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WorksheetsExam Review
Total questions: 87
Worksheet time: 44mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
In which country is the population likely to be increasing most rapidly?
a)
Australia
b)
United States
c)
Kenya
d)
France
2.
A sustainable world would be characterized by the
a)
preservation of rare animals
b)
maximum exploitation of natural resources
c)
indefinite existence of human populations
d)
safer storage facilities for toxic wastes
3.
According to the law of supply and demand, what would occur if the supply of oil declined and the demand remained the same?
a)
oil prices would increase
b)
oil prices would drop
c)
oil usage would drop
d)
oil usage would increase
4.
An ecological footprint is the
a)
number of animals a person has killed
b)
amount of land and ocean needed to support one person
c)
number of trees people cut down
d)
mark a person's shoe makes in soft earth
5.
Which of the following is not a developed nation?
a)
Ethiopia
b)
the United States
c)
Canada
d)
Germany
6.
Most of today's environmental problems began during which period(s) in human history?
a)
hunter-gatherer
b)
agricultural
c)
industrial
d)
post-industrial
7.
Hardin's "Tragedy of the Commons" essay addresses the conflicts associated with what environmental challenge?
a)
preventing pollution
b)
protecting shared resources
c)
preserving biodiversity
d)
curbing overpopulation
8.
Which of the following best describes a population?
a)
all members of the same species
b)
all types of organisms living in the same place
c)
all the red birds in an area
d)
members of the same species living in the same place at the same time
9.
which of the following describes soil and temperature in an ecosystem?
a)
abiotic factors
b)
biotic factors
c)
selection factors
d)
unnecessary factors
10.
The process of two species changing genetically in response to long-term interactions with each other is
a)
artificial selection
b)
natural selection
c)
resistance
d)
coevolution
11.
The community of a pond is made up of all the
a)
abiotic factors in the water
b)
habitats in and around the water
c)
resources organisms need
d)
populations of fish, insects, and other living organisms
12.
The organisms most likely to belong to the same species are
a)
bacteria inside a person's body
b)
organisms in a pond
c)
birds in a forest
d)
people at a football game
13.
Which of the following statements about an organism's habitat is NOT true?
a)
A habitat contains biotic and abiotic factors.
b)
A habitat has specific characteristics that an organism needs in order to live there.
c)
An organism's habitat is the place where it lives.
d)
Most organisms can survive if they are taken away from their habitat.
14.
What kind of organism obtains energy only from producers?
a)
decomposers
b)
omnivores
c)
herbivores
d)
all of the above
15.
Which gas makes up 78 percent of our atmosphere but can be used by plants only when transformed by bacteria first?
a)
carbon dioxide
b)
hydrogen
c)
oxygen
d)
nitrogen
16.
If an insect eats a plant and a bird eats the insect, about how much energy from the plant is stored in the insect for the bird to use?
a)
1 percent
b)
5 percent
c)
10 percent
d)
90 percent
17.
Which statement describes how humans are affecting the balance of carbon in the atmosphere?
a)
fewer agricultural crops are planted reducing carbon dioxide
b)
severe drought has increased carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
c)
burning fossil fuels has increased carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
d)
Overgrazing of grasslands has reduced amounts of carbon dioxide
18.
Which of the following are photosynthetic organisms?
a)
fugal decomposers
b)
freshwater algae
c)
intestinal bacteria
d)
deeply buried soil bacteria
19.
The bacteria that live within the roots of a soybean plant are a critical part of the nitrogen cycle because they
a)
transform nitrates into nitrogen gas for release
b)
release nitrogen by decomposing dead plant parts
c)
change atmospheric nitrogen into a usable form
d)
provide the plant with sugars needed for growth
20.
What types of vegetation would you expect to find on an abandoned farm that has remained undisturbed for 150 years?
a)
short grasses
b)
shrubs
c)
young pine trees
d)
tall, mature oak trees
21.
Which of the following is an example of secondary succession?
a)
pioneer plants begin to grow after glacial melting
b)
breaking down of bare rock by fungi and mosses
c)
appearance of weeds in cracks in a concrete surface
d)
growth of plants after a forest is destroyed by fire
22.
What term is used to refer to the many feeding relationships that are possible in an ecosystem?
a)
food chain
b)
food web
c)
energy pyramid
d)
energy transfer
23.
Which of the following is responsible for making nitrogen in the atmosphere usable by living organisms?
a)
nitrogen-fixing bacteria
b)
decomposing bacteria
c)
conversion of nitrogen into carbohydrates by photosynthesis
d)
absorption of nitrogen into water systems
24.
If you visited a savanna, you would likely see
a)
a coastal ecosystem.
b)
large herds of grazing animals, such as rhinos, gazelles, and giraffes.
c)
snow and ice.
d)
a dense forest.
25.
As you travel from the North Pole towards the equator, you would expect to see
a)
temperate deciduous forests, taiga, tropical rain forests
b)
taiga, desert, tundra
c)
tropical rain forests, deserts, taiga
d)
tundra, grasslands, tropical rain forests
26.
Adaptations demonstrated by plants in tropical rain forests include
a)
trees with aboveground roots called buttresss, which increase stability
b)
harness with large flat leaves located in the understory
c)
orchids and vies that use tall tree trunks for support
d)
all of the above
27.
Taiga is
a)
a forest biome dominated by coniferous trees, such as pine, fir and spruce
b)
found mostly in Africa
c)
a cold, treeless, desert-like biome found near the North and South Poles
d)
a dry, rocky biome found in the central part of South America
28.
Animals that live in the desert
a)
are usually nocturnal
b)
hibernate in winter
c)
include camels, moose, and various reptiles
d)
usually have thin skin to absorb water
29.
Which of the following best describes a tropical rain forest?
a)
plants and animals are very similar to year-round warmth and moisture
b)
dense, thick soil that supports a dense layer of plants on the forest floor
c)
very few species of trees, due to poor soil quality
d)
species of animals with specialized ways of surviving in order to avoid competition
30.
The distance north or south of the equator, as measured in degrees, is called
a)
altitude
b)
longitude
c)
latitude
d)
magnitude
31.
The main factor that determines what type of plants grow in a biome is
a)
altitude
b)
temperature
c)
precipitation
d)
temperature and precipitation
32.
Adaptations of desert animas that help them survive in the hot, dry desert often include
a)
searching for water at midday
b)
searching for food at night
c)
thin skin that readily absorbs water
d)
large, bulky size to retain body heat on cold nights
33.
Tropical rain forests are threatened by
a)
a decrease in rainfall at the equator
b)
deforestation and the trade of rain forest plants and animals
c)
a thinning of soil
d)
a decrease in the average temperature at the equator
34.
Which two biomes are known for having very little precipitation?
a)
desert and taiga
b)
tundra and savanna
c)
desert and tundra
d)
prairie and chaparral
35.
Most plants in the chaparral are
a)
mosses and lichens
b)
grasses
c)
evergreen shrubs
d)
evergreen trees
36.
Which of the following is not a limiting resource for determining the carrying capacity for a population of wolves?
a)
food
b)
space
c)
water
d)
clothes
37.
The interaction between a cat and a mouse is
a)
parasitism
b)
predation
c)
commensalism
d)
mutualism
38.
If a pair of mice finds a place to live with plenty of food and no predators, the population will probably undergo
a)
exponential growth
b)
logistic growth
c)
crash growth
d)
bell curve growth
39.
The density of a population is
a)
the number of individuals living in cities
b)
the number of individuals per unit area
c)
the proportion of males and females
d)
the number of individuals born every year
40.
The relationship between a Canadian lynx and a snowshoe hare is an example of
a)
parasite and host
b)
competition
c)
mutualism
d)
predator and prey
41.
Each of the following is an example of a parasite EXCEPT
a)
a cow in a pasture
b)
a tick on a cat
c)
mistletoe on a tree
d)
a roundworm in a human's intestine
42.
Which of the following statements is correct?
a)
An organism's niche is outside its habitat
b)
an organism's niche is only the part of its habitat that it eats
c)
an organism's habitat is a location
d)
habitat and niche are the same thing
43.
In which of the following relationships is neither species harmed?
a)
competition
b)
parasitism
c)
predation
d)
commensalism
44.
Which of the following would most likely cause a large number of density-independent deaths in a population?
a)
predators
b)
winter storms
c)
limited resources
d)
disease-carrying insects
45.
A species of plant has exponential growth after it is introduced into an area where it has never lived. Which statement best describes exponential growth?
a)
the population immediately decreases
b)
within a few years the population increases dramatically
c)
each individual plant grows much larger than usual
d)
the species' reproductive potential declines
46.
The carrying capacity of an environment for a particular species at a particular time is determined by the
a)
number of individuals in the species
b)
reproductive potential of the species
c)
distribution of the population
d)
supply of the most limited resources
47.
An endangered species is
a)
an organism brought to a place where it has not lived before
b)
a species growing on public land
c)
a species in danger of extinction
d)
a species that has disappeared entirely
48.
The difference between a predator and a parasite is that a predator
a)
lives in or on a host
b)
harms another organism
c)
benefits from another organism
d)
usually kills and eats its prey
49.
The illegal hunting and slaughter of African elephants for their ivory tusks is known as
a)
exotic trading
b)
poaching
c)
man slaughter
d)
trappin
50.
The death of many species over a short period of time is known as
a)
endangerment
b)
background extinction
c)
mass extinction
d)
mass threatened
51.
Fire ants in the southeastern US is an example of
a)
keystone species
b)
endemic species
c)
indicator species
d)
invasive species
52.
The passenger pigeon is an example of
a)
an invasive species
b)
a threatened species
c)
an endangered species
d)
an extinct species
53.
A captive-breeding program is being used to increase the populations of
a)
Tennessee tigers
b)
Missouri muskrats
c)
California condors
d)
Alabama anglers
54.
Which of the following would be MOST effective in slowing the loss of biodiversity?
a)
creating large parks in biodiversity hotspots
b)
setting aside small plots of land in a variety of ecosystems
c)
requiring every country to maintain a seed bank
d)
freezing fertilized eggs of endangered animals
55.
Reintroducing the gray wolf in certain areas of the northwestern US
a)
is in accordance with the US Endangered Species Act
b)
is beneficial for all of those working in that area
c)
discourages hunters from hunting other animals
d)
creates a mutualist interaction between wolves and elks
56.
The fact that organisms are adapted to survive in particular environments helps to explain why
a)
non-native plant species never flourish in new areas
b)
captive-breeding programs are often ineffective
c)
habitat destruction accounts for most extinctions
d)
compromise is impossible on environmental issues
57.
Reasons for preserving biodiversity include all of the following EXCEPT
a)
preventing natural evolution
b)
finding new plants that can supplement the world's food supply
c)
isolating unique genetic material so it can be incorporated into existing crops
d)
increasing the chances of discovering organisms with medicinal value
58.
Where are many critical biodiversity hotspots located?
a)
desert and polar environments
b)
islands, tropical rain forests, and coastal areas
c)
cities and developed areas of the world
d)
all of the above
59.
The major human caused of extinction today are
a)
hunting and destroying habitats
b)
polluting and introducing non-native species
c)
both of the above
d)
neither of the above
60.
Germ-plasm banks are unique because they focus on
a)
saving individual organisms
b)
storing genetic material
c)
preserving animal species
d)
all of the above
61.
The statement "It's hot and sunny today," describes
a)
latitude
b)
longitude
c)
climate
d)
weather
62.
Climate in a region is
a)
determined only by seasonal daylight hours
b)
the long-term, prevailing atmospheric conditions
c)
the atmospheric on a given day
d)
never affect by ocean currents
63.
Which of the following correctly states an observation that helps to explain circulation patterns in the atmosphere?
a)
cold air rises and warms as it rises
b)
warm air rises and cools as it rises
c)
cold air can hold more water vapor than warm air
d)
all of the above
64.
Which of the following best describes the effect of a mountain range on the climate of a region?
a)
the coastal side of the range usually has high levels of rain
b)
a desert is often found on the inland side of the range
c)
average temperatures are lower at high elevations than at the base of the mountains
d)
all of the above
65.
Which of the following would occur if Each were NOT tilted relative to the plane of its orbit?
a)
temperature at the equator would become too hot to sustain life
b)
temperate regions would no longer have seasonal changes in climate
c)
all parts of Earth would receive sunlight of equal concentration
d)
polar ice caps would melt due to a rapid increase in global warming
66.
The thinning of the ozone layer
a)
occurs over both polar regions
b)
is related to seasonal changes
c)
will take many years to reverse
d)
all of the above
67.
Latitude strongly influences climate because _____ solar energy falls on areas that are closer to the equator than to the poles.
a)
more
b)
the same amount of
c)
less
d)
sometimes less
68.
Which of the following would NOT be a consequence of a rise in global temperature?
a)
increased polar ice mass
b)
rising sea level
c)
increased frequency of major droughts
d)
increased frequency of major storms
69.
Ultraviolet radiation is particularly dangerous because
a)
it can damage genetic material in cells
b)
little has been done to save the ozone layer
c)
it always leads to the rapid death of organisms
d)
all of the above
70.
During the summer in the Southern Hemisphere, the Northern Hemisphere experiences
a)
summer
b)
winter
c)
a tilt toward the sun
d)
excess rainfall
71.
Which of the following is NOT a function of a wetland?
a)
increasing floods
b)
traps carbon
c)
removes pollutants
d)
prevents coastal erosion
72.
Most of Earth's fresh water is
a)
in clouds
b)
held behind dams
c)
stored in aquifers
d)
frozen in glaciers and icecaps
73.
The majority of marine organisms can be found in
a)
Coastal zone
b)
Euphotic zone
c)
Bathyal zone
d)
Abyssal zone
74.
Which of the following is a type of water conservation?
a)
water your lawn daily
b)
wash small loads of laundry
c)
take short showers
d)
take a long bath
75.
Which lake zone is cool and dark?
a)
Littoral
b)
Limnetic
c)
Profundal
d)
Benthic
76.
Which of the following is an example of non point-source pollution?
a)
runoff from feedlots
b)
unlined landfills
c)
wastewater from a factory
d)
leaking oil tanker
77.
Estuaries
a)
contain a mix of freshwater and saltwater
b)
contain only saltwater
c)
contain only fresh water
78.
What is the largest watershed in the US?
a)
Colorado River
b)
Mississippi River
c)
Missouri River
d)
Coldwater River
79.
What forms the base of an aquatic food web?
a)
phytoplankton
b)
zooplankton
c)
barnacles
d)
fish
80.
The area of land drained by a river is called a
a)
watershed
b)
tributary
c)
estuary
d)
aquifer
81.
As water flows down a river
a)
the oxygen levels increase
b)
the turbidity levels increase
c)
the temperature decreases
d)
it flows faster
82.
Which of the following has the greatest permeability?
a)
sand
b)
silt
c)
clay
d)
loam
83.
Bacteria can kill organisms during eutrophication by
a)
reducing dissolved oxygen
b)
feeding on decaying algae and plants
c)
both a and b
d)
neither a nor b
84.
Which of the following precesses of wastewater treatment filters solid particles with screens and filters?
a)
primary
b)
secondary
c)
tertiary
d)
quaternary
85.
Which of the following types of fishing causes the most devastation to the ocean floor?
a)
purse-seine
b)
trawling
c)
drift net
d)
long-line
86.
Which of the following would be most affected by biomagnification?
a)
zooplankton
b)
small fish
c)
large fish
d)
predatory bird
87.
Which nutrients cause eutrophication?
a)
nitrates and phosphates
b)
nitrates and sulfates
c)
sulfates and phosphates
d)
carbonates and phosphates
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