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Biology Exam 4

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 1hrs 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

If a molecule of CO2 released into the blood your left toe is exhaled from your nose, it must pass through all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

The pulmonary vein

b)

The right atrium

c)

The right ventricle

d)

Inferior vena cava

2.

Which of the following is MISMATCHED with its function?

a)

Diaphragm = muscle that contracts and relaxes to control inhalation and exhalation

b)

Alveoli = location in lungs where gas exchange occurs between blood of circulatory and lungs of respiratory system

c)

Veins = blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart

d)

Arteries = blood vessels that carry blood away from lungs

3.

Why do cells need 02?

a)

To do photosynthesis

b)

To do cellular respiration

c)

To do fermentation

d)

To make macromolecules

4.

Hormone molecules are classified based on their structure as either a lipid-derived or amino-acid derived hormone. Which class of hormones can diffuse directly through the plasma membrane of cells?

a)

Lipid-derived

b)

Amino acid derived

5.

Humans have endoskeletons but other types of skeletons exist, such as exoskeletons and hydrostatic skeletons. Which of the following organisms do you think has an exoskeleton?

a)

Beetle

b)

Frog

c)

Bird

d)

Bacteria

e)

Jelly fish

6.

Arrange the following structures of a skeletal muscle from the largest to the smallest in size:

1. Muscle Fibers

2. Myosin and actin

3. Myofibril

4. Sarcomeres

a)

1, 2, 3, 4

b)

4, 3, 2, 1

c)

1, 3, 2, 4

d)

1, 3, 4, 2

7.

Muscle ______ occurs when sarcomeres shorten, while muscle ______ occurs when sarcomeres lengthen.

a)

Atrophy; repair

b)

Strengthening; weakening

c)

Contraction; relaxation

d)

Relaxation; contraction

8.

Which of these allows your nervous system to "receive input"?

a)

See

b)

Taste

c)

Touch/feel

d)

Smell

e)

All of these

9.

The loss of glial cells has no effect on neuron function.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

In a typical motor neuron, what is the correct sequence in which these structures usually become involved in transmitting a signal?

1. Cell body

2. Axon

3. Synapse

4. Dendrites

5. Axon terminals

a)

4, 1, 3, 2, 5

b)

5, 4, 1, 3, 2

c)

4, 3, 1, 2, 5

d)

5, 4, 1, 2, 3

e)

4, 1, 2, 5, 3

11.

Which of the following could NOT constitute a virus?

a)

DNA plus protein

b)

Protein plus lipid envelope

c)

RNA plus protein

d)

RNA plus protein plus lipid envelope

12.

Why are viruses referred to as obligate parasites?

a)

They use the host cell to reproduce

b)

Viral DNA always inserts itself into host DNA

c)

They invariably kill any cell they infect

d)

They can incorporate nucleic acids from other viruses

e)

They must use enzymes encoded by the virus itself

13.

Which is true of a secondary immune response?

a)

It is bought about by memory cells

b)

It is less effective than a primary immune response

c)

Exposure to the pathogen via a vaccine prevents a secondary immune response

d)

After it occurs, the immune system can only respond to reinfection with the same antigen by mounting another primary immune response

14.

The innate defenses include all of these except:

a)

antibody molecules

b)

inflammation

c)

microbiome

d)

phagocytosis by white blood cells

e)

the skin

15.

Which of the following statements regarding the proliferation of B cells in vertebrate animals is INCORRECT?

a)

Plasma B cells are short-lived and take effect immediately against the antigen

b)

Plasma B cells are long-lived and take effect immediately against the antigen

c)

Plasma B cells secrete antibodies

d)

Memory cells are long-lived and will respond during a second infection by the same antigen

16.

In vertebrate animals, adaptive immunity helps immune defenses. Which of the following is NOT a form of adaptive immunity?

a)

recognition of and specific responses to particular pathogens

b)

skin barrier

c)

antibodies that defend against infection

d)

cytotoxic cells that defend against infection in body cells

17.

In external fertilization, the egg and sperm unite in (or on):

a)

The female reproductive tract

b)

The air

c)

The male reproductive tract

d)

Land

e)

Water

18.

Spermatogenesis and oogenesis differ in that:

a)

oogenesis produces diploid eggs while spermatogenesis produces haploid sperm

b)

oogenesis happens once a month while spermatogenesis occurs all the time

c)

oogenesis is required for sexual reproduction while spermatogenesis is not

d)

oogenesis produces one mature egg while spermatogenesis produces four mature sperm

19.

Diploidy is first re-established following:

a)

fertilization

b)

gastrulation

c)

organogenesis

d)

ovulation

20.

Which of the following is NOT a factor that affects demography?

a)

Number of individuals that migrate out of a population

b)

Death rates exceeding birth rates

c)

Number of individuals surviving to a reproductive age

d)

All of the above affect demography

21.

True or False: Exponential growth can be sustained for a long period of time

a)

True

b)

False

22.

A population of deer grows from 100 to 200 to 600, and when it gets to 600, it levels off. This population must have reached:

a)

exponential growth

b)

carrying capacity

c)

extinction date

d)

peak capacity

23.

With a typical predator and prey relationship, when the prey population increases, then:

a)

the predator population decreases

b)

the predator population remains stable

c)

the predator population increases

d)

the predator population goes extinct

24.

Which best describes resource partitioning?

a)

Two species can coevolve to share identical niches

b)

Competitive exclusion always results in the success of the superior species

c)

Carrying capacity is reached for both species when no new niches are available

d)

Differential resource utilization results in decreased competition between the two species

25.

Pisaster species, an uncommon sea star, was removed from some communities, and the species diversity dropped dramatically. From this, one can conclude that:

a)

uncommon species are more vital to the community than common species

b)

predators are more vital to the community than prey

c)

Pisaster likely consumed dominant organisms

d)

the experiment was poorly designed

e)

removing one species always hurts the community

26.

True or False: Biotic parts of an ecosystem can be defined as all the nonliving elements found within the environment

a)

True

b)

False

27.

A primary consumer is to a herbivore like a primary producer is to a(n) _____.

a)

Carnivore

b)

Omnivore

c)

Autotroph

d)

Apex consumer

28.

The gallbladder is responsible for secreting bicarbonate that neutralizes acidic chyme and a variety of enzymes that aid in digestion of proteins and carbohydrates.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

What is the term for the sac-like organ that secretes digestive juices and has an acidic pH between 1.5 and 2.5?

a)

esophagus

b)

colon

c)

stomach

d)

small intestine

30.

How many regions does the colon have?

a)

5

b)

3

c)

2

d)

1

e)

4

31.

The mixture of partially digested food and gastric juice is called _______.

a)

pepsin

b)

bile

c)

mineral

d)

chyme

32.

Where does physical and chemical digestion begin?

a)

stomach

b)

large intestine

c)

esophagus

d)

oral cavity

33.

Blood moves uni-directionally for the heart around one of two circulatory routes, then returns to the heart again in an open circulatory system.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

Air enters the lungs through the ____.

a)

Primary bronchi

b)

Larynx

c)

Diaphragm

d)

Pharynx

35.

Where is the only place gas exchange occurs?

a)

Nasal cavity

b)

Bronchi

c)

Trachea

d)

Alveoli

36.

How many "pumps" does the heart contain?

a)

5

b)

3

c)

4

d)

1

e)

2

37.

What is the name of the major artery of the body that takes oxygenated blood to the organs and muscles of the body?

a)

Aorta

b)

Bicuspid valva

c)

Tricuspid valve

d)

Ventricle

e)

Atrium

38.

Which of the following is NOT a hormone-secreting gland?

a)

Adrenal

b)

Pancreas

c)

Thymus

d)

Thyroid

e)

Appendix

39.

Hormone production and release are primarily regulated by:

a)

negative feedback

b)

positive feedback

c)

muscular signaling

40.

Which is NOT a function of the skeletal system?

a)

producing blood cells

b)

producing hormones

c)

allowing for movement

d)

protecting internal organs

e)

providing support to the body

41.

At point at which two or more bones meet is called a ______.

a)

sacromere

b)

vertebral column

c)

skull

d)

joint

42.

Which of the following correctly defines the function of smooth muscle?

a)

control locomotion and any other movement that can be consciously controlled

b)

only found in the heart, pumps blood throughout the body and maintains blood pressure

c)

occurs in the walls of hollow organs such as the intestines, stomach, and urinary bladder, and around passages such as in the respiratory tract and blood vessel

43.

What is the function of the glial cells?

a)

specialized cells that signal the release of hormones such as prolactin

b)

cells that provide insulation and signal transduction of neurons

c)

tree-like structures that extend away from the cell body to receive messages from other neurons

d)

cells that provide support functions for the neurons

44.

The "all-or-nothing" signal that comes from neurons when they release a neurotransmitter is called:

a)

Dendritic signaling

b)

Intraneuronal communication

c)

Neurogenesis

d)

Action potential

45.

The firing of a neuron is controlled primarily by which chemical(s):

a)

  Na+

b)

  Na+, K+

c)

  Ca2+, Mg2+

d)

  Na+, Mg2+

46.

What is the function of myelin sheath in the nervous system?

a)

Tree-like structures that extend away from the cell body to receive messages from other neurons

b)

Provides specialized structural support for neurons

c)

Acts as an insulator to keep the electrical signal from dissipating as it travels down the axon and quickens neuronal signaling

47.

The _____ includes the brain and spinal cord, while the _____ includes the nerves in the rest of the body.

a)

PNS; CNS

b)

CNS; PNS

c)

autonomic; sensory-somatic

d)

dendrites; axons

48.

What is the term for the protective layer or protein that all virions have surrounding their nucleic-acid genome?

a)

glycoprotein

b)

acellular

c)

capsid

d)

virus

49.

What is prepared by using live weakened viruses, killed viruses, or molecular subunits of the virus?

a)

apoptosis

b)

viral envelope

c)

attenuation

d)

vaccine

50.

Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Viruses are acellular, and are not classified within any domain because they are not considered alive.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

What molecule on a virus is used by the virus to attach to its viral receptors on the surface of their host cells?

a)

capids

b)

flagella

c)

viral envelope

d)

glycoproteins

53.

Which of these is FALSE in regards to the inflammatory response?

a)

It is a natural response to physical trauma, chemical irritation, or infection

b)

ALL of these are TRUE.

c)

Fevers caused by cytokines can be beneficial for the body

d)

Neutrophils engulf and digest pathogens in the area of inflammation

e)

Mactrophages clean up cell debris and pathogens

54.

White blood cells have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

a)

larger than red blood cells

b)

do not have nuclei

c)

can be found in the blood, lymph, and mucosa

d)

can move by amoeboid locomotion

55.

Which of these are FALSE in regards to antibodies?

a)

Can interfere with a virus or bacteria's ability to infect other cells

b)

Production of antibodies by plasma cells in response to an antigen is called passive immunity

c)

Produced by plasma cells

d)

Mark pathogens for destruction by phagocytic cells

56.

Type I Diabetes is the result of an autoimmune response by the body that destroys pancreatic cells.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Allergies, to harmless pollen for instance, are classified as:

a)

immunodeficiency

b)

delated hypersensitivity

c)

immediate hypersensitivity

d)

an autoimmune reaction

58.

What hormones regulate reproductive cycles in human females? (Select all that apply.)

a)

progesterone

b)

estrogen

c)

testosterone

d)

GnRH

59.

Humans, like most mammals, use a form of internal fertilization called:

a)

oviparity

b)

gestation

c)

viviparity

d)

ovoviparity

60.

Fission, budding, fragmentation, and parthenogenesis are all ways of sexual reproduction.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Fusion of a sperm and an egg is called ____.

a)

pollination

b)

zygotic fusion

c)

fertilization

d)

meiosis

62.

Which of the following statements about the male reproductive system is FALSE?

a)

Semen is a mixture of sperm and fluids

b)

The vas deferens carries sperm from the testes to the ejaculatory duct

c)

Sertoli cells are located in the prostate and produce the hormone testosterone

d)

Both the prostate and the bulbourethral accessory glands produce components of the semen

63.

The number of individuals per unit area is ______.

a)

population distribution

b)

population density

c)

population squared

d)

population size

64.

Survivorship curves relate:

a)

number of predators vs. number of prey

b)

number of individuals surviving to each age vs. time

c)

number of surviving individuals vs. abundance of resources

d)

number of individual dying vs. number of individuals surviving

65.

Humans are an example of a Type ____ survivorship curve/

a)

I

b)

III

c)

IV

d)

II

66.

Exponential growth produces a _____ growth curve.

a)

flat

b)

J-shaped

c)

linear

d)

S-shaped

67.

Populations with limited resources often have intense infraspecific competition and exhibit _____ growth.

a)

erratic

b)

logistic

c)

random

d)

exponential

68.

Which of the following is NOT an adaptation that prey use to avoid predation?

a)

competitive exclusion

b)

mimicry

c)

mechanical defenses

d)

camouflage such as body color or shape that matches the environment

69.

Two species have very similar niches. One species is a better competitor than the other species. What is likely to happen?

a)

The species that is the better competitor drive the other species to extinction

b)

One species starts to prey on the other species

c)

Both species go extinct

d)

The two species become symbiotic

70.

Interaction of two species where one species benefits while the other species is neither helped or harmed is called:

a)

Mutalism

b)

Parasitism

c)

Indifference

d)

Commensalism

71.

Species richness is greatest:

a)

at the equator

b)

in the summer months

c)

near the North and South poles

d)

when there are fewer predators

72.

A native species that has a large influence on the biodiversity of a community is called a:

a)

dominant species

b)

pioneer species

c)

invasive species

d)

keystone species

73.

What is the ultimate source of energy for most ecosystems is:

a)

ATP

b)

the moon

c)

GTP

d)

the sun

74.

Herbivores are also known as:

a)

Carnivores

b)

Primary consumers

c)

Producers

d)

Secondary consumers

75.

A major factor limiting the number of steps in a food chain is:

a)

biological magnification

b)

oxygen

c)

decomposers

d)

energy

76.

Which of the following is NOT a major biogeochemical cycle?

a)

nitrogen

b)

carbon

c)

phosphorous

d)

sulfur

e)

oxygen

77.

When an influx of nutrients causes the overgrowth of algae (and other microorganisms), this is called:

a)

greenhouse growth

b)

eutrophication

c)

algicaion

d)

exponential phase

78.

Which of the following IS an abiotic factor influencing the distributions of terrestrial biomes on Earth?

a)

temperature

b)

light

c)

wind

d)

oxygen

79.

Which terrestrial biome is characterized by their location on the downwind side of mountain ranges, low species diversity, and low, unpredictable precipitation?

a)

Deserts

b)

Chaparral

c)

Savannas

d)

Arctic Tundra

80.

Which of the following is NOT an abiotic factor influencing the distributions of aquatic biomes on Earth?

a)

dissolved solids

b)

light

c)

temperature

d)

precipitation

81.

Which aquatic biome is created where a fresh water source meets the salt water of an ocean?

a)

Coral reefs

b)

Wetlands

c)

Rivers and Streams

d)

Estuaries

82.

How many chambers does the heart have?

a)

4

b)

1

c)

2

d)

6

83.

True or False: Atria is on "top" and ventricles are on the "bottom"

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Which blood vessel carries blood to the heart?

a)

Arteries

b)

Veins

c)

Capillaries

85.

True or False: Multiple sclerosis is a disease where the myelin sheath is gradually lost

a)

True

b)

False