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WorksheetsKeystone Biology Review -- All Units
Total questions: 225
Worksheet time: 4hrs 7mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which one is NOT a type of organic compound?
a)
carbohydrate
b)
lipid
c)
nucleic acid
d)
water
2.
What is the name of the sugar that is composed of many molecules of sugar?
a)
monosaccharide
b)
disaccharide
c)
polysaccharide
d)
monomers
3.
The type of polysaccharide which serves as a strengthening tissue in the cell wall of plants.
a)
cellulose
b)
glucose
c)
sucrose
d)
fructose
4.
What are the building blocks (monomers) of proteins?
a)
lipids
b)
carbohydrates
c)
amino acids
d)
polymers
5.
Which are the two building blocks of lipids.
a)
polysaccharides and amino acids
b)
glycerol and fatty acids
c)
glucose and fructose
d)
peptide chains
6.
Which is the monomer (building block) for nucleic acids?
a)
amino acid
b)
fatty acid & glycerol
c)
nucleotide
d)
monosaccharide
7.
Which is the monomer (building block) for carbohydrates?
a)
nucleotide
b)
monosaccharide
c)
amino acid
d)
fatty acids & glycerol
8.
Which is the monomer (building block) for lipids?
a)
fatty acids & glycerol
b)
nucleotide
c)
amino acids
d)
monosaccharide
9.
Which is an example of a lipid?
a)
oil
b)
sugar
c)
DNA
d)
red meat
10.
Which is an example of a nucleic acid?
a)
oil
b)
sugar
c)
DNA
d)
red meat
11.
What is the ratio of the elements found in carbohydrates?
a)
1:2:1
b)
2:1
c)
1:2
d)
1:4
12.
Carbohydrates are made of...
a)
C H O
b)
C H O N
c)
C H O N P
d)
C H O N S
13.
What is the difference between saturated & unsaturated fats?
a)
Saturated fats have at least 1 C=C bond.
b)
Unsaturated fats have at least 1 C=C bond.
14.
How many different amino acids are there?
a)
4
b)
20
c)
6
d)
46
15.
What is the function of nucleic acids?
a)
store genetic information
b)
store energy (long-term)
c)
store energy (short-term)
d)
build skin, hair, nails, muscles
16.
What is the function of lipids?
a)
store genetic information
b)
store energy (long-term)
c)
store energy (short-term)
d)
build skin, hair, nails, muscles
17.
What compound makes up most of the cell membrane?
a)
phospholipids
b)
carbohydrates
c)
cholesterol
18.
What kind of reaction links monomers together to form polymers?
a)
dehydration synthesis
b)
hydrolysis
19.
What kind of reactions break down polymers into individual monomers?
a)
hydrolysis
b)
dehydration synthesis
20.
Glucose is a _____.
a)
carbohydrate
b)
lipid
c)
protein
d)
nucleic acid
21.
DNA is a ______.
a)
protein
b)
carbohydrate
c)
nucleic acid
d)
lipid
22.
Which macromolecule is shown?
a)
lipid
b)
protein
c)
nucleic acid
d)
carbohydrate
23.
Which macromolecule is shown?
a)
lipid
b)
protein
c)
nucleic acid
d)
carbohydrate
24.
Which macromolecule is shown?
a)
lipid
b)
protein
c)
nucleic acid
d)
carbohydrate
25.
Which macromolecule is shown?
a)
lipid
b)
protein
c)
nucleic acid
d)
carbohydrate
26.
Sugars usually end in....
a)
-ose
b)
-ace
c)
-ats
d)
-ids
27.
Examples of lipids are?
a)
DNA and RNA
b)
amino acids
c)
Fats, oils, waxes, and hormones
d)
vitamins A, B, C, and D
28.
A long molecule consisting of many similar or identical monomers linked together.
a)
polypeptide
b)
polymer
c)
fatty acids
d)
carbon, hydrogen, oxygen
29.
The type of compound that contains carbon atoms bonded to other carbon atoms
a)
carbon
b)
organic
c)
molecule
d)
macromolecule
30.
What does heterozygous mean?
a)
An organism that has the same genes for a trait (TT or tt)
b)
An organism that has different genes for a trait (Tt)
c)
When neither gene is fully dominant; offspring is a mixture of both
d)
the different forms of a trait (hair color--> brown, blonde, red
31.
An allele whose trait only shows up when no dominant allele is present.
a)
hidden allele
b)
dominant allele
c)
recessive allele
d)
present allele
32.
R=round seed
r=wrinkled seed.
Cross a homozygous round with a wrinkled. Which statement predicts the results?
r=wrinkled seed.
Cross a homozygous round with a wrinkled. Which statement predicts the results?
a)
offspring will be Rr
b)
offspring will be RR
c)
round seeds will be recessive to wrinkled
d)
Wrinkled will be observed in half of offspring
33.
A human usually has _____ total chromosomes.
a)
6
b)
22
c)
4
d)
46
34.
This type of inheritance pattern is a MIXTURE of both traits.
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
co-dominance
c)
complete dominance
d)
recessive pattern
35.
Colorblindness is a recessive, X chromosome sex-link disorder. Cross the parents to figure out which percentage of their offspring will be colorblind.
a)
25%
b)
0%
c)
75%
d)
50%
36.
This type of inheritance pattern shows BOTH traits in possible offspring
a)
complete dominance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
co-dominance
d)
dominant pattern
37.
What type of chromosomal abnormality do people with Down Syndrome have?
a)
trisomy 21
b)
monosomy 21
c)
recessive inheritance
d)
dominant inheritance
38.
In fruit flies eye color is carried on the X chromosome. RED is dominant to WHITE. What is the sex and color of the following: XrY
a)
female red
b)
female white
c)
male red
d)
male white
39.
In fruit flies eye color is carried on the X chromosome. RED is dominant to WHITE. What is the sex and color of the following: XRXR
a)
female red
b)
female white
c)
male red
d)
male white
40.
In a pedigree, what shape represents a male?
a)
circle
b)
square
c)
triangle
d)
diamond
41.
the passing of genetic traits from parent to offspring.
a)
heredity
b)
trait
c)
gene
d)
allele
42.
Which of the characteristics is a lion least likely to pass on to its offspring?
a)
fur color
b)
length of tail
c)
scars on leg
d)
body size
43.
Based only on the sex chromosomes in typical human egg and sperm cells at fertilization, the probability of producing a female is
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
75%
d)
90%
44.
What is NOT an example of an inherited TRAIT?
a)
eye color
b)
dimples
c)
cleft chin (like Mrs.Day's chin)
d)
language
45.
Photograph of chromosomes grouped in ordered pairs
a)
pedigree
b)
Punnett Square
c)
Venn Diagram
d)
Karyotype
46.
Chromosome that is not a sex chromosome
a)
Chromosome
b)
Autosome
c)
Sex Chromosome
d)
Homologous pair
47.
Which organisms are used to manufacture human insulin?
a)
Protozoans
b)
Algae
c)
Bacteria
d)
Amoebas
48.
The blood stain most likely belongs to
a)
Bob
b)
Sue
c)
John
d)
Lisa
49.
This diagram represents which of the following?
a)
Gel electrophoresis
b)
Gene therapy
c)
Cloning
d)
Genetic engineering
50.
Which of the following cuts DNA into small pieces?
a)
dissolving blue dye
b)
restriction enzymes
c)
surgically cutting DNA under microscope
51.
A new variety of rice called golden rice has been genetically modified to have vitamin A. People in starving countries can eat this rice and receive the vitamin A. Without this rice people go blind from vitamin A deficiency. What word(s) below best describes this rice?
a)
electrophoresis
b)
DNA fingerprinting
c)
G.M.O
d)
clone
52.
The purpose of selective breeding is to
a)
Get bigger animals
b)
get smaller animals
c)
create animals with desirable traits
d)
create animals with bad traits
53.
Pattern of DNA fragments obtained by examining a person's unique sequence of DNA base pairs is?
a)
PCR
b)
Chromosome
c)
Electrophoresis
d)
DNA Fingerprinting
54.
Why might stem cell research lead to a cure for diabetes?
a)
Use stem cells to grow pancreas cells that make insulin
b)
Use stem cells to make babies that do not have diseases
55.
Are all mutations bad?
a)
Yes
b)
No
56.
A mutation that does NOT alter the protein production is called a
a)
deletion mutation
b)
inversion mutation
c)
silent mutation
d)
transverse mutation
57.
Original: ATC CAT
Mutation: ATC GCAT
What mutation occurred?
Mutation: ATC GCAT
What mutation occurred?
a)
deletion
b)
insertion
c)
silent
d)
transverse
58.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
59.
What is a phenotype?
a)
The expression of a trait; physical appearance.
b)
refers to the genetic makeup of an individual
c)
An organism that has the same genes for a trait (ex. TT or tt)
d)
the passing of traits from parent to offspring
60.
An enzyme acts as a catalyst to a chemical reaction by
a)
lowering the activation energy needed to get the reaction started.
b)
making one of the substrates needed for the reaction.
c)
regulating the temperature at which the reaction takes place.
d)
regulating the pH at which the reaction takes place.
61.
Enzymes provide a site where reactants called substrates can be brought together in an enzyme-catalyzed reaction. The site is called the
a)
enzyme substrate complex.
b)
reaction site.
c)
active site.
d)
lock and key.
62.
A lock and key is sometimes used as a model to promote understanding of enzymes. Which characteristic of enzymes or their action is best illustrated by this model?
a)
The sensitivity of enzymes to changes in pH
b)
The change in activation energy the enzymes cause
c)
The specificity of fit between an enzyme and a substrate
d)
The increase in reaction rate due to the action of the enzyme
63.
What is it called when an enzyme changes its shape?
a)
polar
b)
nonpolar
c)
dehydration synthesis
d)
denature
64.
What type of macromolecule are enzymes?
a)
Protein
b)
Carbohydrate
c)
Lipid
d)
Nucleic Acid
65.
Enzymes need certain environmental conditions in order to function properly. What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?
a)
they die
b)
they denature
c)
they change their amino acid sequence
d)
they work better
66.
The part of the enzyme that the substrate bonds to is called the _____.
a)
active site
b)
activation energy
c)
bond site
d)
peptide bond
67.
Which of these do NOT affect enzyme activity?
a)
Temperature
b)
pH
c)
concentration
d)
Carbohydrates
68.
Which of these is NOT true.
a)
Enzymes can denature (change shape) when the temperature gets too high.
b)
Enzymes can only be used once in a chemical reaction.
c)
Enzymes can denature when the pH changes.
d)
Enzymes speed up chemical reactions.
69.
Which of these is most likely an enzyme? (Based on the suffix)
a)
Sucrose
b)
Galactose
c)
Fructose
d)
Amylase
70.
Which is NOT true?
a)
Enzymes speed up chemical reactions
b)
Enzymes react best at a specific temperature
c)
Enzymes only control ONE type of reaction
d)
Enzymes are made of lipids
71.
What is another name for enzymes?
a)
chemical catalyst
b)
microorganism
c)
biological catalyst
d)
catalyst
72.
Babies do not have well developed system to digest proteins, hence the baby food is prepared after treatement with which enzyme?
a)
protease
b)
lipase
c)
carbohydrase
d)
synthase
73.
What is the optimum pH of pepsin (found in the stomach gastric juice of humans)
a)
5
b)
2
c)
7
d)
9
74.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
75.
The difference in the physical traits of an individual from those of other individuals in a group is called a(n)
a)
change
b)
adaption
c)
species
d)
variation
76.
All rabbits living in a particular area would be an example of a(n)
a)
population
b)
species
c)
fossil
d)
individual organism
77.
which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure?
a)
the wings of a red-tailed hawk
b)
the hind limbs of a house cat
c)
the fins of sharks
d)
the wings of an ostrich
78.
What is suggested by the similarity of early embryos of different species of vertebrates?
a)
no evolutionary relationships between the groups
b)
recent common ancestry
c)
similar environments in the past
d)
evolution froma distant common ancestor
79.
Some organisms that share a common ancestor have features that have different functions, but similar structures. These are known as
a)
vestigial structures
b)
analogous structures
c)
homologous structures
d)
fossil structures
80.
protein sequences in one organism that resemble those of another suggest a
a)
coincidence
b)
lack of evolutionary relationship
c)
great number of mutations
d)
shared ancestry
81.
a measure of how commonly a particular allele occurs in a population is known as the
a)
gene pool
b)
allele frequency
c)
mutation rate
d)
phenotype
82.
Genetic variation can arise from a random change in the DNA of a gene. The change is called a(n)
a)
mutation
b)
gene flow
c)
gene pool
d)
allele
83.
What increases genetic variation when animals move from one population to another (migration)
a)
genetic drift
b)
sexual selection
c)
bottleneck effect
d)
gene flow
84.
The five-factors gene flow, genetic drift, mutation, natural selection and ....
a)
non-random mating
b)
controlled mating
c)
emigration
d)
immigration
85.
Mutations are important because they bring about
a)
death of the organism in which they develop
b)
genetic variation needed for a population to evolve
c)
benefits for the individual, not for the population
d)
Hardey-Weinberg equilibrium within a population
86.
What is speciation?
a)
combining of two species to form one with different traits
b)
isolation that affects mating behaviors
c)
timing of mating that prevents normal sexual selection
d)
divergence of two or more species from an existing one
87.
An earthquake causes an ocean channel top open and separate an island into two. the species on each section are now in
a)
geographic isoliation
b)
behavioral isolation
c)
disruptive selection
d)
temporal isolation
88.
What kind of isolation occurs when two populations of birds have different courtship dances?
a)
geographic
b)
sexual
c)
temporal
d)
behavioral
89.
Two species are in different environments and look very similar. However, that are not closely related. Their resemblance is most likely an example of.
a)
sexual selection
b)
temporal isolation
c)
convergent evolution
d)
divergent evolution
90.
Favors the middle of the population.
a)
Disruptive selection
b)
Stabilizing selection
c)
Directional selection
91.
Middle is wiped out, extremes survive.
Red is previous, blue represents the change.
Red is previous, blue represents the change.
a)
Stabilizing selection
b)
Disruptive selection
c)
Directional selection
92.
The entire curve moves in one direction or the other. Red is previous, blue represents the change.
a)
Stabilizing selection
b)
Disruptive selection
c)
Directional selection
93.
Which of the following ideas proposed by Lamarck was later found to be incorrect?
a)
Acquired characteristics can be inherited
b)
All species are descended from other species
c)
Living things change over time
d)
There is a relationship between an organism and its environment
94.
Which of the following explains how natural selection causes a trait to become predominant in a population?
a)
Individuals with traits that are favorable to the environment reproduce more.
b)
Traits of an individual change in order to adapt to changes in enviornment.
c)
organisms select which traits they wish to inherit
d)
all of these answers
95.
Why would a population with a large amount of genetic variation be more likely to survive a severe climate change in its environment?
a)
Individuals will only create offspring well-suited to the climate change
b)
The individuals would produce more offspring
c)
Individuals better suited to the new climate will help less-suited individuals survive
d)
Some individuals will posses traits better suited to the new climate and be more likely to pass them on
96.
The idea that evolution seems to occur in spurts of time.
a)
stabilizing selection
b)
directional selection
c)
disruptive selection
d)
puntuated equilibrium
97.
Darwin's observation that finches of different species on the Galapagos have many similar physical traits supports the hypothesis that these finches
a)
have the ability to interbreed
b)
acquired traits through use and disuse
c)
all eat the same type of food
d)
descended from a common ancestor
98.
Whales are aquatic mammals that contain a pelvis bone. Even though it does not aid in its movement, the function must have been used by a common ancestor of the whale. Thus, the pelvis is referred to as a(n)
a)
vestigial structure
b)
analogous structure
c)
homologous structure
99.
Which process produced the two different types of beaks in the ground finch and the tree finch?
a)
artificial selection
b)
geographical distribution
c)
natural selection
d)
disuse of the beak
100.
The type of genetic drift that follows the colonization of a new habitat by a small group of individuals is called
a)
the Hardy-Weinburg principle
b)
the founder effect
c)
directional selection
d)
the bottleneck effect
101.
What type of genetic drift occurs when the population size is greatly decreased?
a)
Founder's Effect
b)
Bottleneck Effect
c)
Intrasexual Selection
d)
Intersexual Selection
102.
When there are more organisms than the environment can support.
a)
Genetic Variation
b)
Evolution
c)
Adaptation
d)
Overproduction
103.
"Endosymbiosis" means
a)
Living together
b)
Living inside
c)
Entering together
d)
Joining together
104.
The theory of Endosymbiosis explains
a)
The origin of eukaryotes
b)
How species develop
c)
How bacteria live
d)
Why cells rely on one another
105.
____________ & _________________ are organelles that definitely arose from endosymbiosis.
a)
Rough ER & Smooth ER
b)
Mitochondria & Flagellum
c)
Chloroplast & Mitochondria
d)
Chloroplast and Golgi apparatus
106.
Which of the following would an animal breeder use to increase the number of cows that give the most milk?
a)
overproduction
b)
genetic isolation
c)
acquired characteristics
d)
artificial selection
107.
Why would a population with a large amount of genetic variation be more likely to survive a severe climate change in its environment?
a)
Individuals will only create offspring well-suited to the climate change
b)
The individuals would produce more offspring
c)
Individuals better suited to the new climate will help less-suited individuals survive
d)
Some individuals will posses traits better suited to the new climate and be more likely to pass them on
108.
Which of the following is a term for a group of similar organisms that can reproduce fertile offspring?
a)
individual
b)
population
c)
species
d)
fossil
109.
A group of students measured a ten-square-meter section of a pond ecosystem and recorded observations. Which statement is a testable hypothesis?
a)
The frogs living in the pond represent a population
b)
Water is an abiotic component in the pond ecosystem
c)
If the fish are given more food, then they will be happier
d)
If the frogs are startled, then they will jump into the water
110.
Which term best classifies all of the observations? Observations: two grey wolves, five moose, several species of conifer trees, large granite rock and shallow pond.
a)
population
b)
food chain
c)
ecosystem
d)
community
111.
A researcher observing an ecosystem describes the amount of sunlight, precipitation, and type of soil present. Which factors is the researcher most likely describing?
a)
biotic factors in a forest
b)
biotic factors in a tundra
c)
abiotic factors in a prairie
d)
abiotic factors in an ocean
112.
A species of snapping turtles has a tongue that resembles a worm. The tongue is used to attract small fish. Which best describes the interaction between the fish and the snapping turtle?
a)
predation
b)
symbiosis
c)
parasitism
d)
competition
113.
Which statement correctly describes how nitrogen in the soil returns to the atmosphere?
a)
Soil bacteria convert
nitrates into nitrogen gas
b)
Decomposers directly
convert ammonium into nitrogen gas
c)
Plants assimilate
nitrites and convert them into nitrogen gas
d)
Nitrogen-fixing
bacteria in plant roots convert nitrates into nitrogen gas
114.
Which sequence correctly describes the flow of energy between organisms in the marine food web?
a)
from seals to
penguins to krill
b)
from
whales to krill to small fish
c)
from
sea birds to seals to penguins
d)
from
small fish to penguins to seals
115.
Agricultural runoff can carry fertilizers into lakes and streams. This runoff can cause algae populations to greatly increase. Which effect does this change in the algae population sizes most likely have on affected lakes and streams?
a)
an increase in water level
b)
an increase in water clarity
c)
a
reduction in dissolved oxygen needed by fish and shellfish
d)
a
reduction in temperature variations near the water’s surface
116.
A farmer observed that an increase in a field’s soil nitrogen content was followed by an increase in producer productivity. What does this observation most likely indicate about the relationship between nitrogen and the producers in the field?
a)
Nitrogen was a biotic factor
b)
Nitrogen was a
limiting factor
c)
Nitrogen became a
surplus resource
d)
Nitrogen became a
selection pressure
117.
What interaction is shown between the lion and the zebra in the picture?
a)
predation
b)
parasitism
c)
commensalism
d)
mutualism
118.
Mute Swans are one of the heaviest flying birds and consume up to 8 pounds of vegetation each day. How will the migration of Mute Swans into an area most likely affect the birds native to that area?
a)
The native birds and
the Mute Swans will coexist peacefully together
b)
The native birds will
immediately migrate to another area
c)
The native birds will
decrease in number because there is not enough food for all the birds
d)
The native birds will
adapt to consume less food or different types of food
119.
Which of the following is an abiotic factor?
a)
human
b)
bird
c)
grass
d)
rock
120.
which of the following organisms is best suited to live in the taiga?
a)
moose
b)
parrot
c)
frogs
d)
camels
121.
the diagram suggessts...
a)
energy flows from
secondary consumers to primary consumers in an
ecosystem
b)
tertiary consumers
are the ultimate source of energy in an ecosystem
c)
there are more
tertiary consumers than producers in an energy
pyramid
d)
producers are the
foundation of all energy pyramids
122.
A group of students measured a ten-square-meter section of a pond ecosystem and recorded observations. Which statement is a testable hypothesis?
a)
The frogs living in the pond represent a population
b)
Water is an abiotic component in the pond ecosystem
c)
If the fish are given more food, then they will be happier
d)
If the frogs are startled, then they will jump into the water
123.
Which term best classifies all of the observations? Observations: two grey wolves, five moose, several species of conifer trees, large granite rock and shallow pond.
a)
population
b)
food chain
c)
ecosystem
d)
community
124.
A researcher observing an ecosystem describes the amount of sunlight, precipitation, and type of soil present. Which factors is the researcher most likely describing?
a)
biotic factors in a forest
b)
biotic factors in a tundra
c)
abiotic factors in a prairie
d)
abiotic factors in an ocean
125.
A species of snapping turtles has a tongue that resembles a worm. The tongue is used to attract small fish. Which best describes the interaction between the fish and the snapping turtle?
a)
predation
b)
symbiosis
c)
parasitism
d)
competition
126.
Which statement correctly describes how nitrogen in the soil returns to the atmosphere?
a)
Soil bacteria convert nitrates into nitrogen gas
b)
Decomposers directly convert ammonium into nitrogen gas
c)
Plants assimilate nitrites and convert them into nitrogen gas
d)
Nitrogen-fixing bacteria in plant roots convert nitrates into nitrogen gas
127.
Which sequence correctly describes the flow of energy between organisms in the marine food web?
a)
from seals to penguins to krill
b)
from whales to krill to small fish
c)
from sea birds to seals to penguins
d)
from small fish to penguins to seals
128.
Agricultural runoff can carry fertilizers into lakes and streams. This runoff can cause algae populations to greatly increase. Which effect does this change in the algae population sizes most likely have on affected lakes and streams?
a)
an increase in water level
b)
an increase in water clarity
c)
a reduction in dissolved oxygen needed by fish and shellfish
d)
a reduction in temperature variations near the water’s surface
129.
A farmer observed that an increase in a field’s soil nitrogen content was followed by an increase in producer productivity. What does this observation most likely indicate about the relationship between nitrogen and the producers in the field?
a)
Nitrogen was a biotic factor
b)
Nitrogen was a limiting factor
c)
Nitrogen became a surplus resource
d)
Nitrogen became a selection pressure
130.
What interaction is shown between the lion and the zebra in the picture?
a)
predation
b)
parasitism
c)
commensalism
d)
mutualism
131.
Mute Swans are one of the heaviest flying birds and consume up to 8 pounds of vegetation each day. How will the migration of Mute Swans into an area most likely affect the birds native to that area?
a)
The native birds and the Mute Swans will coexist peacefully together
b)
The native birds will immediately migrate to another area
c)
The native birds will decrease in number because there is not enough food for all the birds
d)
The native birds will adapt to consume less food or different types of food
132.
which of the following organisms is best suited to live in the taiga?
a)
moose
b)
parrot
c)
frogs
d)
camels
133.
Which of the following is an abiotic factor?
a)
human
b)
bird
c)
grass
d)
rock
134.
the diagram suggessts...
a)
energy flows from secondary consumers to primary consumers in an ecosystem
b)
tertiary consumers are the ultimate source of energy in an ecosystem
c)
there are more tertiary consumers than producers in an energy pyramid
d)
producers are the foundation of all energy pyramids
135.
Which Lake Erie tributary is probably most contaminated with PCBs?
a)
Portage River
b)
Ottawa River
c)
Maumee River
d)
Ashtabula River
136.
Often, organisms compete with each other for a food source. Which of the following pairs of organisms compete with each other for food?
a)
mice and rabbits
b)
squirrels and owls
c)
rabbits and green plants
d)
mice and owls
137.
A herd of zebra eating grass includes groups of organisms from different species. These groups best exemplify
a)
a biome interaction
b)
a community interaction
c)
an ecosystem interaction
d)
a population interaction
138.
The Earth's carbon cycle consists of the flow, cycling, and recycling of all of the carbon on the Earth. Every living organism's composition includes the element carbon. How does carbon become part of living organisms?
a)
Producers take in carbon directly from the soil through their roots, and consumers eat the producers
b)
Producers take in carbon dioxide from the air, and consumers eat the producers
c)
Carbon is a part of sunlight and enters through the skins of all organisms
d)
Consumers take in carbon dioxide from the air, and producers eat the consumers
139.
Which process helps to preserve the genetic information stored in DNA during DNA replication?
a)
the replacement of nitrogen base thymine with uracil
b)
enzymes quickly linking notrogen bases with hydrogen bonds
c)
the synthesis of unique sugar and phosphate molecules for each nucelotide
d)
nucleotides lining up along the template strand according to base pairing rules
140.
In a flowering plant species, red flower color is dominant over white flower color. What is the genotype of any red-flowering plant resulting from this species?
a)
red and white alleles present on one chromosome
b)
red and white alleles present on two chromosomes
c)
a red allele present on both homologous cromosomes
d)
a red allele present on at least one of two homologous chromosomes
141.
The endoplasmic reticulum is a network on membranes within the cell, and it is often classified as rough or smooth, depending on whether there are ribosomes on its surface. Which statement best describes the role rough endoplasmic reticulum in the cell?
a)
it stores all proteins for later use
b)
it provides an attachment site for larger organelles
c)
it aids in the production of membrane and secretory proteins
d)
it stores amino acids required for the production of all proteins
142.
Blood type is inherited through multiple alleles, including IA, IB and i. A child has type A blood. If the father has type AB blood, what are all the possible phenotypes of the mother?
a)
O or A
b)
A or AB
c)
A, B or AB
d)
O, A, B or AB
143.
Which type of change in chromosome composition is illustrated in the diagram?
a)
deletion
b)
insertion
c)
inversion
d)
translocation
144.
Which statement describes a cell process that is common to both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?
a)
both cell types carry out transcription in the nucleus
b)
both cell types use ribolsome to carry out translation
c)
both cell types assemble amino acids to carry out transcription
d)
both cell types carry out translation in the
145.
A genetic mutation resulted in a change in the sequence of amino acids of a protein, but the function of the protein was not changed. Which statement best describes the genetic mutation?
a)
it was a silent mutation that caused a change in the DNA of the organism
b)
it was a silent mutation that caused a change in the phenotype of the organism
c)
it was a nonsense mutation thhat caused a change in the DNA of the organism
d)
it was a nonsense mution that caused a change in the phenotype of the organism
146.
Genetic engineering has led to genetically modified plants that resist insect pests and bacterial/fungal infections. Which outcome would most likely be a reason why some scientists recommend caution in planting genetically modified plants?
a)
unplanned ecosysteminteractions
b)
reduced pesticide and herbicide use
c)
improved agricultural yield and profit
d)
increased genetic variation and diversity
147.
Which of the following is primarily responsible for coding of the amino acids used in the synthesis of cellular proteins?
a)
DNA
b)
transfer RNA
c)
ribosomes
d)
Golgi apparatus
148.
Which statement is true of the diagram?
a)
DNA transcription is producing ribosomal RNA
b)
DNA translation is producing messenger RNA
c)
DNA transcription is producing messenger RNA
d)
DNA translation is producing ribosomal RNA
149.
All life is related and descended from a common ancestor.
a)
hypothesis
b)
theory
150.
The universe began about 15 billion years ago.
a)
hypothesis
b)
theory
151.
New tennis balls bounce higher than old tennis balls.
a)
theory
b)
hypothesis
152.
Caffeine raises blood pressure.
a)
hypothesis
b)
theory
153.
Which characteristic is shared by all prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
a)
ability to store hereditary information
b)
use of organelles to control cell processes
c)
use of cellular respiration for energy release
d)
ability to move in response to environmental stimuli
154.
Which characteristic is shared by all prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
a)
ability to store hereditary information
b)
use of organelles to control cell processes
c)
use of cellular respiration for energy release
d)
ability to move in response to environmental stimuli
155.
Living organisms can be classfied as porkaryotes or eukaryotes. Which two structures are common to both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
a)
cell wall and nucleus
b)
cell wall and chloroplast
c)
plasma membrane and nucleus
d)
plasma membrane and cytoplasm
156.
Alveoli are microscopic air sacs in the lungs of mammals. Which statement best describes how the structure of the alveoli allows the lungs to function properly?
a)
they increase the amount of energy transferred from the lungs to the blood.
b)
they incrase the flexibility of the lungs as they expand during inhalation
c)
they increase the volume of the lungs, allowing more oxygen to be inhaled
d)
they incrase the surface area of the lungs, allowing efficient gas exchange
157.
Which example is an activity that a fish most likely uses to maintain homeostasis within its body?
a)
using camouflage to avoid predators
b)
feeding at night to regulate body temperature
c)
moving to deeper water to regulate metabolic wastes
d)
exchanging gases through its gills to regulate oxygen levels
158.
Which statement best describes an effect of the low density of frozen water in a lake?
a)
when water freezes, it contracts, decreasing the water level of a lake
b)
water in a lake freezes from the bottom up, killing most aquatic organisms
c)
what water freezes, it floats, providing insulation for organisms below
d)
water removes thermal energy from the land around a lake, causing the lake to freeze
159.
Which places the levels of organization in order from simplest to most complex?
a)
cell, organ, organelle, organ system, tissue, whole organism
b)
whole organism, organ system, organ, tissue, cell, organelle
c)
organelle, cell, tissue, organ, organ system, whole organism
d)
cell, whole organism, organ, tissue, organelle, organ system
160.
The rate that grass grows is related to the amount of light it receives.
a)
hypothesis
b)
theory
161.
Releases oxygen
a)
photosynthesis
b)
cellular respiration
c)
both
162.
releases carbon dioxide
a)
phtosynthesis
b)
cellular respiration
c)
both
163.
uses carbon dioxide
a)
cellular respiration
b)
photosynthesis
c)
both
164.
creates ATP
a)
cellular respiration
b)
photosynthesis
c)
both
165.
produces sugar
a)
cellular respiration
b)
photosynthesis
c)
both
166.
uses sugar
a)
cellular respiration
b)
photosynthesis
c)
both
167.
Releases oxygen
a)
plants
b)
animals
c)
both
168.
releases carbon dioxide
a)
plants
b)
animals
c)
both
169.
uses carbon dioxide
a)
plants
b)
animals
c)
both
170.
creates energy in the form of ATP
a)
Plants
b)
Animals
c)
Both
171.
Produces sugar
a)
plants
b)
animals
c)
both
172.
uses sugar
a)
plants
b)
animals
c)
both
173.
photosynthesis and cellular respiration are two major processes of carbon cycling in living organisms. Which statement correctly describes one similarity between photosynthesis and cellular respiration?
a)
both occur in animal and plant cells
b)
both include reactions that transform energy
c)
both convert light energy into chemical energy
d)
both synthesisze organic molecules as end products
174.
What process provides a vital connection between the Sun and the energy needs of living systems?
a)
decomosition
b)
cellular respiration
c)
transpitation
d)
photosynthesis
175.
During this cycle, the products fro on process serve as the starting materials for the other. Which of the following materials correspond(s) to box number 3?
a)
sunlight
b)
carbon dioxide and water
c)
ATP (energy) and heat
d)
oxygen and glucose
176.
A protein in a cell membrane changed its shape to move sodium and potassium ions against their concentration gradients. Which molecule was most likely used by the protein as an energy source?
a)
ATP
b)
ADP
c)
catalase
d)
amylase
177.
active in movement of the chromosomes during cell division
a)
centrioles
b)
mitochondria
c)
nucleus
d)
cell wall
178.
storage of digestive enzymes
a)
vacuoles
b)
lysosomes
c)
endoplasmic reticulum
d)
Golgi apparatus
179.
Transports materials within the cytoplasm
a)
endoplasmic reticulum
b)
Golgi apparatus
c)
nucleus
d)
vacuole
180.
Packages secretions
a)
Golgi apparatus
b)
endoplasmic reticulum
c)
vacuole
d)
nucleus
181.
Using a microscope, a student observes a small, green organelle in a plant cell. Which energy transformation most likely occurs first within the observed organelle?
a)
ATP to light
b)
light to chemical
c)
heat to electrical
d)
chemical to chemical
182.
Carbon dioxide and oxygen are molecules that can move freely across a plasma membrane. What determines the direction that carbon dioxide and oxygen molecules move?
a)
orientation of cholestrol in the plasma membrane
b)
concentration gradient across the plasma membrane
c)
configuration of phospholipids in the plasma membrane
d)
location of receptors on the surface of the plasma membrane
183.
A sodium-potassium pump within a cell membrane requires energy to move sodium and potassium ions into or out of a cell. The movement of glucose into or out of a cell does not require energy. Which statement best describes the movement of these materials across of cell membrane?
a)
Sodium and potassium ions move by active transport, and glucose moves by osmosis
b)
sodium and otassium ions move by active transport, and glucose moves by facilitated diffusion
c)
sodium and potassium ions move by facilitated diffusion, and glucose moves by osmosis
d)
sodium and potassium ions move by facilitated diffusion and glucose moves by active transport
184.
A sodium-potassium pump within a cell membrane requires energy to move sodium and potassium ions into or out of a cell. The movement of glucose into or out of a cell does not require energy. Which statement best describes the movement of these materials across of cell membrane?
a)
Sodium and potassium ions move by active transport, and glucose moves by osmosis
b)
sodium and otassium ions move by active transport, and glucose moves by facilitated diffusion
c)
sodium and potassium ions move by facilitated diffusion, and glucose moves by osmosis
d)
sodium and potassium ions move by facilitated diffusion and glucose moves by active transport
185.
The rough endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus work together in eukaryotic cells. What is one way the the rough E.R. assists the Golgi apparatus?
a)
it assembles nucleic acids from monomers
b)
it breaks down old, damaged macromolecules
c)
it packages new protein molecules into vesicles
d)
it determine which protein molecules to synthesize
186.
Which statement supports this description?
In many eukaryotic cells, DNA stored in the nucleus is transcribed into messenger RNA. The mRNA is then transported into the cytoplasm where ribosomes assist in their translation into proteins. Finally, these proteins are packaged and sorted in the Golgi apparatus for use in other parts of the cell or in preparation for secretion into other cells.
In many eukaryotic cells, DNA stored in the nucleus is transcribed into messenger RNA. The mRNA is then transported into the cytoplasm where ribosomes assist in their translation into proteins. Finally, these proteins are packaged and sorted in the Golgi apparatus for use in other parts of the cell or in preparation for secretion into other cells.
a)
various organelles within a cell interact with each other to carry out life processes
b)
organelles within a cell act independently of ceach other at all times
c)
some organelles are more important than other organelles within a cell
d)
only up to three organelles may interact iwht each other at any given moment in time
187.
The cell membrane serves many functions. One of the cell membrane's functions is to help the cell maintain homeostasis. Which of the following statement best supports this claim?
a)
the cell membrane contains a polar region and a nonpolar region
b)
the cell membrane contains proteins
c)
the cell membrane contains phospholipids
d)
the cell membrane regulates what goes in and out of the cell
188.
Since sodium-potassium pumps require an input of energy to operate, they are an example of...
a)
passive transport
b)
facilitated diffusion
c)
filtration
d)
active transport
189.
Most organisms can be divided into two categories - prokaryotes and eukaryotes. What is the main difference between these two categories?
a)
Eukaryotes are living organisms whereas porkaryotes include some nonliving matter
b)
prokaryotes do not possess any means of locomotion and are thus unable to move
c)
prokaryotes do not possess a nucleus or any other membrane-bound organelles
d)
eukaryotes are found in al of the six major taxonomic kingdoms
190.
The movement of oxygen molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is known as __________.
a)
diffusion
b)
osmosis
c)
respiration
d)
photosynthesis
191.
Energy conversion within an animal cell would be severely limited by removal of the cell's...
a)
lysosomes
b)
plastids
c)
chloroplasts
d)
mitochondria
192.
This type of cell does not have bound compartments.
a)
eukaryote
b)
prokaryote
193.
contains DNA
a)
prokaryote
b)
eukaryote
c)
both
194.
contains organelles
a)
prokaryote
b)
eukaryote
c)
both
195.
a bacteria cell is an example of this type of cell
a)
prokaryote
b)
eukaryote
c)
both
196.
contains a nucleus
a)
eukaryote
b)
prokaryote
c)
both
197.
does cellular respiration
a)
mitochondria
b)
chloroplast
c)
endoplasmic reticulum
d)
Golgi apparatus
198.
performs protein synthesis
a)
ribosome
b)
nucleus
c)
Golgi apparatus
d)
vacuole
199.
contains hereditary information
a)
nucleus
b)
vacuole
c)
cell membrane
d)
endoplasmic reticulum
200.
stores water, undigested food, and/or waste
a)
nucleus
b)
vacuole
c)
mitochondria
d)
endoplasmic reticulum
201.
sex cell result
a)
meiosis
b)
mitosis
c)
both
202.
daughter cells are genetically identical to parent cells
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
both
203.
body cells result
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
both
204.
chromatids line up single file
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
205.
final chromosome number is identical to parent cell at the end
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis I
c)
meiosis II
d)
both mitosis and meiosis I
206.
tetrads form
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis I
c)
meiosis II
d)
both mitosis and meiosis I
207.
DNA is replicated
a)
interphase
b)
prophase
c)
metaphase
d)
anaphase
208.
tetrads form
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis I
c)
meiosis II
d)
both mitosis and meiosis I
209.
DNA is replicated
a)
interphase
b)
prophase
c)
metaphase
d)
anaphase
210.
DNA is replicated
a)
interphase
b)
prophase
c)
metaphase
d)
anaphase
211.
Transcription/translation occurs
a)
interphase
b)
prophase
c)
metaphase
d)
anaphase
212.
cytokinesis begins
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
213.
spindle fibers form
a)
prophase
b)
anaphase
c)
metaphase
d)
telophase
214.
Haploid cells result
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
both
215.
Sister chromatids separate
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
216.
crossing over happens
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis I
c)
meiosis II
d)
mitosis and meiosis II
217.
nuclear membrane breaks down
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
218.
nuclear membrane breaks down
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
219.
Which statement best describe the phase of the cell cycle shown?
a)
the cell in in prophase of mitosis because the number of chromosomes has doubled
b)
the cell in in prophase I of meiosis because the number of chromosomes has doubled
c)
the cell in in telophose of mitosis becasuse the cell is separating and contains two copies of each chromosome
d)
the cell is in telophase of meiosis because the cell is separating and contains one copy of each chromosome
220.
Which statement best describe the phase of the cell cycle shown?
a)
the cell in in prophase of mitosis because the number of chromosomes has doubled
b)
the cell in in prophase I of meiosis because the number of chromosomes has doubled
c)
the cell in in telophose of mitosis becasuse the cell is separating and contains two copies of each chromosome
d)
the cell is in telophase of meiosis because the cell is separating and contains one copy of each chromosome
221.
Hemophilia is an inheritable genetic disorder that prohibits the proper formation of blood clots. The recessive gene that causes hemophilia is located on the X-chromosome. So, which of the following statements is true?
a)
if a male offspring is a hemophiliac, his mother must be a hemophiliac
b)
if a female offspring is a hemophiliac, her father must be a hemophiliac
c)
if a male offspring is a hemophiliac, his father must be a hemophiliac
d)
if a female offspring and a hemophiliac, her mother must be a hemophiliac
222.
Which of the following statements is true?
a)
mitosis results in the formation of two haploid gametes which can then combine to form a diploid daughter cell
b)
during the process meiosis, haploid cells are formed. After fertilization, the diploid number of chromosomes is restored
c)
the process of meiosis forms daughter cells which are genetically identical to thier parent cells
d)
the daughter cells formed during mitosis are genetically similar to, though not identical to, their parent cell
223.
Which of the following statements is true?
a)
mitosis results in the formation of two haploid gametes which can then combine to form a diploid daughter cell
b)
during the process meiosis, haploid cells are formed. After fertilization, the diploid number of chromosomes is restored
c)
the process of meiosis forms daughter cells which are genetically identical to thier parent cells
d)
the daughter cells formed during mitosis are genetically similar to, though not identical to, their parent cell
224.
Which of the following best describes the way that genes, chromosomes and DNA are related?
a)
Chromosomes contain several genes, which are made up of sequences of DNA
b)
Genes contain several chromosomes, which are made up of sequences of DNA
c)
Genes contain several sequences of DNA, which are made up of chromosomes
d)
Sequences of DNA contain several genes, which are made up of chromosomes
225.
If a cat has 38 chromosomes in each of its body cells, how many chromosomes will be in each daughter cell after mitosis?
a)
19
b)
76
c)
11
d)
38
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