

Which of the following blood components must be prepared within 8 hrs. after phlebotomy:

a)

RBCs

b)

FFP

c)

Frozen rbcs

d)

Cryo AHF

77.

A blood component prepared by thawing FFP at refrigerator temp and removing the fluid portion is:

a)

Plasma Protein Fraction

b)

Cryo AHF

c)

Factor IX Complex

d)

FP24

78.

Upon inspection, a unit of platelets is noted to have visible clots, but otherwise appears normal. the tech should:

a)

issue without concern

b)

filter to remove clots

c)

centrifuge to express off the clots

d)

quarantine for gram stain and culture

79.

Which of the following is proper procedure for preparation of platelets from Whole Blood:

a)

light spin followed by hard spin

b)

light spin followed by 2 hard spins

c)

2 light spins

d)

hard spin followed by a light spin

80.

The linked HLA genes on each chromosome constitutes a (an):

a)

allele

b)

trait

c)

phenotype

d)

haplotype

81.

A blood donor has the genotype: hh, AB. what is his RBC phenotype?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

O

d)

AB

82.

Given the following typing results, what is the donors racial ethnicity:

Le(a-b-)

Fy(a-b-)

Js(a+b+)

a)

African American

b)

Asian American

c)

Native American

d)

Caucasian

83.

In an emergency situation, Rh-neg. red cells are transfused into a Rh-pos person of the genotype CDe/CDe. the first antibody most likely to develop is:

a)

anti-c

b)

anti-d

c)

anti-e

d)

anti- E

84.

The red cells of a nonsecretor will most likely type as:

a)

Le(a-b-)

b)

Le(a+b+)

c)

Le(a+b-)

d)

Le(a-b+)

85.

Which of the following phenotype will react with anti-f:

a)

rr

b)

R1R1

c)

R2R2

d)

R1R2

86.

A women types as Rh-pos. She has an anti-c titer of 32 at AHG. Her baby has a negative DAT and is not affected by HDFN. What is the fathers most likely Rh phenotype.

a)

rr

b)

r"r

c)

R1r

d)

R2r