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Sterile Processing & IV Review Lecture 7-9

Total questions: 57

Worksheet time: 2hrs 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Particulate Matter is the extraneous undissolved substances that are present in parenteral solutions.
a)
True
b)
False
2.
Intravenous solutions are the most common sterile product with which you will be working in a pharmacy. 
a)
True
b)
False
3.
Tonicity refers to the number of dissolved substances found in a solution.
a)
True
b)
False
4.
_______________ is when a part of the rubber stopper is broken off by incorrect needle insertion technique or too many sticks.
a)
Microorganisms
b)
Pyrogen
c)
Coring
d)
Particulate Matter
5.
The absence of any viable forms of microorganisms:________________.
a)
Spore
b)
Sterile
c)
Sterilization
d)
All of the above are correct
6.
____________________ uses chemical agents to prevent the microorganisms from being able to use or synthesize the proteins it needs for development and growth.
a)
Chemical sterilization
b)
Filtration sterilization
c)
Moist heat sterilization
d)
None of the above
7.
Which is not a method to prevent the introduction of particulate matter in sterile preparations.
a)
Restrict the traffic into clean area
b)
Clean all surfaces properly and frequently
c)
Use a filter needle when working with an ampule
d)
Use powdered gloves
8.
The pH scale ranges from:
a)
0 to 20
b)
0 to 14
c)
1 to 14
d)
1 to 20
9.
ASHP, OSHA, and TSBP require that warning labels be applied to all hazardous drug containers, as well as shelves and bins where these containers are permanently stored.
a)
True
b)
False
10.
All contaminated surfaces should be cleaned thoroughly _________ times with detergent and water.
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
four
11.
In which laminar airflow hood is the HEPA filter located at the back of the hood facing the preparer?
a)
Horizontal Flow
b)
Vertical Flow
c)
Biological Safety Cabinet
d)
Both Horizontal & Biological Safety Cabinet
12.
In which class of Biological Safety Cabinet (BSC) is the entire cabinet under negative pressure where operations are performed through attached gloves and the cabinet is entirely enclosed with gas tight constructions?
a)
Class I
b)
Class II
c)
Class III
13.
The Horizontal Laminar Flowhood is considered to be an aseptic environmentally controlled device which under normal activity is capable of maintaining at least _________________.
a)
ISO Class 5
b)
ISO Class 6
c)
ISO Class 7
d)
ISO Class 8
14.
When carrying out manipulations inside the vertical laminar airflow hood, all manipulations should be carried out at least _____ or more inches above the work surface area, because of where the HEPA filter is located.
a)
3
b)
6
c)
8
d)
10
15.
When using a containment barrier isolator to prepare cytotoxic or hazardous drugs it should be under _____ pressure.
a)
positive
b)
negative
c)
low
d)
no
16.
Which of the following drugs can be used to treat Leukemia?
a)
dactinomycin
b)
vincristine (Handbook states Vinblastine)
c)
oncovin
d)
Both oncovin & vinblastine
17.
An infection acquired while the patient is in the hospital is known as ____?
a)
Anaphylactic Shock
b)
Nosocomial Infection
c)
Synergistic Drug Infection
d)
Institutional Infection
18.
Measured and Documented evidence, providing a high degree of assurance that a specific process will consistently produce a product meeting its predetermined specifications and quality attributes:
a)
Process Validation
b)
USP 797/NF
c)
Quality Control
d)
Aseptic Preparation
19.
The USP/797 requires daily monitoring and documentation of refrigerators to ensure that the temperature remains between _____ ° Celsius?
a)
2 to 8
b)
4 to 10
c)
6 to 12
d)
8 to 14
20.
The USP defines room temperature be _____ ° Celsius.
a)
8 to 15
b)
15 to 20
c)
20 to 25
d)
25 to 30
21.
The USP 797 requires that labeling for IV preparations which are shipped off-site contain which of the following?
  
a)
clearly readable beyond use dates
b)
storage instructions
c)
instructions for disposal of out-of-date units
d)
all of the above are required
22.
The USP 797 divides contamination into 4 major categories.
a)
True
b)
False
23.
The Texas State Board of Pharmacy does not require which of the following on the “Master Formulation Worksheet” for batch prepared sterile preparations:
a)
the formula, components and compounding directions
b)
the pharmacist and pharmacy technician names and signatures
c)
the specific equipment used during the aseptic preparation and a sample label
d)
evaluation and testing requirements
24.
Which of the following is not required on the label of a sterile pharmaceutical product by the Texas State Board of Pharmacy?
  
a)
Patient birthdate
b)
Patient name
c)
Patient location
d)
Patient identification
25.
Most sterile compounded preparations in the pharmacy fall into the__________________level
a)
Low and medium risk
b)
Low and high risk
c)
Medium and high risk
d)
High and immediate use
26.
Which of the following is not required by the USP/797 on labels and accessory labels for all compounded sterile preparations shipped off-site by a pharmacy?
a)
clearly readable beyond use dates
b)
storage instructions
c)
instructions for contacting the physician in case of emergency
d)
instructions for disposal of out-of date units
27.
_____ Using multiple ampules to be transferred into one final sterile container. 
a)
immediate use risk level 
b)
low risk level
c)
medium-risk level
d)
high-risk level
28.
_____  Only a single transfer from a sterile vial utilizing sterile supplies.
a)
immediate use risk level 
b)
low risk level
c)
medium-risk level
d)
high-risk level
29.
_____ Emergency room treatments to be used within 1 hour.
a)
immediate use risk level 
b)
low risk level
c)
medium-risk level
d)
high-risk level
30.
_____  Sterile ingredients measured/mixed with nonsterile devices before sterilization is performed.
a)
immediate use risk level 
b)
low risk level
c)
medium-risk level
d)
high-risk level
31.
Which form of sterilization is the easiest and most frequently used in the pharmacy?
  
a)
Filtration Sterilization
b)
Chemical Sterilization
c)
Moist Heat Sterilization
d)
Thermal Sterilization
32.
On a pH scale of 0-14 which number would be considered must acidic?
a)
7.4
b)
2
c)
13
d)
9
33.
The Acronym TPN stands for: 
a)
The Pharmacy Network
b)
Time Prognosis Number
c)
Total Parenteral Nutrition
d)
Toxicity Per Nitroglycerin
34.

USP/NF 797 requires that the junctures of ceilings to walls be ________ to avoid cracks and crevices:

a)

painted

b)

squared

c)

coved

d)

textured

35.

The tacky mat should be positioned:

a)

Just outside oft he ISO 8 area

b)

At the main entrance

c)

Just inside of the ISO 8 area

d)

On both sides of the ISO 8 area

36.

Which of the following statements are false?

a)

Horizontal Laminar flow hoods must run at least 30 minutes prior to use

b)

All inside surfaces in the Horizontal laminar flow hood should be wiped using 70% IPA including the HEPA filter

c)

The IV pole and the top of the horizontal flow hood should be cleaned first so the contaminates will fall to the bottom

d)

Use the back to front, side to side, overlapping motion to clean the bottom surface last in a horizontal laminar flow hood

37.

USP/NF 797 requires that all surfaces of the Direct Compounding environment be first cleaned with _____, to remove any soluble residues, then immediately after the same surface with _____.

a)

Spring water, 90% IPA

b)

Deionized water, sterile 70% IPA

c)

Sterile water for irrigation (previously called purified water), sterile 70% IPA

d)

Artisan water, unfiltered 70% IPA

38.

How often must work surfaces in the ISO Class 7 or 8 buffer clean rooms be cleaned?

a)

at least daily

b)

every shift

c)

every 8 hours

d)

PRN

39.

This disinfectant inhibits bacterial growth for a short period of time after application;

a)

iodine

b)

chlorhexidine

c)

hydrogen peroxide

d)

isopropyl alcohol

40.

In which order should the horizontal flow hood be cleaned/

a)

Bottom Surface, Sides, IV Pole

b)

IV Pole, Bottom Surface, Sides

c)

Sides, IV Pole, Bottom Surface

d)

none of the above

41.

when using a containment barrier isolator to prepare cytotoxic drugs it should be under _____ pressure.

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

low

d)

no answer; pressure remains the same

42.

Which of the following drugs is used to treat testicular cancer?

a)

Ifosphamide

b)

Etoposide

c)

Dactinomycin

d)

All of the above

43.

Which of the following cancer drugs are used to treat head, neck, and lung cancer?

a)

Mitomycin

b)

Methotrexate

c)

Mithracin

d)

Only Mitomycin and Methotrexate

44.

Which of the following is NOT considered a requirement for intravenous solutions?

a)

Free of particulate matter

b)

Stable pH

c)

Colorless

d)

Free of pyrogens

45.

Filter sterilization is the easiest and most frequently used in the pharmacy?

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Which of the following is a true statement

a)

Pre-filters must be changed every 6 months

b)

HEPA filters must be changed monthly

c)

Whenever a laminar flow hood is relocated the pre-filter must be changed

d)

None of the above are correct

47.

To prevent glass from falling back into the ampule, the ampule neck should be broken according to our notes at an able of _______

a)

90 degree

b)

45 degree

c)

20 degree

d)

none of the above

48.

Which isolation precaution should be used to prevent contact between potentially pathogenic microorganisms & uninfected persons who have impaired resistance?

a)

blood/body fluid isolation

b)

protective isolation

c)

strict isolation

d)

contact isolation

49.

Which of the following IV Admixtures does NOT require filter tubing when dispensing?

a)

Albumin

b)

Amiodarone

c)

Fat emulsion

d)

Sodium nitroprusside

50.

Which of the following injectables should NOT be stored in the refrigerator?

a)

Vecuronium bromide

b)

Ganciclovir powder

c)

Polymixin B sulfate

d)

None of the above should be refrigerated

51.

The USP 797 divides contamination into 4 major modes of transmission?

a)

True

b)

False

52.

During admixture, proper order of draw is defined as:

a)

process of injecting additives based upon their individual and cumulative chemical stabilities

b)

systematic approach of lining up products in order to be mixed

c)

the process of aseptically drawing air into a sterile syringe

d)

the steps for injecting a needle into the rubber stopper of a vial

53.

Which of the following IV drugs must be admixed in Dextrose 5% solution only?

a)

Albumin

b)

Dopamine

c)

Caspofungin

d)

Bactrim

54.

Which of the following IV Admixtures should be mixed in glass containers when dispensing?

a)

Hydrochloric acid

b)

NTG

c)

Amiodarone if infusion > 2 hours

d)

All of the above

55.

How long must bleach stay wet on a surface in order to perform disinfection?

a)

15 sec

b)

30 secs

c)

2-5 minutes

d)

3-10 minutes

56.

Which of the following injectable(s) must be stored in the refrigerator?

a)

Amphotericin B

b)

Atenolol

c)

Filgrastim

d)

Both Amphotericin B and Filgrastim

57.

Which of the following is NOT suitable for hand-hygiene use in the pharmacy?

a)

Triclosan

b)

Isopropyl alcohol foam

c)

Isopropyl alcohol liquid

d)

All of these are acceptable

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