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Exam 2 Nurs 1051 and 1000

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 1hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a key component of a skin inspection during a physical assessment?

a)

Measuring blood pressure

b)

Checking for skin integrity

c)

Listening to heart sounds

d)

Testing reflexes

2.

What lifestyle factor is important to consider when assessing skin health?

a)

Exposure to sun or chemicals

b)

Prescence of moles

c)

Frequency of moles

d)

hx of skin cancer

3.

In a physical assessment, what is the purpose of palpating the skin?

a)

To assess skin coloration

b)

To evaluate skin texture and thickness

c)

To observe skin lesions

d)

To detect odors

4.

What are some normal variations in the physical findings of the skin?

a)

Uneven coloration and rough texture

b)

Even coloration and smooth texture

c)

Presence of lesions and rashes

d)

Asymmetrical distribution of freckles

5.

What is included in the inspection and palpation of the scalp and hair?

a)

Nail grooming and cleanliness

b)

General color and condition

c)

Capillary refill

d)

Temperature and moisture

6.

What are the normal characteristics of nails?

a)

Clubbing and pitting

b)

Uniform color and shape, slight ridges or small white spots

c)

Discoloration and koilonychia

d)

Increased oiliness or dryness

7.

Which of the following is a risk factor for skin abnormalities?

a)

Hormonal imbalance

b)

Trauma

c)

Sun exposure

d)

Pulmonary disease

8.

Identify a risk factor associated with hair abnormalities.

a)

Smoking

b)

Nutritional deficiencies

c)

Trauma

d)

Pulmonary disease

9.

What is a common abnormality found in nails?

a)

Alopecia

b)

Cyanosis

c)

Clubbing

d)

Tenderness

10.

Which of the following is a recommended practice for promoting skin health?

a)

Use sunscreen, wear protective clothing, do regular skin checks

b)

Get regular eye exams, wear sunglasses, report vision changes

c)

Practice good oral hygiene, avoid tobacco, see dentist regularly

d)

Protect ears from loud noise, keep ears dry, seek care for pain/discharge

11.

What is a suggested method for maintaining healthy hair and nails?

a)

Keep scalp clean, nails dry and healthy

b)

Avoid irritants, treat allergies early

c)

Use sunscreen, wear protective clothing

d)

Protect ears from loud noise, keep ears dry

12.

How can one protect their ears according to the health promotion guidelines?

a)

Use sunscreen, wear protective clothing

b)

Keep scalp clean, nails dry and healthy

c)

Protect ears from loud noise, keep ears dry, seek care for pain/discharge

d)

Get regular eye exams, wear sunglasses

13.

What are some abnormalities associated with the nose?

a)

Lesions, ulcers, swelling, bleeding

b)

Deviation, polyps, crusting, discharge

c)

Redness, jaundice, visual changes

d)

Discharge, deformities, swelling

14.

Identify the common assessment findings in older adults.

a)

Acne and oily skin

b)

Larger heads and soft fontanels

c)

Thin, fragile skin and cataracts

d)

Wrinkles and graying hair

15.

What is a typical assessment finding in adults?

a)

Transient strabismus

b)

Decreased skin elasticity

c)

Soft fontanels

d)

Growth spurts

16.

What is the primary purpose of nurse practice acts in each state?

a)

To provide financial support to nurses

b)

To define the scope of nursing practice, licensure requirements, and disciplinary actions

c)

To establish international nursing standards

d)

To promote nursing education programs

17.

How do state boards of nursing contribute to professional regulation?

a)

By organizing nursing conferences

b)

By enforcing the NPA, issuing and renewing licenses, and taking disciplinary action when needed

c)

By providing scholarships to nursing students

d)

By developing new medical technologies

18.

What role does the ANA code of ethics play in nursing?

a)

It sets financial guidelines for nurses

b)

It establishes ethical principles guiding nurses' behaviors and decisions

c)

It provides a framework for international nursing collaboration

d)

It outlines the history of nursing

19.

What do standards of practice define in the nursing profession?

a)

The history of nursing

b)

Competent levels of care and performance expected of nurses

c)

The financial compensation for nurses

d)

The global nursing policies

20.

Why are institutional policies important in hospitals and organizations?

a)

They provide entertainment for patients

b)

They ensure safety and legal expectations are met

c)

They offer discounts on medical supplies

d)

They promote international travel for nurses

21.

What is the primary purpose of licensure for nurses?

a)

To provide voluntary credentials for advanced knowledge

b)

To ensure nursing programs meet established standards

c)

To allow nurses to practice, ensuring competency, standards are met and public protection

d)

To hold nurses accountable for their actions

22.

Which of the following best describes certification in the nursing profession?

a)

A legal credential allowing practice

b)

A voluntary credential showing advanced knowledge in a specialty area

c)

A requirement for all nursing programs

d)

A measure to ensure public safety

23.

What does accountability in nursing primarily involve?

a)

Ensuring nursing programs meet standards

b)

Legal and professional responsibility for actions, judgments, and competence

c)

Voluntary credentialing in specialty areas

d)

Protecting the public through minimum competency

24.

Identify the correct sequence of elements in a negligence case.

a)

Breach, Duty, Damages, Causation

b)

Duty, Breach, Causation, Damages

c)

Causation, Duty, Breach, Damages

d)

Damages, Causation, Breach, Duty

25.

How is malpractice different from general negligence in nursing?

a)

It involves voluntary credentialing

b)

It is a type of negligence applied to a professional person

c)

It ensures nursing programs meet standards

d)

It is unrelated to professional conduct

26.

What is one of the appropriate legal safeguards in nursing practice?

a)

Administer medications prepared by others

b)

Document accurately and on time

c)

Ignore infection control measures

d)

Avoid monitoring patient conditions

27.

Which of the following is an example of negligence in nursing?

a)

Providing complete self-care instructions

b)

Lifting a patient with proper equipment

c)

Not giving self-care instructions on discharge

d)

Monitoring patient conditions regularly

28.

Which of the following is a key topic to cover when taking a nursing history of the respiratory system?

a)

Dietary habits

b)

History of breathing problems

c)

Travel history

d)

Sleep patterns

29.

What family history is important to consider in a respiratory system assessment?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Hypertension

c)

Asthma

d)

Arthritis

30.

Which lifestyle factor is crucial to discuss during a respiratory health assessment?

a)

Reading habits

b)

Smoking

c)

Music preferences

d)

Social media usage

31.

Which of the following is a risk factor for pneumonia?

a)

Regular exercise

b)

Being hospitalized

c)

High vitamin C intake

d)

Low altitude living

32.

What condition is characterized by a loss of lung elasticity and lower lung resiliency?

a)

Asthma

b)

Bronchitis

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

COPD

33.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom associated with respiratory issues?

a)

Dyspnea

b)

Kyphosis

c)

Deep breathing is difficult

d)

Increased appetite

34.

What is a common physical change that can affect breathing in older adults?

a)

Increased lung capacity

b)

Kyphosis

c)

Enhanced thoracic expansion

d)

Improved cough effectiveness

35.

Which of the following is a risk factor for lung cancer?

a)

Regular exercise

b)

Exposure to asbestos

c)

High vitamin C intake

d)

Low-fat diet

36.

What is a common risk factor for both lung cancer and COPD?

a)

High altitude living

b)

Smoking (second-hand smoke)

c)

Regular swimming

d)

Vegan diet

37.

Which of the following is a risk factor specifically mentioned for COPD but not for lung cancer?

a)

Air pollution

b)

Being over 40

c)

Radiation exposure

d)

Family history of lung cancer

38.

What is the first step in the physical assessment of the lungs using correct techniques of inspection and auscultation?

a)

Observing the patient's respiratory rate, pattern, and chest wall movement for symmetry

b)

Placing a warmed stethoscope on the chest

c)

Listening for abnormal breath sounds

d)

Checking the patient's pulse

39.

Which of the following is a key location for auscultation during lung assessment?

a)

Midsternal line

b)

Lateral line

c)

Posterior line

d)

Inferior line

40.

What type of breath sound is described as a high-pitched whistling from narrowed small airways?

a)

Wheezing

b)

Crackles

c)

Rhonchi

d)

Pleural friction rubs

41.

Which abnormal breath sound is characterized by a low-pitched whistling from narrowed large airways?

a)

Rhonchi

b)

Stridor

c)

Crackles

d)

Wheezing

42.

Which of the following is high pitched popping on inspiration?

a)

coarse crackles?

b)

fine crackles?

c)

wheezing?

d)

stridor?

43.

Which is low pitched gurgling on inspiration?

a)

fine crackles

b)

rhonchi

c)

coarse crackles

d)

wheezing

44.

which is high pitched crowing heard on inspiration only?

a)

stridor

b)

wheezing

c)

fine crackles

d)

coarse crackles

45.

Which is grating heard on inspiration or exspiration?

a)

fine crackles

b)

friction rub

c)

stridor

d)

rhonchi

46.

What is the primary function of the heart in the cardiovascular system?

a)

To transport oxygen-rich blood away from the heart

b)

To pump blood throughout the body, delivering oxygen and nutrients

c)

To regulate blood flow and pressure before blood enters capillaries

d)

To begin the return flow of deoxygenated blood toward the heart

47.

Which structure in the cardiovascular system is responsible for transporting oxygen-rich blood away from the heart?

a)

Capillaries

b)

Venules

c)

Arteries

d)

Heart

48.

What is the function of capillaries in the cardiovascular system?

a)

To pump blood throughout the body

b)

To transport oxygen-rich blood from the heart

c)

To site of exchange of oxygen, nutrients, carbon dioxide, and waste

d)

To begin the return flow of deoxygenated blood toward the heart

49.

When assessing the older client's cardiovascular system, what is a common finding related to lymphatic tissue?

a)

Increase in lymph nodes

b)

Lymphatic tissue is lost with aging, resulting in smaller or less lymph nodes

c)

No change in lymphatic tissue

d)

Enlargement of lymph nodes

50.

Which of the following is a risk factor for both CAD and PAD?

a)

High cholesterol

b)

Advanced age

c)

Gender

d)

High levels of homocysteine

51.

Why might older clients with arterial disease not exhibit classic symptoms of claudication?

a)

They have high cholesterol.

b)

They experience coldness, color change, numbness, and abnormal sensations.

c)

They have a family history of PAD.

d)

They are physically inactive.

52.

Which demographic factor is specifically mentioned as a risk for PAD?

a)

Advanced age

b)

Gender

c)

Being African American

d)

High stress

53.

Which of the following is a recommended lifestyle change to improve heart health?

a)

Increase alcohol intake

b)

Practice stress-inducing techniques

c)

Stop smoking

d)

Decrease physical activity

54.

What is the purpose of inspecting the chest during a physical assessment of the heart?

a)

To check for skin temperature

b)

To observe heart pulse in the apical area

c)

To measure blood pressure

d)

To assess hair distribution

55.

What is included in the inspection of the peripheral vascular system?

a)

Heart rate and rhythm

b)

Size, color, and venous pattern of arms and legs

c)

Blood pressure levels

d)

Skin temperature and condition

56.

Which condition is associated with severe constriction of bronchioles?

a)

Peripheral edema

b)

Central cyanosis

c)

Jugular venous distension

d)

Radial pulse

57.

What is a bruit in the context of heart assessment?

a)

A normal heartbeat

b)

A noisy, blowing/vibrating sound

c)

A silent pulse

d)

A regular rhythm

58.

What should be analyzed to make clinical judgments based on cardiovascular data?

a)

Only subjective data

b)

Only objective data

c)

Both subjective and objective data

d)

Neither subjective nor objective data

59.

Which of the following is an example of professional boundary crossing in nursing?

a)

Giving your patient your phone number

b)

Maintaining patient confidentiality

c)

Following hospital protocols

d)

Documenting patient care accurately

60.

What does the term "autonomy" refer to in professional nursing values?

a)

Concern for the welfare of others

b)

Right to self-determination

c)

Respect for human dignity

d)

Acting with integrity

61.

Which of the following describes "capillary refill" in a normal assessment finding?

a)

More than 3 seconds

b)

Less than 2 seconds

c)

Exactly 5 seconds

d)

Between 4 and 5 seconds

62.

Identify a professional value in nursing that involves acting in accordance with an appropriate code of ethics.

a)

Altruism

b)

Integrity

c)

Autonomy

d)

Social justice

63.

Which ethical principle in nursing involves respecting a patient's right to make their own decisions?

a)

Beneficence

b)

Nonmaleficence

c)

Autonomy

d)

Justice

64.

How is the principle of beneficence applied in nursing practice?

a)

By providing informed consent

b)

By promoting the patient's well-being and comfort

c)

By ensuring patient confidentiality

d)

By giving accurate information

65.

What does the principle of nonmaleficence emphasize in nursing practice?

a)

Doing good for the patient

b)

Preventing or minimizing harm

c)

Treating all patients equally

d)

Being truthful and honest

66.

Which ethical principle is demonstrated by ensuring equal access to pain management for all patients?

a)

Fidelity

b)

Justice

c)

Veracity

d)

Autonomy

67.

What is the focus of the ethical principle of fidelity in nursing?

a)

Providing informed consent

b)

keeping promises to patients

c)

Promoting patient comfort

d)

Preventing harm

68.

How does the principle of veracity apply to nursing practice?

a)

By advocating for patient comfort

b)

By providing accurate information even when difficult

c)

By ensuring equal treatment

d)

By respecting patient decisions

69.

What is the main difference between utilitarian and deontological theories of ethics?

a)

Utilitarianism focuses on rules, deontology on consequences

b)

Utilitarianism is based on consequences, deontology on rules

c)

Both focus on patient comfort

d)

Both emphasize informed consent

70.

Which ethical principle involves advocating for care that promotes the patient's well-being and comfort?

a)

Nonmaleficence

b)

Justice

c)

Beneficence

d)

Fidelity

71.

In the context of nursing ethics, what does fidelity involve?

a)

Being truthful and honest

b)

Treating all patients equally

c)

Being loyal and maintaining trust

d)

Respecting patient choices

72.

Which ethical issue is concerned with ensuring patients understand their treatment before agreeing?

a)

End-of-Life Decisions

b)

Informed Consent

c)

Resource Allocation

d)

Professional Boundaries

73.

What is an example of respecting patient autonomy in nursing practice?

a)

A nurse explains the risks of a procedure honestly.

b)

A patient with dementia insists on walking alone.

c)

A family wants to continue life support despite a DNR order.

d)

Two patients need the same equipment, but only one is available.

74.

What is moral distress in nursing practice?

a)

The ability to maintain integrity and ethical practice despite challenges

b)

Occurs when a nurse knows the right action but cannot act due to constraints

c)

Reflecting on personal values and emotional responses

d)

Engaging in open discussions about ethical dilemmas

75.

Which strategy is used to promote moral resilience in nursing?

a)

Wanting to give more pain medication

b)

Reflect on personal values and emotional responses

c)

Staffing shortages force compromised care

d)

Patient wants DNR, but family insists otherwise

76.

How can empathy be applied in nursing practice?

a)

Fully focusing on the patient and acknowledging concerns

b)

Understanding and validating the patient’s feelings

c)

Providing physical or emotional support

d)

Teaching and guiding patients in a compassionate way

77.

What is an example of advocacy in nursing practice?

a)

Sitting with a patient who is anxious

b)

Saying, “I can see this is really stressful for you”

c)

Speaking to the healthcare team to ensure a patient’s request for pain management is honored

d)

Adjusting pillows and offering a warm blanket

78.

What are the key characteristics of effective nursing documentation according to institutional and legal standards?

a)

Accurate, complete, objective, timely

b)

Subjective, brief, delayed, informal

c)

Incomplete, biased, untimely, casual

d)

Vague, unstructured, late, personal

79.

Which process should nursing documentation reflect to ensure comprehensive care?

a)

Nursing process

b)

Financial process

c)

Marketing process

d)

Administrative process

80.

What does the abbreviation WNL stand for in nursing documentation?

a)

Within Normal Limits

b)

With New Limits

c)

Without Notable Limits

d)

Within Necessary Limits

81.

Which of the following is a measure to protect confidential patient information?

a)

Limit access

b)

Share freely

c)

Post online

d)

Discuss publicly

82.

What is the role of documentation in nursing communication with other healthcare professionals?

a)

To provide subjective opinions about patient care

b)

To ensure continuity of care with comprehensive, factual information

c)

To record only the positive outcomes of treatments

d)

To communicate in a casual and informal manner

83.

Which organ is located in the right upper quadrant of the GI system?

a)

Spleen

b)

Gallbladder

c)

Left kidney

d)

Sigmoid colon

84.

Which organ is located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen?

a)

Appendix

b)

Stomach

c)

Right ovary

d)

Sigmoid colon

85.

What is a key topic to discuss when taking a nursing history of the GI/GU system related to family history?

a)

Appetite

b)

hx of Cancers

c)

Difficulty swallowing

d)

Recent weight loss