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Nurs 486 Exam 2 Hemodynamics

Total questions: 84

Worksheet time: 21hrs 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

characteristics of the unoxygenated side of the heart. select all that apply.

a)

from the peripheral system to the vena cava

b)

from heart to lungs for oxygenation

c)

small ventricle

d)

large ventricle

e)

left side

2.

characteristics of the unoxygenated side of the heart. select all that apply.

a)

crescent shape

b)

less volume pumped

c)

right side

d)

from aorta to the peripheral

e)

high pressure

3.

characteristics of the oxygenated side of the heart. select all that apply.

a)

heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs

b)

pumped into aorta

c)

left side

d)

from aorta to the peripheral

e)

small ventricle

4.

characteristics of the oxygenated side of the heart. select all that apply.

a)

high pressure

b)

large ventricle

c)

left side

d)

thicker wall

e)

less volume pumped

5.

normal cardiac output

a)

4-6

b)

2.5-4

c)

2-8

d)

6-12

6.

Why would cardiac output be decreased? Select all that apply.

a)

hypoxia

b)

anemia

c)

blood transfusion

7.

Why would cardiac output be increased?

a)

Hypoxia

b)

Anemia

c)

Blood transfusion

8.

What is cardiac output adjusted for?

a)

pressure and flow

b)

BMI

9.

Cardiac output equation

a)

HR x SV

b)

DP + 1/3(SP-DP)

c)

DP + 1/3(PP)

10.

Which is considered a normal heart rate (normal sinus rhythm?)

a)

74

b)

45

c)

120

d)

190

11.

Amount of volume or fluid responsiveness your heart is dealing with; volume in ventricles at the end of diastole. Referenced as the tank of the heart.

a)

Preload

b)

Contractility

c)

Afterload

12.

What does central venous pressure measure?

a)

fluid status

b)

vascular resistance

c)

oxygenation status

d)

pH level

13.

The ability of the heart muscle. Referenced as the pump or the squeeze of the heart.

a)

preload

b)

contractility

c)

afterload

14.

Normal central venous pressure.

a)

2-8

b)

800-1200

c)

2.5-4

d)

4-6

15.

True or false: central venous pressure is measured in the heart.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

The resistance or the plumbing of the heart. What the ventricle must overcome with each contraction and get CO/SV out.

a)

preload

b)

contractility

c)

afterload

17.

The systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is associated with which heart chamber?

a)

Left ventricle

b)

Right ventricle

c)

Left atrium

d)

Right atrium

18.

Normal systemic vascular resistance (SVR).

a)

2-8

b)

800-1200

c)

2.5-4

d)

4-6

19.

The pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) is associated with which heart chamber?

a)

Left ventricle

b)

Right ventricle

c)

Left atrium

d)

Right atrium

20.

Normal pulmonary vascular resistance (SVR).

a)

< 250

b)

800-1200

c)

250-400

d)

400-800

21.

True or false: Frank-Starling's Law - the more volume we have the more stretch we have at the END of diastole the stronger the next contraction will be.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Causes of increased stroke volume. Select all that apply.

a)

Aerobic exercise

b)

Well-tuned myocardium (sinus bradycardia)

c)

Short-term tachycardia

d)

Hypovolemia

e)

Vasoconstriction

23.

Causes of decreased stroke volume. Select all that apply.

a)

Hypovolemia/blood loss

b)

Vasopressors/vasoconstrictors

c)

Long-term tachycardia

d)

Aerobic exercise

e)

Increased venous return

24.

Causes of decreased stroke volume. Select all that apply.

a)

increased atrial inotropy

b)

Increased ventricular inotropy

c)

Enhanced rate of ventricular relaxation

d)

Short-term tachycardia

e)

Well-tuned myocardium (sinus bradycardia)

25.

HR and/or SV is less than normal/decreased

a)

decreased cardiac output

b)

increased cardiac output

26.

HR and/or SV is above normal/increased

a)

decreased cardiac output

b)

increased cardiac output

27.

Causes of decreased cardiac output. Select all that apply.

a)

Low preload

b)

Hypovolemia

c)

Left sided heart failure

d)

Early sepsis

e)

Stable tachycardia

28.

Causes of decreased cardiac output. Select all that apply.

a)

Unstable tachycardia

b)

Dysrhythmias that do not allow contraction (a-fib, v-fib, a-flutter)

c)

Fever

d)

Vasodilation

e)

Sepsis

29.

Causes of increased cardiac output. Select all that apply.

a)

Early sepsis

b)

Stable tachycardia

c)

Low preload

d)

Hypovolemia

30.

Causes of increased cardiac output. Select all that apply.

a)

High fever

b)

Vasodilation

c)

unstable tachycardia

d)

left sided heart failure

31.

This line produces a beat by beat blood pressure, allows the nurse or RRT to draw blood samples for ABGs, and is commonly placed in the radial or femoral artery.

a)

arterial line

b)

central venous catheter

c)

pulmonary artery catheter/Swanz-Ganz

d)

oximetry CVC

e)

flotrac system

32.

Includes PICC large, CORDIS/pressure transducer, Swan-Ganz catheters. Includes a large bore catheter. Can be single or multi-lumen. Allows us administer meds such as vasoactive drips, high/low pH meds or TPN, draw blood samples, and perform dialysis. Often placed in the IJ, SCV, or femoral vein.

a)

arterial line

b)

central venous catheter

c)

pulmonary artery catheter/Swanz-Ganz

d)

oximetry CVC

e)

flotrac system

33.

18 year old female presents to the ER following a single-vehicle rollover MVA. She was unrestrained (no seatbelt), had positive airbag deployment, and positive loss of consciousness. GCS is 3 and she was intubated in the field prior to arrival. Systolic blood pressure is 65 over palpation. MD pages a level one trauma and orders warm normal saline to be given bolus via pressure bag. What else should the nurse expect to set up for for rapid blood transfusion/fluid resuscitation?

a)

CORDIS/pressure transducer (CVC)

b)

Swan-Ganz/PA catheter

c)

arterial line

d)

PICC line

e)

peripheral IV

34.

When we "zero" a line, do we turn the stopcock towards or away from the patient to open to air?

a)

toward

b)

away

35.

True or false: transducer must be at the phlebostatic axis.

a)

true

b)

false

36.

Standing orders for central venous catheters (CVCs). Select all that apply.

a)

zero q4 hrs

b)

maintain steriliity

c)

monitor insertion site/document per protocol

d)

CLABSI bundle - change dressing q7 days and tubing q4 days

e)

change tubing every 24 hrs, dressing change q3 days

37.

Catheter that is threaded into right atrium, right ventricle into pulmonary artery. Measures the pressure in the R and L side of heart, temperature, CVP and CO. Could have four to six lumens.

a)

arterial line

b)

central venous catheter

c)

pulmonary artery catheter/Swan-Ganz

38.

Normal PAP

a)

systolic 15-25, diastolic 8-15

b)

6-12

c)

60-80%

d)

10-15%

39.

Normal PA occlusion or PA wedge pressure

a)

systolic 15-25, diastolic 8-15

b)

6-12

c)

60-80%

d)

10-15%

40.

Which is a possible cardiac complication associated with the insertion of Swan-Ganz catheter?

a)

dysrhythmias

b)

hypertension

c)

hypotension

d)

decreased capillary refill

41.

Parameters of Swan-Ganz catheter/PA catheter. select all that Apply.

a)

cardiac output

b)

mixed venous O2 sat (SvO2)

c)

pulmonary artery pressure

d)

central venous pressure

e)

PA occlusion pressure/wedge pressure

42.

Normal mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2)

a)

60-80%

b)

80-100%

c)

< 60%

43.

Continuously monitoring SvO2 with special triple lumen catheter.

a)

arterial line

b)

central venous catheter (PICC or CORDIS)

c)

pulmonary artery catheter/Swan-Ganz

d)

oximetry CVC (EV1000 clinical platform)

44.

True or false: FloTrac system has a high risk of pneumothorax

a)

true

b)

false

45.

FloTrac system monitors what? select all that apply.

a)

central venous pressure

b)

BP/HR

c)

continuous cardiac output

d)

stroke volume

e)

stroke volume variation

46.

Minimally invasive hemodynamic monitoring system that is placed in the wrist.

a)

flotrac system

b)

oximetry CVC

c)

central venous catheter (CORDIS/PICC)

d)

pulmonary artery catheter/Swan-Ganz

47.

percentage of how much variation in b/w breaths when the pressure changes

a)

stroke volume variation (SVV)

b)

cardiac output (CO)

c)

stroke volume

d)

pulmonary artery pressure

48.

Normal stroke volume variation

a)

5-10%

b)

10-15%

c)

20-25%

d)

30-35%

49.

Causes of increased stroke volume variation (> 15%). Select all that apply.

a)

dehydration

b)

hypovolemia

c)

overhydration

d)

diuretics

50.

Causes of decreased stroke volume variation (< 10%). Select all that apply.

a)

dehydration

b)

hypovolemia

c)

overhydration

d)

diuretics

51.

Non-invasive hemodynamic monitoring system. It is a finger cuff that can be used up to 72 hrs with the EV1000 platform.

a)

clearsight system

b)

flotrac system

c)

pulmonary artery catheter

d)

central venous catheter

52.

What does the ClearSight system monitors what? Select all that apply

a)

heart rate

b)

blood pressure/MAP

c)

continuous CO

d)

PAP

e)

PAWP/PAOP

53.

What does the ClearSight system monitor? Select all that apply

a)

stroke volume

b)

stroke volume variation

c)

systemic vascular resistance

d)

pulmonary vascular resistance

e)

central venous pressure

54.

Retrieved from ABG. More accurate, and determines if patient is fluid responsive.

a)

PaO2

b)

CVP

c)

right atrial pressure (RAP)

d)

left ventricular end diastolic pressure (LVEDP)

55.

retrieved from central line with pressure cable and transducer

a)

PaO2

b)

CVP

c)

right atrial pressure (RAP)

d)

left ventricular end diastolic pressure (LVEDP)

56.

Causes of decreased central venous pressure. Select all that apply.

a)

hypovolemia

b)

major trauma

c)

hemorrhage

d)

dehydration

e)

blood transfusion

57.

Similar to Swan-Ganz, measures pulmonary artery pressure

a)

PaO2

b)

CVP

c)

right arterial pressure (RAP)

d)

left ventricular end diastolic pressure (LVEDP)

58.

Causes of decreased right atrial pressure. Select all that apply.

a)

hypovolemia

b)

major trauma

c)

hemorrhage

d)

dehydration

e)

blood transfusion

59.

similar to wedge pressure, what the ventricle is doing upon the relaxation phase

a)

PaO2

b)

CVP

c)

right arterial pressure (RAP)

d)

left ventricular end diastolic pressure (LVEDP)

60.

Causes of decreased left ventricular end diastolic pressure. Select all that apply.

a)

hypovolemia

b)

major trauma/hemorrhage

c)

mitral valve issues

d)

dehydration

e)

left heart failure

61.

Causes of increased left ventricular end diastolic pressure. Select all that apply.

a)

hypovolemia

b)

major trauma/hemorrhage

c)

mitral valve issues

d)

dehydration

e)

left heart failure

62.

Normal SaO2 levels

a)

60-80%

b)

92-100%

c)

80-100

63.

causes of increased PVR/SVR

a)

hypovolemia

b)

fluid overload

c)

blood transfusion

d)

congestive heart failure

64.

includes isotonic, hypotonic, and hypertonic fluids or IV fluids

a)

cystalloids

b)

colloids

c)

blood products

65.

plasma/volume expanders

a)

crystalloids

b)

colloids

c)

blood products

66.

Which are colloids? Select all that apply.

a)

normal saline

b)

lacerated ringers

c)

albumin

d)

Hespan/hetastarch

e)

Dextran

67.

Indications for blood products. Select all that apply.

a)

active hemorrhage

b)

major trauma (MVA/GSW)

c)

KNOWN previous major blood loss

d)

fluid volume excess

e)

dehydration

68.

Level one trauma emergency blood products. Select all that apply.

a)

PRBC

b)

FFP

c)

platelets

d)

cryo

69.

Examples of blood products. Select all that apply.

a)

PRBC

b)

FFP

c)

platelets

d)

cyro

e)

albumin

70.

activates the heart contraction/pump of the heart to increase cardiac output and increase BP

a)

sympathomimetics

b)

nitroglycerin

c)

colloids

71.

low dose of dopamine

a)

< 5 mcg/kg/min

b)

5-10 mcg/kg/min

c)

> 10 mcg/kg/min

72.

moderate dose of dopamine

a)

< 5 mcg/kg/min

b)

5-10 mcg/kg/min

c)

> 10 mcg/kg/min

73.

higher dose of dopamine

a)

< 5 mcg/kg/min

b)

5-10 mcg/kg/min

c)

> 10 mcg/kg/min

74.

low dose of dopamine drip indications. select all that apply

a)

increase renal perfusion

b)

beta affect

c)

increase UOP

d)

increase contractility

e)

vasodilator

75.

moderate dose of dopamine drip indications. select all that apply

a)

increase renal perfusion

b)

beta affect

c)

increase HR

d)

increase BP

e)

decrease after load

76.

high dose of dopamine drip indications. select all that apply

a)

increase UOP

b)

vasopressor action

c)

alpha-adrenergic agonist

d)

vasoconstriction

e)

decrease preload

77.

normal dose of norepinephrine/Levophed

a)

5-30 mcg/min

b)

40-200 mcg/min

c)

0.01-0.04 units/min

d)

5-200 mcg/min

78.

normal dose of neosynephrine (Phenylephrine)

a)

5-30 mcg/min

b)

40-200 mcg/min

c)

0.01-0.04 units/min

d)

5-200 mcg/min

79.

normal dose of vasopressin (Pitressin)

a)

5-30 mcg/min

b)

40-200 mcg/min

c)

0.01-0.04 units/min

d)

5-200 mcg/min

80.

normal dose of nitroglycerin drip

a)

5-30 mcg/min

b)

40-200 mcg/min

c)

0.01-0.04 units/min

d)

5-200 mcg/min

81.

indications for norepinephrine (Levophed). select all that apply.

a)

vasoconstrictor

b)

increase afterload

c)

decrease afterload

d)

decrease preload

82.

indications for neosynephrine (Phenylephrine). select all that apply.

a)

vasoconstrictor

b)

increase afterload

c)

decrease afterload

d)

decrease preload

83.

indications for vasopressin (Pitressin). select all that apply.

a)

vasoconstrictor

b)

increase afterload

c)

decrease afterload

d)

decrease preload

84.

indications for nitroglycerin drip. select all that apply.

a)

vasoconstrictor

b)

increase afterload

c)

decrease afterload

d)

decrease preload