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WorksheetsPSTAR A
Total questions: 58
Worksheet time: 29mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which statement is true with regard to aircraft converging at approximately the same altitude?
a)
A jet airliner has the right of way over all other aircraft
b)
An aircraft towing objects has the right of way over all power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft.
c)
An aeroplane has the right of way over all other aircraft which are converging from the left.
d)
Aeroplanes towing gliders must give way to helicopters.
2.
When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude
a)
both aircraft shall alter heading to the left.
b)
the aircraft on the right shall avoid the other by descending.
c)
the aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way.
d)
the aircraft that has the other on its left shall give way.
3.
When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, which statement applies?
a)
Gliders shall give way to helicopters.
b)
Aeroplanes shall give way to power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft.
c)
Gliders shall give way to aeroplanes.
d)
Power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to gliders.
4.
When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, which statement applies?
a)
Gliders shall give way to helicopters.
b)
Aeroplanes shall give way to helicopters.
c)
Helicopters shall give way to aeroplanes.
d)
Helicopters shall give way to gliders.
5.
When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude, which statement applies?
a)
Gliders shall give way to helicopters.
b)
Aeroplanes shall give way to helicopters.
c)
Helicopters shall give way to aeroplanes.
d)
Gliders shall give way to balloons.
6.
When converging at approximately the same altitude
a)
balloons shall give way to hang gliders.
b)
aeroplanes towing gliders shall give way to balloons.
c)
balloons shall give way to gliders.
d)
balloons shall give way to airships.
7.
When two power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft are converging at approximately the same altitude,
a)
the one on the left has the right of way.
b)
both shall alter heading to the left.
c)
the one on the right has the right of way.
d)
the one on the right shall give way by descending.
8.
When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so and there is danger of collision, each pilot shall
a)
decrease airspeed.
b)
increase airspeed.
c)
alter heading to the right.
d)
alter heading to the left.
9.
When overtaking an aircraft at your 12 o'clock position, at your altitude, you should
a)
climb.
b)
descend.
c)
alter heading to the right.
d)
alter heading to the left.
10.
Two aircraft are on approach to land, the aircraft at the higher altitude shall
a)
have the right of way.
b)
overtake the lower aircraft on the left.
c)
give way.
d)
complete a 360° turn to the right.
11.
When making initial contact with a Canadian ATC unit, the pilot of aircraft C-GFLU should transmit the registration as
a)
Lima - Uniform over.
b)
Foxtrot - Lima - Uniform over.
c)
Golf - Foxtrot - Lima - Uniform over.
d)
Charlie - Golf - Foxtrot - Lima - Uniform over.
12.
When making initial contact with a Canadian ATC unit, the pilot of aircraft C-FBSQ should transmit the registration as
a)
FBSQ.
b)
Fox, Baker, Sugar, Queen.
c)
Foxtrot, Bravo, Sierra, Quebec.
d)
Bravo, Sierra, Quebec.
13.
After a Canadian privately registered aircraft has made initial contact with an ATS unit, which items may be omitted from subsequent transmissions? The aircraft type and
a)
any registration letters omitted by ATS in the last communication.
b)
the first two letters of the registration, if initiated by ATS.
c)
the first three letters of the registration.
d)
the phonetic equivalents.
14.
On initial radio contact with an ATS unit the pilot shall transmit the
a)
type of aircraft and last four letters of the registration in phonetics.
b)
last three letters of the registration in phonetics.
c)
whole registration in phonetics.
d)
type of aircraft and the last three letters of the registration in phonetics.
15.
ATIS is normally provided
a)
to replace the FSS.
b)
to relieve frequency congestion.
c)
for the rapid updating of weather forecasts.
d)
only when VFR conditions exist at airports.
16.
Where ATIS is available the information which should be included on first contact with ATC is the
a)
phrase "with the numbers".
b)
phrase "ATIS received".
c)
phrase "with the information".
d)
ATIS phonetic identifier.
17.
Whenever practicable, pilots operating VFR en route in uncontrolled airspace should continuously monitor
a)
126.7 MHz.
b)
123.2 MHz.
c)
122.8 MHz.
d)
122.2 MHz.
18.
En route aircraft should, whenever possible, maintain a listening watch for aircraft in distress on
a)
the receiver mode of the ELT.
b)
121.5 on the aircraft receiver.
c)
121.5 during the first 5 minutes of each hour.
d)
the voice frequency of the navigation aid in use.
19.
The specific frequency, distance and altitude within which MF procedures are to be followed are given in the
a)
CFS.
b)
Designated Airspace Handbook.
c)
A.I.P. Canada.
d)
Flight Training Manual.
20.
Pilots broadcasting on a MF where no ground station is in operation should direct their transmission to the
a)
aerodrome UNICOM.
b)
closest ATC unit.
c)
aerodrome traffic.
d)
first aircraft heard on the frequency.
21.
Pilots operating in VMC and intending to land at aerodromes where no UNICOM exists, should broadcast their intentions on the ATF of
a)
121.5 MHz.
b)
122.2 MHz.
c)
123.2 MHz.
d)
126.7 MHz.
22.
If a MF is in use, pilots departing VFR shall monitor that frequency until
a)
beyond the specified distance or altitude.
b)
established en route.
c)
established at cruise altitude.
d)
clear of the aerodrome circuit pattern.
23.
A pilot is cleared to taxi to the runway in use without a hold short clearance. To get there, the aircraft must cross two taxiways and one runway. This authorizes the pilot to taxi to
a)
the runway in use, but must hold short.
b)
the runway in use, but further clearance is required to cross each taxiway and runway en route.
c)
position on the runway without further clearance.
d)
the runway in use, but further clearance is required to cross the other runway.
24.
Ground control authorizes " GOLF ALPHA BRAVO CHARLIE TAXI RUNWAY 29 HOLD SHORT OF RUNWAY 04". The pilot should acknowledge this by replying "GOLF ALPHA BRAVO CHARLIE TO
a)
RUNWAY 04".
b)
RUNWAY 29".
c)
HOLD SHORT OF 29".
d)
HOLD SHORT OF 04".
25.
When a clearance for an "immediate take-off" is accepted, the pilot shall
a)
back-track on the runway to use the maximum available length for take-off.
b)
taxi to a full stop in position on the runway and take off without further clearance.
c)
taxi onto the runway and take off in one continuous movement.
d)
complete the pre-take-off check before taxiing onto the runway and taking off.
26.
A pilot flying a heading of 270°, receives the following message from ATC, "Traffic 2 o'clock, 5 miles, eastbound". This information indicates the traffic is
a)
60° to the left, altitude unknown.
b)
60° to the right, altitude unknown.
c)
90° to the right, at same altitude.
d)
90° to the left, at same altitude.
27.
A pilot receives the following ATC clearance "CLEARED TO LAND, TURN RIGHT AT THE FIRST INTERSECTION". The pilot should
a)
land and attempt to turn off even though the speed is considered too high to safely accomplish the turn.
b)
complete a touch-and-go if it is not possible to safely accomplish the turn.
c)
land and turn off at the nearest intersection possible commensurate with safety.
d)
land and do a 180° turn and taxi back to clear the runway at the required intersection.
28.
The radiotelephone distress signal to indicate grave and/or imminent danger requiring immediate assistance is
a)
MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY.
b)
PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN.
c)
SECURITY, SECURITY, SECURITY.
d)
EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY.
29.
The radiotelephone urgency signal to indicate a condition concerning the safety of an aircraft, vehicle or of some person on board which does not require immediate assistance is
a)
MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY.
b)
PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN.
c)
EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY, EMERGENCY.
d)
URGENCY,URGENCY, URGENCY.
30.
What should be included along with the call sign of the aircraft and time, to indicate cancellation of a distress message?
a)
MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, ALL STATIONS, DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED, OUT.
b)
MAYDAY, ALL STATIONS, ALL STATIONS, ALL STATIONS, SILENCE FINISHED, OUT.
c)
MAYDAY CANCELLED, MAYDAY CANCELLED, MAYDAY CANCELLED.
d)
ALL STATIONS, ALL STATIONS, ALL STATIONS, EMERGENCY OVER.
31.
A departing flight will normally remain on tower frequency until
a)
the flight is 2,000 feet AGL.
b)
25 NM from the airport.
c)
15 NM from the Control Zone.
d)
clear of the Control Zone.
32.
You advise ATC that you are on the downwind leg. If there is other traffic in the circuit, ATC will then
a)
inform you of your number in the approach sequence or other appropriate instructions.
b)
inform you of the runway in use, wind and altimeter.
c)
advise you of all other circuit traffic.
d)
clear you to land.
33.
A radio equipped aircraft has been cleared to land at a controlled airport. The pilot should acknowledge the clearance by
a)
replying "Roger".
b)
replying "Wilco".
c)
clicking the microphone button.
d)
transmitting the aircraft call sign.
34.
An initial call to Timmins FSS should be "Timmins
a)
radio this is..."
b)
Flight Service Station this is..."
c)
UNICOM this is..."
d)
this is..."
35.
A responsibility of a flight service specialist is to provide
a)
air traffic control.
b)
flight planning service.
c)
air traffic service in uncontrolled airspace only.
d)
terminal radar service.
36.
NOTAM are
a)
available at all FSS.
b)
mailed to all pilots.
c)
issued for airport facility closures only.
d)
valid for 24 hours.
37.
A new or replacing NOTAM without the term "APRX" is valid
a)
for 48 hours only.
b)
for the day it was issued.
c)
until the time quoted in the NOTAM.
d)
until a cancelling NOTAM is issued.
38.
The term "APRX" when contained in a new or replacing NOTAM means the NOTAM is valid
a)
for approximately 24 hours.
b)
for approximately 48 hours.
c)
until the time quoted in the NOTAM.
d)
until a cancelling or replacing NOTAM is issued.
39.
Your radio transmissions are reported READABILITY THREE. This means that your transmissions are
a)
readable now and then.
b)
readable with difficulty.
c)
readable.
d)
perfectly readable.
40.
An airport is
a)
an aerodrome with paved runways.
b)
an aerodrome with a control tower.
c)
a registered aerodrome.
d)
a certified aerodrome.
41.
A dry Transport Canada standard wind direction indicator when horizontal indicates a wind speed of at least
a)
25 KT.
b)
15 KT.
c)
10 KT.
d)
6 KT.
42.
No person shall operate any vehicle on any part of an uncontrolled airport used for the movement of aircraft, except in accordance with permission from
a)
the operator of the airport.
b)
the airport security officer.
c)
a federal peace officer.
d)
a qualified flying instructor.
43.
Runways and taxiways or portions thereof that are closed to aircraft are marked by
a)
red flags.
b)
horizontal red squares with yellow diagonals.
c)
a white or yellow X.
d)
white dumb-bells.
44.
The west end of a runway oriented east and west is numbered
a)
9
b)
90
c)
27
d)
270
45.
At controlled airports, the taxiway holding position markings in diagrams A and B indicate that aircraft shall stop
a)
on the solid line side at all times.
b)
on the solid line side unless otherwise cleared by ATC.
c)
before crossing the lines from either side at all times.
d)
before crossing the lines from either side unless otherwise cleared by ATC.
46.
Where taxiway holding positions have notbeen established, aircraft waiting to enter an active runway should normally hold
a)
clear of the manoeuvring area.
b)
50 feet from the edge of the runway.
c)
150 feet from the edge of the runway.
d)
200 feet from the edge of the runway.
47.
The manoeuvring area of an airport is that area
a)
normally referred to as the ramp or apron.
b)
which includes the apron, taxiways and runways.
c)
used when taxiing to and from the parking area.
d)
used for taxiing, taking off and landing.
48.
Except for the purpose of taking off or landing, an aircraft shall not be flown over an aerodrome at a height of less than
a)
2,000 feet AGL.
b)
1,500 feet AGL.
c)
1,000 feet AGL.
d)
500 feet AGL.
49.
Select the helicopter ground markings which identify respectively, - A hospital heliport, - A heliport
a)
D, C.
b)
D, A.
c)
B, C.
d)
A, B.
50.
Taking into account seasonal climatic variations and geographical area, private aeroplanes and helicopters flying VFR 25 NM or more from an aerodrome or operating base may require
a)
specified emergency supplies be carried.
b)
a functioning radio capable of two-way radio communication.
c)
the aircraft be multi-engined when passengers are carried.
d)
all of the above
51.
A serviceable landing light is required equipment on aircraft
a)
carrying passengers at night.
b)
carrying passengers at night except private aircraft under 5,700 kg.
c)
using an unlighted aerodrome.
d)
taking off or landing at night.
52.
Unless oxygen and oxygen masks as specified in CARs are readily available, no person shall fly unpressurized aircraft above
a)
9,500 feet ASL.
b)
10,000 feet ASL.
c)
12,500 feet ASL.
d)
13,000 feet ASL.
53.
No person shall fly an aircraft for more than ..... at an altitude between 10,000 and 13,000 feet ASL unless there is readily available to each flight crew member, an oxygen mask and a supply of oxygen.
a)
15 minutes.
b)
30 minutes.
c)
1 hour.
d)
2 hours.
54.
What safety equipment must be available to each person on board a single-engine aircraft which is taking off from or landing on water?
a)
An approved life raft.
b)
An approved life preserver.
c)
A signal flare.
d)
A signal mirror.
55.
The International VHF Emergency Frequency is
a)
121.5 MHz.
b)
121.9 MHz.
c)
122.2 MHz.
d)
126.7 MHz.
56.
No pilot shall take off from or land at an aerodrome at night unless the
a)
aircraft is equipped with a functioning two-way radio.
b)
aircraft is equipped with a functioning landing light or landing lights.
c)
aerodrome is lighted as prescribed by the Minister.
d)
pilot has completed 3 night landings in the previous 90 days.
57.
The CARs define an infant passenger as a person
a)
weighing less than 30 LB.
b)
under 3 years of age.
c)
weighing less than 50 LB and under 5 years of age.
d)
under 2 years of age.
58.
When the PIC directs that safety belts be fastened, an infant passenger for which no child restraint system is provided shall be
a)
fastened securely in a seat by means of a safety belt.
b)
held securely in the arms of an adult person whose safety belt shall be fastened.
c)
held securely in the arms of an adult person and a safety belt shall be fastened about both.
d)
secured by any one of the above methods.
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