WorksheetsPhysical Science 2nd Semester Exam Review
Total questions: 113
Worksheet time: 2hrs 45mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Examine the figure. If you were standing under the tree, which object would appear to be moving?
a)
the tree
b)
the airplane
c)
the boy
d)
the building
2.
A passenger in the rear seat of a car moving at a steady speed is at rest relative to
a)
the side of the road.
b)
a pedestrian on the corner ahead.
c)
the front seat of the car.
d)
the wheels of the car.
3.
Which distance can be most accurately measured with a ruler?
a)
the length of a river
b)
the width of a book
c)
the distance between two cities
d)
the size of an object under a microscope
4.
A person walks 1 mile every day for exercise, leaving her front porch at 9:00 am. and returning to her front porch at 9:25 am. What is the total displacement of her daily walk?
a)
1 mile
b)
0
c)
25 minutes
d)
none of the above
5.
A ball is rolled uphill a distance of 5 meters before it slows, stops, and begins to roll back. The ball rolls downhill 9 meters before coming to rest against a tree. What is the magnitude of the ball’s displacement?
a)
4 meters
b)
9 meters
c)
14 meters
d)
45 meters
6.
Displacement vectors of 4 km south, 2 km north, 5 km south, and 5 km north combine to a total displacement of
a)
16 km north
b)
11 km west
c)
6 kn south
d)
2 km south
7.
Speed is the ratio of the distance an object moves to
a)
the amount of time needed to travel the distance.
b)
the direction the object moves.
c)
the displacement of the object.
d)
the motion of the object.
8.
Instantaneous speed is measured
a)
at the starting point.
b)
when the object reaches its destination.
c)
at a particular instant.
d)
over the duration of the trip.
9.
A car traveled 60 km in 2 hours, 84 km in the next 1 hour, and then 68 km in 2 hours before reaching its destination. What was the car’s average speed?
a)
212 km/hr
b)
42 km/hr
c)
148 km/hr
d)
1060 km/hr
10.
The slope of a line on a distance-time graph is
a)
distance
b)
time
c)
speed
d)
displacement
11.
A river current has a velocity of 5 km/h relative to the shore, and a boat moves in the same direction as the current at 5 km/h relative to the river. How can the velocity of the boat relative to the shore be calculated?
a)
by subtracting the river current vector from the boat’s velocity vector
b)
by dividing the river current vector by the boat’s velocity vector.
c)
by multiplying the vectors.
d)
by adding the vectors.
12.
The rate at which velocity changes is called
a)
speed
b)
vectors
c)
acceleration
d)
motion
13.
Which example identifies a change in motion that produces acceleration?
a)
a speed skater moving at a constant speed on a straight track
b)
a ball moving at a constant speed around a circular track
c)
a particle moving in a vacuum at a constant velocity.
d)
a vehicle moving down the street at a steady speed
14.
Suppose you increase your walking speed from 1 m/s to 3 m/s in a period of 1 s. What is your acceleration?
a)
2 m/s2
b)
5 m/s2
c)
4 m/s2
d)
3 m/s2
15.
An object moving at 30 m/s takes 5 s to come to a stop. What is the object’s acceleration?
a)
30 m/s2
b)
-30 m/s2
c)
-6 m/s2
d)
6 m/s2
16.
An object that is accelerating may be
a)
slowing down.
b)
gaining speed.
c)
changing direction.
d)
all of the above.
17.
The motion of an object looks different to observers in different
a)
frames of reference
b)
resultant vectors
c)
directions
d)
speeds
18.
The direction and length of a straight line from the starting point to the ending point of an object’s motion is
a)
resultant vectors
b)
direction
c)
displacement
d)
gravity
19.
The sum of two or more vectors is called the
a)
direction
b)
displacement
c)
resultant vector
d)
frame of reference
20.
A car's speedometer measures
a)
direction
b)
average speed
c)
acceleration
d)
instantaneous speed
21.
AS = total distance/total time is the equation that defines
a)
average speed
b)
instantaneous speed
c)
acceleration
d)
gravity
22.
Because its ____________ is always changing, an object moving in a circular path experiences a continuous change in velocity.
a)
gravity
b)
vector
c)
direction
d)
frame of reference
23.
Freely falling objects accelerate at 9.8 m/s2 because the force of ____________________ acts on them.
a)
speed
b)
direction
c)
velocity
d)
gravity
24.
Accelerated motion is represented by a(an) ____________________ line on a distance-time graph
a)
curved
b)
sloped
c)
downward
d)
upward
25.
When an unbalanced force acts on an object,
a)
the object�s motion does not change.
b)
the object accelerates.
c)
the weight of the object decreases.
d)
the inertia of the object increases.
26.
When a pair of balanced forces acts on an object, the net force that results is
a)
greater in size than both forces combined.
b)
greater in size than one of the forces.
c)
equal in size to one of the forces.
d)
equal to zero.
27.
What kind of friction occurs as a fish swims through water?
a)
fluid
b)
rolling
c)
sliding
d)
static
28.
The forces acting on a falling leaf are
a)
air resistance and fluid friction.
b)
gravity and air resistance.
c)
gravity and static friction.
d)
weight and rolling friction.
29.
An open parachute increases air resistance of a falling sky diver by
a)
decreasing the weight of the diver.
b)
increasing surface area.
c)
increasing the terminal velocity.
d)
reducing fluid friction.
30.
Figure 12-1 shows the motion of three balls. The curved paths followed by balls B and C are examples of
a)
centripetal motion.
b)
constant motion
c)
linear motion
d)
projectile motion
31.
Figure 12-1 shows the motion of three balls. The curved paths followed by balls B and C are examples of
a)
centripetal motion.
b)
constant motion
c)
linear motion
d)
projectile motion
32.
The property of matter that resists changes in motion is called
a)
friction
b)
force
c)
inertia
d)
weight
33.
An orange might roll off your cafeteria tray when you stop suddenly because of
a)
the balanced forces acting on the orange.
b)
the centripetal force acting on the orange
c)
the friction forces acting on the orange.
d)
the orange�s inertia.
34.
Your weight equals your
a)
mass
b)
mass divided by the net force acting on you.
c)
mass times the acceleration due to gravity.
d)
mass times your speed.
35.
The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of Mars is about one third the acceleration due to gravity on Earth�s surface. The weight of a space probe on the surface of Mars is about
a)
nine times greater than its weight on Earth�s surface.
b)
three times greater than its weight on Earth�s surface.
c)
one third its weight on Earth�s surface.
d)
the same as its weight on Earth�s surface.
36.
In which of the following are action and reaction forces involved?
a)
when a tennis racket strikes a tennis ball
b)
when stepping from a curb
c)
when rowing a boat
d)
all of the above
37.
The product of an object�s mass and velocity is its
a)
centripetal force
b)
momentum
c)
net force
d)
weight
38.
What force is responsible for the repulsion between two positively-charged particles?
a)
centripetal
b)
electric
c)
gravitational
d)
nuclear
39.
When opposite poles of two magnets are brought together, the poles
a)
attract each other
b)
repel each other
c)
cancel each other
d)
cause a net force of zero
40.
Which universal force acts only on the protons and neutrons in a nucleus?
a)
electric
b)
gravitational
c)
magnetic
d)
strong nuclear
41.
Which of the following universal forces is the weakest?
a)
electric
b)
gravitational
c)
magnetic
d)
strong nuclear
42.
As an astronaut travels far away from Earth, her weight
a)
decreases because gravity decreases.
b)
decreases because her mass decreases.
c)
increases because gravity increases.
d)
remains the same because her mass remains the same.
43.
The force that keeps an object moving in a circle is called
a)
centripetal force
b)
fluid friction
c)
inertia
d)
momentum
44.
The centripetal force acting on a satellite in orbit
a)
acts as an unbalanced force on the satellite.
b)
changes the direction of the satellite.
c)
is a center-directed force.
d)
all of the above.
45.
A push or pull is an example of a(an) ____________________.
a)
force
b)
net force
c)
weight
d)
friction
46.
The type of force measured by a grocery store spring scale is ____________________.
a)
force
b)
net force
c)
weight
d)
friction
47.
The sum of all the forces acting on an object is called the ____________________.
a)
force
b)
net force
c)
weight
d)
friction
48.
The force that opposes the motion of objects that touch as they move past each other is called
a)
force
b)
net force
c)
weight
d)
friction
49.
It usually takes more force to start an object sliding than it does to keep an object sliding because static friction is usually _______ than sliding friction
a)
lesser
b)
forward
c)
greater
d)
inertia
50.
The two forces acting on a falling object are gravity and ____________________.
a)
air resistance
b)
inertia
c)
momentum
d)
weight
51.
If a golf ball and bowling ball are rolling at the same speed, the ____________________ ball has greater momentum.
a)
golf
b)
bowling
c)
both
d)
neither
52.
In a closed system, the loss of momentum of one object ____________________ the gain in momentum of another object.
a)
decreases
b)
helps
c)
increases
d)
equals
53.
The SI unit of force is the
a)
joule
b)
kilogram
c)
meter
d)
newton
54.
Which of the following relationships is correct?
a)
1N = 1 kg
b)
1 N = 1 kg�m
c)
1 N = 1 kg�m/s
d)
1 N = 1 kg�m/s2
55.
According to Newton's second law of motion, the acceleration of an object equals the net force acting on the object divided by the object's
a)
mass
b)
momentum
c)
velocity
d)
weight
56.
If a force of 12 N is applied to an object with a mass of 2 kg, the object will accelerate at
a)
0.17 m/s2
b)
24 m/s2.
c)
6 m/s2.
d)
12 m/s2.
57.
Newton's third law of motion describes
a)
action and reaction forces
b)
balanced forces
c)
centripetal forces
d)
net force
58.
Which central heating system involves a furnace and a blower?
a)
electric baseboard
b)
forced-air
c)
hot-water
d)
steam
59.
A fluid that vaporizes and condenses inside the tubing of a heat pump is called the
a)
compressor
b)
fuel
c)
refrigerant
d)
condenser
60.
Energy and work are measured in the SI unit called the
a)
Newton
b)
meter
c)
joule
d)
gram
61.
You can calculate an object’s gravitational potential energy by using the equation
a)
E = mc2
b)
KE = 1/2 mv2
c)
PE = 3.14 mh3
d)
GPE = mgh
62.
The process of changing energy from one form to another is called energy
a)
conversion
b)
transfer
c)
conservation
d)
movement
63.
A hot dinner plate has _____________ thermal energy than a similar dinner plate at room temperature.
a)
more
b)
less
c)
the same
64.
Work is a transfer of
a)
energy
b)
force
c)
mass
d)
motion
65.
The energy of motion is called
a)
kinetic energy
b)
potential energy
c)
thermal energy
d)
work
66.
Which of the following is an example of an object with elastic potential energy?
a)
a wind-up toy that has been wound up
b)
a compressed basketball
c)
a stretched rubber band
d)
all of the above
67.
The gravitational potential energy of an object is always measured relative to the
a)
location where the object’s kinetic energy is zero.
b)
position of maximum mechanical energy.
c)
reference level from which the height is measured.
d)
surface of Earth
68.
Which of the following increases when an object becomes warmer?
a)
chemical energy
b)
elastic potential energy
c)
thermal energy
d)
nuclear energy
69.
The energy stored in gasoline is
a)
chemical energy
b)
electromagnetic energy
c)
mechanical energy
d)
nuclear energy
70.
The total potential and kinetic energy of all the microscopic particles in an object make up its
a)
chemical energy
b)
electric energy
c)
nuclear energy
d)
thermal energy
71.
Nuclear power plants are designed to convert nuclear energy into what type of energy?
a)
chemical
b)
electrical
c)
geothermal
d)
mechanical
72.
Solar cells convert what type of energy into electrical energy?
a)
chemical
b)
electromagnetic
c)
nuclear
d)
thermal
73.
Which of the following statements is true according to the law of conservation of energy?
a)
Energy cannot be created.
b)
Energy cannot be destroyed.
c)
Energy can be converted from one form to another.
d)
all of the above
74.
The mechanical energy of an object equals its
a)
chemical energy plus its nuclear energy.
b)
kinetic energy plus its potential energy.
c)
nuclear energy
d)
thermal energy
75.
The kinetic energy of the pendulum bob in the figure increases the most between locations
a)
A and B
b)
A and C
c)
B and D
d)
C and D
76.
The equation E = mc2 relates energy and
a)
force
b)
gravity
c)
mass
d)
work
77.
Fossil fuels currently account for the majority of the world’s energy use because they are
a)
distributed evenly throughout the world
b)
nonpolluting
c)
relatively inexpensive and readily available
d)
renewable energy resources
78.
A drawback of solar energy is that it
a)
cannot be converted directly into electrical energy.
b)
depends on the climate
c)
produces water pollution
d)
is not a renewable resource
79.
Which of the following is a unit of temperature?
a)
Celsius degree
b)
joule
c)
kilogram
d)
calorie
80.
Which of the following devices is based on the property of thermal expansion?
a)
balance
b)
calorimeter
c)
convection oven
d)
thermometer
81.
Thermal energy depends on an object’s
a)
mass
b)
phase (S,L,G)
c)
temperature
d)
all of the above
82.
Energy from the sun reaches Earth mostly by
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
d)
thermal expansion
83.
Matter is needed to transfer thermal energy by
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
d)
both a and b
84.
According to the first law of thermodynamics, the amount of work done by a heat engine equals the amount of
a)
work done on the engine
b)
waste heat it produces
c)
thermal energy added to the engine minus the waste heat.
d)
thermal energy added to the engine plus the waste heat.
85.
The second law of thermodynamics states that thermal energy can flow from colder objects to hotter objects
a)
by convection
b)
only if work is done on the system
c)
spontaneously
d)
when thermal expansion takes place
86.
Which of the following states that absolute zero cannot be reached?
a)
first law of thermodynamics
b)
second law of thermodynamics
c)
third law of thermodynamics
d)
second and third laws of thermodynamics
87.
Which of the following happens in a steam engine?
a)
Fuel is burned outside the engine.
b)
Heat is converted into work.
c)
Hot steam pushes a piston.
d)
all of the above
88.
The transfer of energy as waves moving through space is called :
a)
radiation
b)
convection
c)
conduction
89.
A steam-heating system is most similar to a(an) _______________ heating system.
a)
forced air
b)
hot water
c)
electric baseboard
90.
A mechanical wave moves through a medium, which can be
a)
a solid
b)
a liquid
c)
a gas
d)
all of the above
91.
A mechanical wave generally does NOT
a)
move the medium from one place to another.
b)
move through a medium
c)
move through solids
d)
disturb the medium
92.
Transverse and longitudinal waves both
a)
have compressions and rarefactions.
b)
transfer energy through a medium.
c)
move at right angles to the vibration of the medium.
d)
are capable of moving the medium a long distance.
93.
Which type of mechanical wave needs a source of energy to produce it?
a)
a transverse wave
b)
a longitudinal wave
c)
a surface wave
d)
all of the above
94.
Which wave causes the medium to vibrate only in a direction parallel to the wave's motion?
a)
a transverse wave
b)
a longitudinal wave
c)
a surface wave
d)
all of the above
95.
A disturbance sends ripples across water in a tub. These ripples are an example of a
a)
rarefaction
b)
longitudinal wave
c)
compression
d)
surface wave
96.
When a surfer rides an ocean wave on her surfboard, she is actually riding on
a)
a crest that is toppling over.
b)
a trough of the wave.
c)
the rest position of the wave.
d)
a region of rarefaction.
97.
In an earthquake, a P wave is a longitudinal wave. It moves through soil and rock as a
a)
wavy line
b)
series of faults
c)
series of compressions and rarefactions.
d)
series of crests and troughs.
98.
A period is the length of time it takes for
a)
a disturbance to start a wave.
b)
two complete wavelengths to pass a fixed point.
c)
a wave to travel the length of a rope.
d)
one complete wavelength to pass a fixed point.
99.
To determine the speed of a wave, you would use which of the following formulas?
a)
speed = frequency x amplitude
b)
speed = wavelength x frequency
c)
speed = wavelength x amplitude
d)
speed = wavelength x period
100.
To find amplitude, measure
a)
from a trough to the rest position.
b)
from a crest to the rest position.
c)
neither A nor B
d)
either A or B
101.
Amplitude is related to
a)
the amount of energy carried by the wave
b)
the maximum displacement from the rest position
c)
neither A nor B
d)
either A or B
102.
When a wave strikes a solid barrier, it behaves like a basketball hitting a backboard. This wave behavior is called
a)
constructive interference
b)
diffraction
c)
refraction
d)
reflection
103.
For refraction to occur in a wave, the wave must
a)
strike an obstacle larger than the wavelength.
b)
change direction within a medium.
c)
enter a new medium at an angle.
d)
enter a new medium head-on.
104.
In refraction, when a wave travels from one medium to another, it
a)
changes speeds.
b)
stays in step.
c)
always moves in the same direction.
d)
travels in the opposite direction.
105.
What is one property of a wave that determines how much it will diffract when it encounters an obstacle?
a)
speed
b)
amplitude
c)
polarization
d)
wavelength
106.
The visible light spectrum ranges between
a)
radar waves and x-rays
b)
television waves and infrared rays
c)
infrared rays and ultraviolet rays
d)
ultraviolet rays and gamma rays
107.
You can make a wave in a rope by adding _______ at one end of the rope.
a)
force
b)
energy
c)
polarization
d)
wavelenths
108.
Instead of crests and troughs, as in an ocean wave, a longitudinal wave has compressions and __________ .
a)
stretches
b)
rarefactions
c)
compressions
d)
energies
109.
Waves in a rope are transverse waves because the medium's vibration is__________ to the direction in which the wave travels.
a)
parallel
b)
perpendicular
c)
polarized
d)
frequent
110.
A pebble drops straight down into a tub of water, setting off _________ waves that travel at the boundary between the water and air.
a)
transverse
b)
longitudinal
c)
surface
d)
frequent
111.
In a transverse wave, _________is measured from crest to crest or from trough to trough.
a)
amplitude
b)
wavelength
c)
frequency
d)
speed
112.
Amplitude measures the greatest displacement of a wave from the ________.
a)
top
b)
bottom
c)
rest position
d)
wavelength
113.
The following electromagnetic waves are arranged in order of increasing frequency: infrared, ________, ultraviolet.
a)
visible light
b)
x rays
c)
gamma rays
d)
compression
100 %
