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WorksheetsIES Final
Total questions: 62
Worksheet time: 31mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
3) Atoms that have an electrical charge due to a gain or loss of electrons are called ________.
a)
A) ions
b)
B) isotopes
c)
C) isochrons
d)
D) neutrons
2.
7) Which of the following silicate minerals is the most abundant in Earth's crust?
a)
A) pyroxene
b)
B) olivine
c)
C) garnet
d)
D) feldspars
3.
11) The resistance of a mineral to scratching or abrasion is known as ________.
a)
A) luster
b)
B) cleavage
c)
C) streak
d)
D) hardness
4.
19) Which the following are the positively charged particles in an atom's nucleus?
a)
A) protons
b)
B) neutrons
c)
C) ions
d)
D) electrons
5.
21) Which of the following properties would be least useful for identifying a sample of calcite?
a)
A) reaction to hydrochloric acid
b)
B) three planes of cleavage
c)
C) white color
d)
D) hardness of 3 on the Mohs scale
6.
24) If a mineral has a specific gravity of 3, it must be ________ times as dense as water.
a)
A) 1
b)
B) 2
c)
C) 3
d)
D) 4
7.
36) The terms bladed, fibrous, cubic, and platy describe ________.
a)
A) tenacity
b)
B) mineral strength
c)
C) crystal habit
d)
D) density
8.
34) Which of the following elements has the most valance electrons in its outermost shell?
a)
A) carbon
b)
B) nitrogen
c)
C) oxygen
d)
D) helium
9.
13) You are handed a sample of an unknown silicate mineral. Which two elements must it contain?
a)
A) silicon and oxygen
b)
B) iron and silicon
c)
C) carbon and hydrogen
d)
D) silicon and sodium
10.
8) Calcite, halite, gypsum, and quartz are all light colored minerals with a similar appearance; however each mineral has a diagnostic property that makes it distinguishable from the others. Discuss in detail how you could easily identify these minerals.
a)
Answer: Calcite reacts with acid and has three cleavage angles at non right angles. Halite is salty with cleavage planes three directions of cleavage at right angles. Gypsum is very soft, can be scratched with your fingernail. Quartz has a conchoidal fracture and will scratch glass.
b)
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11.
6) Rocks that contain crystals that are roughly equal in size and can be identified with the unaided eye are said to exhibit a ________ texture.
a)
A) fine-grained
b)
B) coarse-grained
c)
C) glassy
d)
D) porphyritic
12.
32) The rock ________ is a description of how one rock may be transformed into another kind of rock through various internal and external processes.
a)
A) formation
b)
B) chart
c)
C) cycle
d)
D) group
13.
16) Detrital sedimentary rocks are classified and named principally on the basis of ________.
a)
A) grain size
b)
B) location
c)
C) rock color
d)
D) composition
14.
29) ________ is formed when carbon dioxide dissolves in rainwater, and this mildly reactive substance aids chemical weathering.
a)
A) Carbonic acid
b)
B) Hydrochloric acid
c)
C) Clay
d)
D) Limestone
15.
34) Which of the following is a chemical sedimentary rock?
a)
A) travertine
b)
B) coquina
c)
C) coal
d)
D) sandstone
16.
3) Why would intrusive rocks chemically weather more quickly than extrusive rocks? Why would mafic rocks chemically weather more easily than felsic rocks?
a)
Answer: There are several reasons that intrusive rocks would chemically weather more quickly than extrusive rocks. The place they form is the first reason: by definition, extrusive igneous rocks form at Earth's surface, which is also where weathering happens. For intrusive igneous rocks to experience weathering at Earth's surface, they must first go through an additional step: uplift sufficient to cause exposure. Second is the issue of grain size. Minerals weather from the outside in. Smaller mineral grains have a greater amount of surface per unit of volume, while relatively coarse crystals in plutons have less reactive surface area. Basaltic (mafic) rocks have a greater proportion of dark silicate minerals, which are enriched in the elements iron and magnesium, both of which are susceptible to oxidation. Felsic rocks have a higher proportion of quartz, which is stable at Earth surface conditions. The higher the temperature of formation of the minerals in the rock, the quicker that rock will weather and breakdown. If you look at Bowen's, the higher the temperature regime, the order is predicted in this sequence.
b)
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17.
7) Both sedimentary and metamorphic rocks exhibit layering. Explain how the layers develop for each rock type and give the name for the layering.
a)
Answer: Sedimentary rocks form layers through deposition. The sediment is compacted and cemented (lithified) to create a sedimentary rock. This type of layering is called bedding. Metamorphic rocks may develop layers when differential stress is applied to the rock. The minerals become reoriented and realigned at right angles to the stress. This type of layering is called foliation.
b)
k
18.
11) Which of the following was missing from Alfred Wegener's hypothesis?
a)
A) the geometrical fit between South America and Africa
b)
B) late Paleozoic glacial features
c)
C) paleomagnetic data from ocean crust
d)
D) similar fossils on widely separated continents
19.
27) During the first two decades of the twentieth century, ________ was a vigorous proponent of continental drift.
a)
A) Nicolas Steno
b)
B) Friedrich Mohs
c)
C) Alfred Wegener
d)
D) N. L. Bowen
20.
8) The area of crust directly above a rising mantle plume is a(n) ________.
a)
A) convergent plate boundary
b)
B) Curie point
c)
C) hot spot
d)
D) asthenosphere
21.
13) Which one of the following most accurately describes the volcanoes of the Hawaiian Islands?
a)
A) Volcanoes are associated with subduction and a convergent plate boundary.
b)
B) Volcanoes are fed by a long-lived hot spot below the Pacific lithospheric plate.
c)
C) Volcanoes are associated with a mid-Pacific oceanic ridge and spreading center.
d)
D) Volcanoes are associated with a mid-Pacific transform fault.
22.
14) New oceanic lithosphere is formed at ________.
a)
A) convergent boundaries by submarine eruptions and intrusions of basaltic magma
b)
B) divergent boundaries by submarine eruptions and intrusions of basaltic magma
c)
C) divergent boundaries by submarine eruptions and intrusions of rhyolitic magma
d)
D) convergent boundaries by submarine eruptions and intrusions of rhyolitic magma
23.
2) Where is the epicenter of an earthquake?
a)
A) where the rock on either side of a fault moves
b)
B) on Earth's surface, directly above the hypocenter
c)
C) where the fault meets Earth's surface
d)
D) wherever we find the most damage from the earthquake
24.
6) Which one of the following is true of most tsunamis?
a)
A) They are faster than seismic surface waves.
b)
B) Their wave heights decrease and wavelengths increase as they move into shallower water.
c)
C) They are usually started by sudden movement on a megathrust fault, and they have wavelengths that are many kilometers long and wave heights of less than a meter.
d)
D) They only occur in the Pacific Ocean basin.
25.
12) The record of an earthquake obtained from a seismic instrument is a(n) ________.
a)
A) seismograph
b)
B) seismogram
c)
C) P-S graph
d)
D) epitaph
26.
39) Which of the following does moment magnitude measure or estimate?
a)
A) the amplitude of the largest seismic wave recorded on a seismogram
b)
B) the total energy released during an earthquake
c)
C) the total damage to an area
d)
D) difference in magnitude between P and S waves
27.
46) Seismologists use a method called ________ to pinpoint the epicenter of an earthquake by using three or more seismic stations.
a)
A) deformation
b)
B) interpolation
c)
C) extrapolation
d)
D) triangulation
28.
4) The most violent volcanic activity is associated with ________.
a)
A) the Mid-Atlantic Ridge
b)
B) composite volcanoes
c)
C) cinder cones
d)
D) shield volcanoes
29.
16) How does the East African Rift relate to plate tectonics?
a)
A) The rift lies on an oceanic spreading center where two plates are diverging.
b)
B) The rift lies on a continental rift where two plates are diverging.
c)
C) The rift lies on a subduction zone where two plates are converging.
d)
D) The rift lies on a continent with a hot spot below it.
30.
16) How does the East African Rift relate to plate tectonics?
a)
A) The rift lies on an oceanic spreading center where two plates are diverging.
b)
B) The rift lies on a continental rift where two plates are diverging.
c)
C) The rift lies on a subduction zone where two plates are converging.
d)
D) The rift lies on a continent with a hot spot below it.
31.
18) ________ are nearly horizontal, concordant bodies that form when magma exploits weaknesses between sedimentary beds or other structures.
a)
A) Batholiths
b)
B) Sills
c)
C) Necks
d)
D) Dikes
32.
21) ________ is a type of basaltic lava flow that has its surface covered with sharp-edged, angular blocks and rubble.
a)
A) Aa
b)
B) Tephra
c)
C) Pahoehoe
d)
D) Pillow lava
33.
4) "This rock is 15 million years old" is an example of ________.
a)
A) a numerical date
b)
B) a relative date
c)
C) superposition
d)
D) the principle of cross-cutting relationships
34.
9) Which of the following geologic observations would bear directly on working out the sequence of geologic events in an area?
a)
A) mineral analysis of schist
b)
B) grain size comparison between sandstone and shale
c)
C) an unconformity between a granite and a sandstone
d)
D) the feldspar and quartz contents of a granite
35.
16) The principle of ________ states in an undeformed sequence of sedimentary rocks each bed is older than the one above and younger than the one below.
a)
A) cross-cutting relationships
b)
B) lateral continuity
c)
C) superposition
d)
D) original horizontality
36.
18) Which of the following principles addresses rock fragments being enclosed within another rock layer?
a)
A) principle of superposition
b)
B) principle of original horizontality
c)
C) principle of cross-cutting relationships
d)
D) principle of inclusions
37.
12) Using the known rates of radioactive decay to date the crystallization of certain minerals is known as ________ dating.
a)
A) conventional
b)
B) radiometric
c)
C) relative
d)
D) fossil assemblage
38.
2) Which one of the following is the most abundant gas in the atmosphere?
a)
A) carbon dioxide
b)
B) ozone
c)
C) oxygen
d)
D) nitrogen
39.
5) The amount of water vapor in the air is called ________.
a)
A) latent heat
b)
B) ozone
c)
C) aerosols
d)
D) humidity
40.
7) Even though ground-level ozone is a health hazard, the "ozone layer" in the stratosphere is a health benefit because ________.
a)
A) it stops global warming
b)
B) it reduces thunderstorms
c)
C) it screens out some harmful solar radiation
d)
D) it absorbs certain wavelengths of infrared radiation that are emitted by Earth's surface
41.
9) The boundary between the stratosphere and the mesosphere is called the ________.
a)
A) tropopause
b)
B) stratopause
c)
C) ionopause
d)
D) mesopause
42.
11) Which of the following locations would have the lowest average air pressure?
a)
A) summit of Mount Everest, tallest mountain on Earth
b)
B) Dead Sea, Israel, lowest point on Earth's land surface
c)
C) Challenger Deep, Mariana Trench, lowest point in the ocean
d)
D) sea level, anywhere on the planet
43.
1) Explain the difference between uniformitarianism and uniformity. Which one of these involves natural laws and which one merely involves natural processes?
a)
Uniformitarianism involves natural processes, while uniformity involves natural laws. Uniformitarianism is an assumption about natural processes which can be adopted or rejected, but uniformity is a precondition of intelligibility without which science would be impossible.
b)
k
44.
2) Briefly describe the meaning of the term precondition of intelligibility. Also, with regard to the scientific method, describe how uniformity functions as a precondition of intelligibility.
a)
A precondition of intelligibility is a condition which makes some aspect of discourse possible. Example: air is a precondition of audible speech. Anyone who audibly argues against the existence of air has, by his or her audible argument itself, just demonstrated that air does exist, for the argument against air cannot be heard or made without it (air required to transmit sound waves, the “a-airist” must use air to breathe in order to argue air doesn’t exist, etc.). (In much the same way, atheists must unwittingly assume God’s existence in order to argue against it.) Uniformity is a precondition of intelligibility for science because without uniformity it would be impossible to experimentally test theoretical predictions. This is because non-uniformity would, in general, allow for the arbitrary and unexpected change in natural law, preventing the experimental test from saying anything reliable relative to the theoretical prediction. Hence, science would be impossible. (Note: This does not preclude miracles, since, by definition, miracles are rare events, even in Scripture. All that is required for science to be possible is for the normal course of nature to adhere to certain natural laws. Indeed, God normally upholds the universe in essentially this way, according to Hebrews 1:3 and other relevant texts.)
b)
k
45.
1) List at least two untestable assumptions which must be made in order to use radiometric dating as a determination of the age of a sample.
a)
Two such assumptions are the assumption of the original amount of daughter isotope present at formation and the constancy of the decay rate over long periods of time. The latter involves an extremely large extrapolation from very limited data.
b)
k
46.
1) How many hours would it take for 80% of a fluorine-18 sample to decay? The half-life of fluorine-18 is about 110 minutes.
a)
Using the equation t= -(1/𝜆)*ln(N/N_0), with 𝜆=t_(1/2)/ln(2) gives about t = 255.4 minutes or about 4.26 hours.
b)
k
47.
1) In the Ptolemaic (Greek) model of the universe, ________.
a)
A) Earth was flat
b)
B) Earth was at the center of the universe
c)
C) the Sun was at the center of the solar system
d)
D) Earth rotated on its axis to produce night and day
48.
3) If gravity were somehow eliminated, Earth would ________.
a)
A) spiral inward toward the sun
b)
B) spiral outward away from the sun
c)
C) move in a straight line toward the sun
d)
D) move in a straight line out into space
49.
5) The nebular theory proposes the sun and planets formed from a rotating cloud of interstellar gases and dust called a ________.
a)
A) solar nebula
b)
B) planetesimal
c)
C) protoplanet
d)
D) celestial sphere
50.
9) How did the lunar maria most likely originate?
a)
A) Huge impact basins that were nearly filled with basaltic lava flows
b)
B) Huge impact craters filled with frozen carbon dioxide and dark-colored silt and dust
c)
C) Massive, basaltic comets melted when they hit the lunar surface.
d)
D) The solar wind eroded very wide, shallow basins that filled with lunar dust.
51.
11) Nicolaus Copernicus was the first astronomer to propose ________.
a)
A) retrograde motion
b)
B) an astronomical unit
c)
C) the nebular theory
d)
D) a sun-centered universe
52.
1) Cosmology is the study of ________.
a)
A) our solar system
b)
B) stars
c)
C) the universe
d)
D) making people more beautiful
53.
3) According to the big bang theory, the first two elements to form in the universe were ________.
a)
A) gluons and quarks
b)
B) hydrogen and iron
c)
C) hydrogen and helium
d)
D) oxygen and carbon
54.
5) The apparent brightness of a star if it were viewed from a distance of 10 parsecs (32.6 light- years) is called ________.
a)
A) supernova
b)
B) degenerate matter
c)
C) variable stars
d)
D) absolute magnitude
55.
7) Nebulae are strands or clumps of ________.
a)
A) space
b)
B) interstellar matter
c)
C) degenerate matter
d)
D) energy
56.
10) A system of galaxies that contains from several to thousands of member galaxies is called ________.
a)
A) globular clusters
b)
B) galaxies
c)
C) nebulae
d)
D) galactic clusters
57.
1) Write the equation for trigonometric parallax given on the board in class. What is the upper limit on distance determinations using this direct method? Why is this direct method limited in this way?
a)
Distance = 1/P. 100 pc. The length of the base line is based on Earth’s orbit.
b)
k
58.
2) The major merger scenario of elliptical galaxy formation involves the merger of what two kinds of objects? Describe one major problem with this view (hint: the problem involves globular clusters).
a)
Two Spiral Galaxies. The red globular clusters are too red.
b)
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59.
1) What part of a black hole refutes the misconception that black holes are like “cosmic vacuum cleaners?” If the sun were to somehow become a black hole, would earth be safe? Explain.
a)
The event horizon. Yes, Earth would orbit around it like it does the sun now.
b)
k
60.
2) List and describe at least one of the problems of the Big Bang mentioned in class.
a)
- it doesn’t align with the creation account of Genesis discussed in class. Earth was created before the sun.
b)
k
61.
3) Cosmic inflation is usually regarded as the solution to the above problems. However, inflation itself has one rather significant problem of its own. Name and briefly describe this problem. In particular, state why this is ironic for naturalism.
a)
Cosmic inflation is the view that very early expansion was exponential (faster than light) and that this isn’t actually a solution because it has the problem “graceful exit problem” there is no way to stop the expansion phase.
b)
k
62.
1) The sun’s average surface temperature is roughly 6000 K. Using Wien’s law (c=3 x 10^6 nm*K), calculate the wavelength of maximum intensity radiation from the sun in nanometers (nm).
a)
3x106nmK/T 3x106nmK/6000k = 500nm
b)
k
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