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WorksheetsMAX 122 final review
Total questions: 73
Worksheet time: 37mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
When can we restrain an adult patient?
a)
If the Physician tells you to
b)
anytime
c)
when the patient is rational
d)
when the patient may harm themselves
2.
Logrolling is used to transfer a patient when suspected of what?
a)
head injury
b)
spinal injury
c)
cardiac arrest
d)
vomitting
3.
Quick onset of severe allergic reaction causing respiratory or cardiac distress:
a)
asthma
b)
MI
c)
anaphylaxis
d)
emphysema
4.
What is a nosocomial infection?
a)
hospital acquired
b)
type of pneumonia
c)
an immune disease
d)
acquired
5.
Ambulatory means:
a)
unable to walk
b)
able to walk
c)
has labored breathing
d)
arrived by ambulance
6.
Epistaxis means:
a)
nosebleed
b)
hair loss
c)
bluish tint of the skin
d)
labored breathing
7.
Anode heel effect is the variation of intensity between?
a)
small and large focal spot
b)
anode and the cathode
c)
mAs and kVp
d)
none of these
8.
Line Focus Principle is the relationship between?
a)
SID and IR
b)
contrast and density
c)
actual and effective focal spot
d)
anode and cathode
9.
Prevents circuit damage if the circuit overloads:
a)
rectifier
b)
resistor
c)
circuit breaker
d)
rheostat
10.
All are found on a control panel except for?
a)
rectifier
b)
kVp
c)
timer
d)
mA
11.
How many posterior ribs should be visualized on a PA chest x-ray?
a)
8
b)
10
c)
7
d)
12
12.
Why do we roll the shoulder forward on PA chest x-rays?
a)
for a better inspiration
b)
moves the diaphragm to lowest position
c)
moves scapulae out of the way of lung field
d)
moves clavicles out of the way of lung field
13.
What is the CR for this projection?
a)
T3-T4
b)
T6-T7
c)
T10
d)
T4-T5
14.
To demonstrate fluid in the right thorax(right lung) which projection is done?
a)
left lateral decubitus chest
b)
supine
c)
right lateral decubitus chest
d)
PA upright
15.
In this projection, the apices are seen free from superimposition of the clavicles. What is it called?
a)
oblique
b)
PA
c)
AP axial (Lordotic)
d)
AP supine
16.
A patient is AP and rotated 45 degrees to the left, what view is this?
a)
RPO
b)
LPO
c)
RAO
d)
LAO
17.
How much do we rotate the patient for and RAO sternum projection?
a)
45 degrees
b)
30 degrees
c)
15 degrees
d)
25 degrees
18.
Obliques of the chest are rotated?
a)
15-20 degrees
b)
30 degrees
c)
45 degrees
d)
none of these
19.
Why is the RAO preferred over the LAO for the sternum?
a)
sternum is projected over the spine
b)
moves diaphragm out of the way
c)
we need to visualize the lungs as well
d)
sternum is projected over the heart shadow
20.
for the RAO sternum, the CR should enter:
a)
2 in left of the spine
b)
2 in right of the spine
c)
4 in left of the spine
d)
4 in right of the spine
21.
For this image, the top of the IR is placed where?
a)
2 in above the sternal angle
b)
at the SC joints
c)
2 in above the suprasternal notch
d)
at the level of the AC joints
22.
To demonstrate the left SC joint, which oblique do we do?
a)
RAO
b)
LPO
c)
LAO
d)
RPO
23.
How much do we rotate our patient for the SC joints oblique views?
a)
30 degrees
b)
45 degrees
c)
none of these
d)
15 degrees
24.
Why do we perform rib x-rays upright when possible?
a)
better inspiration
b)
better detail
c)
more comfortable for the patient
d)
less distortion
25.
When x-raying the upper ribs, the IR should be placed_____the upper border of the shoulders
a)
1 inch below
b)
at the level of
c)
2 inches above
d)
1 inch above
26.
Which projection best demonstrates fractures of the axillary border on the left side of ribs?
a)
left lateral
b)
LPO
c)
RPO
d)
RAO
27.
Which is not a routine projection of the ribs?
a)
lateral
b)
obliques
c)
upper ribs
d)
lower ribs
28.
Which ribs are demonstrated on an LPO projection
a)
right
b)
left
c)
all ribs
d)
obliques do not demonstrate the ribs well
29.
What creates a space charge in the x-ray tube?
a)
electromagnetic radiation
b)
quantum theory
c)
thermionic emission
d)
variable resistance
30.
the Cathode is ?
a)
positively charged
b)
negatively charged
c)
neutrally charged
d)
radioactive
31.
The anode is?
a)
negatively charged
b)
neutral
c)
radioactive
d)
positively charged
32.
The greatest (most abundant) part of the x-ray beam is
a)
characteristic radiation
b)
electrons
c)
heat
d)
bremmstrahlung radiation
33.
Plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior halves
a)
transverse
b)
mid-sagittal
c)
coronal
d)
sagittal
34.
Another name for a kidney stone
a)
renal cysts
b)
Wilm's tumor
c)
polycystic kidney disease
d)
renal calculus
35.
What is an example of battery?
a)
threatening the patient
b)
touching the patient without consent
c)
radiographing the wrong patient
d)
all of the above
36.
What plane divides the body into right and left halves?
a)
sagittal
b)
coronal
c)
transverse
d)
horizontal
37.
Most effective way to stop the spread of infection
a)
PPE
b)
handwashing
c)
hand sanitizer
d)
wearing gloves
38.
what does assault mean?
a)
touching the patient without consent
b)
threatening harm to the patient
c)
hitting the patient
d)
performing the wrong x-ray exam on a patient
39.
Airborne transmission is exposure to:
a)
acid rain
b)
bird droppings
c)
droplets and dust particles
d)
dirty exam tables
40.
A sphygmomanometer is used to
a)
hear heatbeat
b)
measure blood pressure
c)
measure body temperature
d)
hear the blood pressure
41.
kills all disease causing microorganisms
a)
disinfection
b)
medical asepsis
c)
sterilization
d)
cleaning
42.
process of eliminating as many microorganisms as possible using a disinfectant or washing:
a)
boiling
b)
medical asepsis
c)
surgical asepsis
d)
autoclave
43.
What can we use to restrain patients who are unable to cooperate?
a)
sandbags
b)
handgrips
c)
restraint straps
d)
compression bands
44.
Law for patient confidentiality
a)
CDC
b)
HIPAA
c)
ALARA
d)
ARRT
45.
Primary source of diagnostic x-rays
a)
characteristic
b)
bremsstrahlung
c)
Compton
d)
photoelectric
46.
This is a safety feature when the automatic exposure control is used
a)
falling load generator
b)
back-up timer
c)
minimun response time
d)
ionization chamber
47.
The 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are called?
a)
false
b)
true
c)
floating
d)
axillary
48.
The clavicle articulates with the sternum to form the
a)
AC joints
b)
costovertebral articu
c)
costochondrial articulations
d)
SC joints
49.
The most superior part of the sternum is called?
a)
xiphoid process
b)
manubrium
c)
sternal angle
d)
gladiolus
50.
The most inferior part of the sternum is called the
a)
manubrium
b)
xiphoid process
c)
sternal angle
d)
gladiolus
51.
Where the rib attaches to the sternum
a)
costochondral articulation
b)
costovertebral articulation
c)
SC joints
d)
AC joints
52.
What separates the thorax from the abdominal cavity
a)
mediastinum
b)
left lung
c)
right lung
d)
diaphragm
53.
What is the CR for the PA CXR?
a)
T10
b)
T6-T7
c)
T3-T4
d)
L4-L5
54.
What is the CR for this Image? (hint: it is supine)
a)
T6-T7
b)
T10
c)
L4-L5
d)
Iliac crest
55.
Which of the following views are included in the abdomen series?
a)
KUB
b)
PA chest
c)
all of these
d)
Upright abdomen
56.
What is the CR for the upright abdomen?
a)
iliac crest
b)
2 inches above the iliac crest
c)
umbilicus
d)
symphysis pubis
57.
HIPAA's Privacy Rule protects PHI when?
a)
electronically
b)
written
c)
spoken
d)
all of these
58.
What is the view that is used to demonstrate air/fluid levels if a patient cannot stand?
a)
Lateral decubitus
b)
RAO
c)
LAO
d)
KUB
59.
A fomite is?
a)
bug
b)
mosquito
c)
all of these
d)
an infected pillowcase
60.
What is the first thing you do after a needlestck?
a)
call the Dr
b)
call the supervisor
c)
clean the area(first aid)
d)
go to the ER
61.
what is a vector?
a)
an organism that can be transmitted from person to person
b)
contaminated wheelchair
c)
an infected animal
d)
none of these
62.
these are all pulse sites except for?
a)
axillary
b)
pedal
c)
radial
d)
apical
63.
when lifting a heavy object....
a)
keep broad base support
b)
object close to center of the body
c)
bend at the kness
d)
all of these
64.
_____will contain guidelines for professional conduct for radiologic techs
a)
ARRT
b)
PAtient bill of rights
c)
doctrine of ethics
d)
ASRT code of ethics
65.
res ipsa loquitor means?
a)
malpractice
b)
the thing speaks for itself
c)
the technologist is solely responsible for their actions
d)
HIPAA breach
66.
what is considered false imprisonment?
a)
closing the door before an exam
b)
exposing the patient's body during an exam
c)
using sandbags or tape to restrain a patient
d)
telling the patient to wait until x-rays are read
67.
If a patient has Emphysema, what should you do?
a)
increase your technique
b)
exposure should be decreased
c)
tell them to breathe normal
d)
none of these
68.
The radiation dose to organs closer to the entrance beam.....
a)
is higher than the exit
b)
is lower than the exit
c)
the same as the exit
d)
none of these
69.
All of the following reduce the patient's dose except for?
a)
focal spot size
b)
communication
c)
proper positioning
d)
correct technique
70.
The target of the x-ray tube (anode) is made up of
a)
steel
b)
rare earth metals
c)
tungsten
d)
copper
71.
___is an example of a procedural factor problem
a)
necklace left on
b)
wrong SID
c)
wrong kVp
d)
equipment malfunction
72.
This measures a patient's thickness
a)
tongs
b)
circuit
c)
phototimer
d)
calipers
73.
The last step in effective image critique is?
a)
classify
b)
corrective action
c)
the cause of the problem
d)
technical factors
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