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Worksheets

Patho Term Test 2

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 8hrs 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A childhood form of osteomalacia where growing bone fails to mineralize

(a)  

2.

Causes of Rickets

a)

Calcium deficiency

b)

Phosphate deficiency

c)

Vit. D deficiency

d)

Inadequate exposure to sunlight

3.

Frontal bossing of skull occurs in:

a)

Rickets

b)

Pagets

c)

Osteomalacia

d)

Buerger Disease

4.

Pigeon chest is common in:

a)

Rickets

b)

Pagets

c)

Osteomalacia

d)

Buerger Disease

5.

Goals of treatment are to relieve symptoms and correct the cause of the condition.

a)

Rickets

b)

Pagets

c)

Osteomalacia

d)

Buerger Disease

6.

Childhood form of osteomalacia.

a)

Rickets

b)

Pagets

c)

Osteomalacia

d)

Buerger Disease

7.

Widening and deformation of metaphyseal region of long bones.

a)

Rickets

b)

Pagets

c)

Osteomalacia

d)

Buerger Disease

8.

Is diagnosed through blood tests, physical exams, and x-rays.

a)

Rickets

b)

Pagets

c)

Osteomalacia

d)

Buerger Disease

9.

X-rays show looser zones (pseudofractures)

a)

Rickets

b)

Pagets

c)

Osteomalacia

d)

Buerger Disease

10.

Is diagnosed through blood tests, bone biopsies, and x-rays.

a)

Rickets

b)

Pagets

c)

Osteomalacia

d)

Buerger Disease

11.

Main clinical manifestation for osteomalacia.

(a)  

12.

With osteomalacia, fractures are common in weakened areas. Which areas are especially susceptible?

a)

distal radius

b)

proximal radius

c)

proximal femur

d)

proximal tibia

13.

In severe cases, muscle weakness is an early sign of (a)  

14.

Age may contribute to intestinal malabsorption.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

DEXA is a type of:

a)

medical imaging test

b)

bone biopsy

c)

blood test

d)

cholesterol medication

16.

DEXA is commonly used in cases of (a)   .

17.

Acute or chronic infection of bone marrow.

a)

osteomyelitis

b)

osteomalacia

c)

osteoporosis

d)

Paget disease

18.

Second most common bone pathology.

a)

osteomyelitis

b)

osteomalacia

c)

osteoporosis

d)

Paget disease

19.

Most common bone pathology.

a)

osteomyelitis

b)

osteomalacia

c)

osteoporosis

d)

Paget disease

20.

Softening of bones due to inadequate mineralization.

a)

Rickets

b)

osteomalacia

c)

osteoporosis

d)

osteomyelitis

21.

Loss of total bone mass, results in brittle bones.

a)

Rickets

b)

osteomalacia

c)

osteoporosis

d)

osteomyelitis

22.

Presence of bacteria in blood.

(a)  

23.

Hematogenous osteomyelitis often affects children.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Pain with movement of affected extremity and loss of movement are typically seen in ________________ cases of osteomyelitis.

a)

direct contact

b)

hematogenous

25.

Endocrine disorders, alcoholism, and malignancies are (a)   risk factors for osteoporosis.

26.

Name a risk factor for osteoporosis.

(a)  

27.

Black women tend to have a lower BMD than white or Asian women.

a)

False

b)

True

28.

With osteoporosis, fractures are more commonly seen in:

a)

females

b)

males

29.

Osteoporosis is most common after age _______.

a)

50

b)

60

c)

100

d)

65

30.

Renal Rickets is caused by _____________ ____________.

(a)  

31.

Drugs like anticonvulsants increase the activation of vit. D in the liver.

a)

False

b)

True

32.

Phosphate deficiency is most commonly caused by:

a)

renal loss

b)

malabsorption

c)

poor nutrition

d)

Rickets

33.

How many types of Rickets are there?

(a)  

34.

In Paget disease, which bone is typically affected first?

a)

femur

b)

pelvis

c)

humerus

35.

In Paget disease, which bone is typically affected second?

a)

femur

b)

pelvis

c)

humerus

36.

In Paget disease, which bone is typically affected third?

a)

femur

b)

pelvis

c)

humerus

37.

Presence of infected dead bone (sequestrem) occurs in __________ cases of _____________.

a)

chronic, osteomyelitis

b)

nutritional, rickets

c)

hematogenous, osteoporosis

d)

vit. D-dependent, rickets

38.

A sheath of new bone forming around dead bone.

(a)  

39.

Alendronate, risedronate, zoledronate, Boniva, Fosamax, and Actonel are examples of:

(a)  

40.

Bisphosphonates are the most effective treatment for:

(a)  

41.

Rachitic rosary is found in:

(a)  

42.

___________ is ideopathic, but evidence suggests ____________ and _______________ may be responsible

a)

Paget disease, calcium, phosphorus

b)

Paget disease, genetics, environmental factors

c)

Rickets, kidney failure, celiac disease

d)

Rickets, vitamin D, sunlight

43.

Can cause coxa vera.

a)

Paget disease

b)

Rickets

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

Osteomalacia

44.

Anterior bowing of the femur and tibia is commonly found in:

a)

Paget disease

b)

Rickets

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

Osteomalacia

45.

"Collage of matrix madness"

a)

Paget disease

b)

Rickets

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

Osteomalacia

46.

Usually there is no bone tenderness.

a)

Paget disease

b)

Rickets

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

Osteomalacia

47.

Osteitis Deformans

a)

Paget disease

b)

Rickets

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

Osteomalacia

48.

Bone has "mosaic-like" pattern, separated by areas of dense collagen called "cement lines".

a)

Paget disease

b)

Rickets

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

Osteomalacia

49.

By age 70, this is likely to affect 5% of women and 8% of men.

a)

Paget disease

b)

Rickets

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

Osteomalacia

50.

Most common in N. Europeans.

a)

Paget disease

b)

Rickets

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

Osteomalacia

51.

Treatment for Paget disease.

a)

NSAIDs

b)

Bisphosphonates & calcitonin

c)

Calcium & Vit. D

d)

Cane/walker

e)

Monitoring for neoplasms

52.

Neoplasms may be benign or malignant.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Osteosarcomas result from Paget disease in about _________ of cases.

a)

half

b)

5-10%

c)

10-20%

d)

4-5%

54.

Increased blood flow that may result in high-output cardiac failure.

a)

Paget disease

b)

Rickets

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

Osteomalacia

55.

(a)   is a common site for cancers to metastasize.

56.

Osteosarcomas are the most common primary malignant bone tumour. ____ of cases are found in people under ____ years of age.

a)

50%, 50.

b)

75%, 20

c)

75%, 30

d)

60%, 20

57.

Osteosarcomas are very aggressive.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

(a)   syndrome is a genetic condition that affects connective tissue, which provides support for the body and organs

59.

Distal femur, proximal tibia and fibula are common sites for:

a)

fractures

b)

osteosarcoma

c)

gangrene

d)

osteoporosis

60.

Osteosarcomas often appear in patients with (a)   disease.

61.

Tumours made of cartilage (chondromas) are commonly found in the hands and feet.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Osteomas are commonly found on long bones, flat bones, and the skull.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

Name one way a tumour can be diagnosed.

(a)  

64.

Cartilage-capped tumour with bony stalk.

(a)  

65.

Children with African or Asian ancestry are typically more prone to Ewing sarcoma.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

The most common site for Ewing sarcoma is the femur, followed by the (a)   .

67.

About __% of people with cancer will have bone metastasis at some point in their life.

a)

50

b)

30

c)

24

d)

75

68.

Pain developing from sarcomas stretching the periosteum or trapping nerves is more severe at night.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

Most common type of osteochondroses.

a)

L-P-C disease

b)

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

c)

Osgood-Schlatter disease

70.

Osteonecrosis of the prox. femoral head with later reabsorption.

a)

Osgood-Schlatter disease

b)

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

71.

Pain in the groin, thigh, or knee may be indicative of:

a)

Osgood-Schlatter disease

b)

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

72.

In L-C-P, there are (a)   stages.

73.

In L-C-P, avascular necrosis takes place over 6-12 ________.

a)

months

b)

weeks

c)

days

74.

In L-C-P, absorption of dead bone takes place over _______ years.

a)

2-3

b)

1-2

c)

3-5

75.

In L-C-P, the epiphysis usually regains its normal shape.

a)

False

b)

True

c)

I am so over this.

76.

What does Lucia like to put on top of her poutine?

(a)  

77.

Atlanta-Scottish-Rite Brace is used most often in:

a)

Osgood-Schlatter disease

b)

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

c)

Rickets

d)

Paget disease

78.

Second most common type of osteochondroses.

a)

L-P-C disease

b)

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

c)

Osgood-Schlatter disease

79.

Osgood-Schlatter disease usually occurs in boys aged _________ and girls aged ________.

a)

10-15, 8-13

b)

7-10, 10-15

80.

In Osgood-Schlatter disease, we would aim to relieve tension in the quads.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

In Osgood-Schlatter disease, it is contraindicated to rest, ice, and elevate limb after activity.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

In Osgood-Schlatter disease, treatment should be able to provide relief of symptoms in approx. 1 year. And 1-2 years for complete resolution.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

A high-riding patella can be a complication in Osgood-Schlatter disease.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

LDLs are toxic to endothelium when oxidized.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

The central necrotic core contains (a)   cells and fatty debris.

86.

Abdominal aortic aneurysms is AKA (a)  

87.

Select the three sub-types of atherosclerotic lesions:

a)

Fatty streaks/lines

b)

Fibrous atheromatous plaque

c)

Complicated lesion

d)

Migration of inflammatory cells

88.

What is the first thing to happen in the formation of fibrous atheromatous plaque?

a)

Endothelial cell injury

b)

Migration of inflammatory cells

c)

Lipid accumulation and SMC proliferation

d)

Plaque structure

89.

What is the second thing to happen in the formation of fibrous atheromatous plaque?

a)

Endothelial cell injury

b)

Migration of inflammatory cells

c)

Lipid accumulation and SMC proliferation

d)

Plaque structure

90.

What is the third thing to happen in the formation of fibrous atheromatous plaque?

a)

Endothelial cell injury

b)

Migration of inflammatory cells

c)

Lipid accumulation and SMC proliferation

d)

Plaque structure

91.

What is the fourth thing to happen in the formation of fibrous atheromatous plaque?

a)

Endothelial cell injury

b)

Migration of inflammatory cells

c)

Lipid accumulation and SMC proliferation

d)

Plaque structure