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AC Mock Exam

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following documents is used for correspondence between the architect or owner and the contractor?

a)

job diary

b)

memorandum

c)

construction report

d)

formal business letter

2.

Which of the following documents is used for correspondence between the home office and the job site?

a)

job diary

b)

memorandum

c)

construction report

d)

formal business letter

3.

What is the best time to distribute the working agenda to the participants of a meeting?

a)

as a follow-up to the meeting

b)

at the beginning of the meeting

c)

about one day after the meeting

d)

about one day prior to the meeting

4.

Which document describes the suggested agenda for the preconstruction meeting?

a)

general conditions

b)

general requirements

c)

technical specifications

d)

supplementary conditions

5.

What is the best time to distribute the meeting minutes to the participants?

a)

at the beginning of the meeting

b)

about one day after the meeting

c)

about one hour prior to the meeting

d)

about one day prior to the meeting

6.

Which of the following descriptions are the primary content items for the meeting minutes?

a)

to, from, project, date, time, place, subject, and schedule

b)

purpose, specific objectives, time frame, topical headings in paragraph, role of each attendee

c)

clear and measurable objectives, attendance, role of each attendee and their expertise

d)

attendance, topical headings, brief notes on what was discussed in paragraph form, who is assigned to action items, completion status

7.

Which of the following statements is true about the use of texting as a means of communicating in the construction industry?

a)

a means of easily and effectively documenting communication

b)

appropriate for clarifying but not for formal direction

c)

should be completely avoided in construction

d)

acceptable for communication if specifically allowed in the contract

8.

What is the best way for a contractor to get formal clarification on an apparent discrepancy found on the plans?

a)

change order proposal

b)

RFI

c)

addressed in a meeting agenda

d)

any communication as long as each party completely understands the message and direction

9.

What are the leadership skills needed to conduct a productive meeting?

a)

planning, probing questions, responding critically, and decision making

b)

planning, timing, coordinating, probing, responding critically, and following up

c)

listening attentively, responding constructively, soliciting all ideas, and matching decision making to the situation

d)

coordinating, listening selectively, responding critically, soliciting supportive ideas, and adjusting decision making to the situation

10.

Which of the following is not commonly discussed at monthly owner/architect/contractor progress meetings?

a)

outstanding RFIs

b)

quality control

c)

project schedule

d)

pending subcontractor change orders

11.

What is a listener’s retention percentage of an oral conversation?

a)

10%

b)

50%

c)

60%

d)

90%

12.

Which of the following communication methods is the most effective in knowing that the communication has been understood?

a)

The sender should ask closed-ended questions and tell the receiver twice.

b)

The sender should ask open-ended questions and make them speak.

c)

The sender should ask how they feel and their attitude toward the activity.

d)

The sender should tell them what to do and get them back to work quickly.

13.

Which of the following is the best example of an open-ended question?

a)

Do you understand what work is supposed to be completed?

b)

Do you know which shovel to get me from the tool shed?

c)

What steps are you going to take to complete the activity?

d)

How do you feel about completing the activities assigned?

14.

Which source or organization promotes a uniform organizational system for categorizing construction materials, specifications, and documentation into divisions and sections for projects?

a)

International Building Code

b)

Underwriters Laboratories

c)

Construction Specifications Institute

d)

American Society for Testing Materials

15.

Assume you have a simple beam 16 ft long supported on each end by R1 and R2. There is a concentrated load of 900 lb that is 4 ft from R2. Reaction R1 is pinned 12 ft from the load. Reaction R1 is 225 lb and R2 is 675 lb. What is the maximum bending moment in pounds per foot?

a)

900

b)

1,800

c)

2,700

d)

3,600

16.

Assume that you are pouring a wall that is 151 ft 4 in. long, 14 ft high and, 1 ft 4 in. thick. The crew’s daily placement rate is 375 cy per 8-hr day. How many hours will it take to complete the wall?

a)

0.3

b)

2.2

c)

27.0

d)

58.8

17.

Using the average soil weights from the table in Figure 1, what is the swell percentage of a loam soil?

a)

8.3%

b)

23.8%

c)

31.9%

d)

81.0%

18.

Using the psychrometric chart provided in Figure 2, what is the enthalpy of 1 lb of air given a dry bulb temperature of 75º F and a relative humidity of 50%?

a)

14 BTUs

b)

28 BTUs

c)

54 BTUs

d)

64 BTUs

19.

The owner wants to fast-track a construction project. Which project delivery system best supports this process?

a)

partnering

b)

design-bid-build

c)

CM agency

d)

design-build

20.

A contract is entered into in which the design and scope are undefined and the owner agrees to pay for all direct labor, materials, and equipment, plus an agreed upon fee to the contractor for their services. What is this type of contract called?

a)

cost plus

b)

turnkey

c)

unit price

d)

lump sum

21.

A contract is entered into in which the owner holds a contract with the architect and each trade contractor. In addition, the owner holds a contract with a management service company to perform the trade coordination, cost control, and scheduling services. What is this project delivery method called?

a)

partnering

b)

joint venture

c)

design-build

d)

construction management

22.

. Which legal entity is considered perpetual?

a)

partnership

b)

corporation

c)

joint venture

d)

sole proprietorship

23.

Under which municipal law are corporations formed?

a)

city

b)

state

c)

federal

d)

municipal

24.

. Which law establishes basic rules governing the sale of goods used to establish a purchase order?

a)

Davis Bacon Act

b)

Uniform Commercial Code

c)

National Labor Relations Act

d)

Uniform Transportation Code

25.

Which graphical measurement tool is a bar chart that displays a frequency distribution?

a)

histogram

b)

Pareto chart

c)

pie chart

d)

fishbone chart

26.

Which of the following principles of law states that if the prime contractor reasonably relies on the promise or price of the subcontractor to its detriment, then the subcontractor must be held to its promise to avoid harm to the prime contractor even though a signed contract between the contractor and subcontractor does not exist at the bidding phase of a project?

a)

consideration

b)

legal purpose

c)

promissory estoppel

d)

equitable adjustment

27.

At which point in time must the ownercontractor agreement be provided to each prospective subcontractor bidder?

a)

at the bid opening

b)

during the bidding phase of the project

c)

at the signing of the owner-contractor agreement

d)

before the signing of the owner-contractor agreement

28.

Using the financial statements provided in Figures 3a and 3b, what is the working capital for this company at the end of the year?

a)

$176,177

b)

$733,154

c)

$1,463,403

d)

$1,633,389

29.

Using the financial statements provided in Figures 3a and 3b, what is the current ratio?

a)

0.47

b)

1.00

c)

2.07

d)

4.36

30.

Using the financial statements provided in Figures 3a and 3b, what is the quick ratio (acid test)?

a)

0.23

b)

0.48

c)

1.00

d)

2.07

31.

Which CSI division contains technical information on structural steel?

a)

01

b)

03

c)

05

d)

15 and 23

32.

Which CSI division is considered the technical specifications?

a)

00

b)

01

c)

01–49

d)

02–49

33.

Which CSI division contains the bidding requirements for a project?

a)

00

b)

01

c)

01–49

d)

02–49

34.

Which part in the CSI technical specifications provides the contractor information about how the work is to be executed, including approved installation procedures?

a)

Part 1

b)

Part 2

c)

Part 3

d)

Part 4

35.

The technical specifications reference ASHRAE as a publisher of numerous technical standards. What does the acronym ASHRAE stand for?

a)

American Steel Housing Rating Association of Engineers

b)

Associated Structural Hoists Rating Association of Engineers

c)

American Society for Heating, Refrigerating and Air Conditioning Engineers

d)

Associated Society for Home Rating Air Equipment

36.

Which party is normally responsible for designing the temporary structures?

a)

owner

b)

engineer of record

c)

contractor/vendor

d)

architect

37.

Which of the following systems is designed to carry the total vertical load of a structure?

a)

piling

b)

cofferdam

c)

timber shoring

d)

cribbing and tiebacks

38.

Which piece of equipment is most efficient for compacting granular soils, such as sand, gravel, and crushed stone?

a)

backhoe

b)

sheepsfoot

c)

smooth wheel roller

d)

wheel tractor scraper

39.

Using the information provided in Figure 4, how many layers or mats of reinforcement are required for concrete beam 1B1?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

12

d)

24

40.

Using the information provided in Figure 5, where is AHU-1 located?

a)

Lower Level

b)

Prayer Room 205

c)

Sanctuary Room 202

d)

Mechanical Room 107

41.

Which document notifies the contractor of the forms, content, and procedures for submitting the bid proposal?

a)

general conditions

b)

general requirements

c)

instructions to bidders

d)

supplementary conditions

42.

Which party has the design liability for a prescriptive specification?

a)

owner

b)

contractor

c)

architect/engineer

d)

code official

43.

A specification reads as follows: “Furnish, install, operate, and maintain all necessary pumping equipment for dewatering the various parts of the work and for maintaining free of water the foundations and trenches as required for construction operations.” Which type of specification is this?

a)

proprietary specification

b)

performance specification

c)

combination specification

d)

descriptive or design specification

44.

The contractor submits a bid for $1,303,071 with the appropriate forms. They receive a notice of award letter indicating that their bid has been selected. The contractor decides not to accept the contract. Which of the following statements is a likely outcome?

a)

They will lose the amount of their bond premium.

b)

They will lose the amount of their bid bond face value.

c)

As long as the letter or contract has not been signed they can withdraw without ramifications.

d)

They will lose the amount of their performance bond face value.

45.

Using the bond premium schedule below, what is the bond premium for a $2,755,000 project?

First $5,000 = $12.00/$1,000

Next $2M = $6,000 + $7.25/$1,000

Next $2.5M= $20,500 + $5.75/$1,000

a)

A. $19,974

b)

$45,373

c)

$55,974

d)

$66,341

46.

What does the R.S. Mean’s unit of measure abbreviation MBF stand for?

a)

100 board feet

b)

1,000 board feet

c)

1 million feet

d)

1 million board feet

47.

The plans call for the contractor to drive, pull, and salvage steel sheet piling 15 ft deep. The estimated quantity is 12,000 sq ft of contact area (SFCA). Given the crew makeup as shown in Figure 6, an 8-hr workday, and a crew daily output of 545 SFCA, how many total work hours are expended per day?

a)

28

b)

32

c)

60

d)

100

48.

The plans call for the contractor to drive, pull, and salvage steel sheet piling 15 ft deep. The estimated quantity is 12,000 sq ft of contact area (SFCA). Given the crew makeup as shown in Figure 6, an 8-hr workday, and a crew daily output of 545 SFCA, what is the productivity rate expressed in work hours per unit (Whr/Unit)?

a)

0.059

b)

0.110

c)

9.083

d)

17.031

49.

Given a rectangular cofferdam that is 60 ft wide × 100 ft long and 10 ft deep and enclosed with a 3-ft toe, how many total SFCA are required for the sheet piling?

a)

3,200

b)

4,160

c)

6,000

d)

60,000

50.

Given the information provided in Figure 7 for a rectangular cofferdam that is 60 ft wide × 100 ft long and 10 ft deep and enclosed with a 3-ft toe, approximately how many total board feet (BF) are needed for all of the cofferdam components, including waste?

a)

16,164

b)

22,826

c)

25,565

d)

27,229

51.

Using the information provided in Figures 8a and 8b, how many cubic yards of concrete are needed for the walls (excluding foundation and slab)?

a)

101

b)

120

c)

135

d)

155

52.

Using the information provided in Figures 8a and 8b, how many bank cubic yards of soil must be excavated and removed? Assume the existing grade is 204 ft and that excavated soil is being used for backfilling.

a)

40

b)

350

c)

1,070

d)

9,633,601

53.

Using Figure 9a what is the budgeted unit work hours in work hours per unit for the column forms?

a)

0.045

b)

0.171

c)

0.241

d)

5.838

54.

Using Figure 9a what is the weekly unit work hours in work hours per unit for the column forms?

a)

0.007

b)

0.195

c)

4.919

d)

5.118

55.

Using the information provided in Figure 9a what is the to date unit work hours in work hours per unit for the column forms?

a)

0.011

b)

0.241

c)

3.821

d)

4.148

56.

Using the information provided in Figure 9a what are the total earned work hours for the column forms?

a)

19

b)

27

c)

465

d)

2,387

57.

Using the information provided in Figure 9a what is the total projected work hours at completion for the column forms?

a)

27

b)

104

c)

602

d)

2,472

58.

Using the information provided in Figure 9a what is the projected gain/loss in work hours for the column forms?

a)

(174)

b)

325

c)

1,897

d)

2,396

59.

Using the information provided in Figure 9b what is the budgeted unit cost in dollars per unit for the concrete footings?

a)

0.047

b)

21.45

c)

137.25

d)

256.00

60.

Using the information provided in Figure 9b what is the week labor unit cost in dollars per unit for the concrete footings?

a)

0.70

b)

1.43

c)

3.14

d)

14.60

61.

Using the information provided in Figure 9b what is the to date unit cost in dollars per unit for the concrete footings?

a)

0.32

b)

3.14

c)

20.13

d)

5,125.00

62.

Using the information provided in Figure 9b what is the total projected cost at completion for the concrete footings?

a)

81.41

b)

803.84

c)

5,150.72

d)

10,615.00

63.

. Using the information provided in Figure 9b what is the projected gain/loss in dollars for the concrete footings?

a)

(110)

b)

(4,685)

c)

339

d)

5,452

64.

Using the information provided in Figure 9c what is the current projection for the quantities of piles in vertical linear feet (VLF)?

a)

680

b)

5,300

c)

5,980

d)

6,700

65.

Which statement is true about the critical path?

a)

is the shortest string of activities through the schedule

b)

is the longest string of activities through the schedule

c)

has zero total float but possibly some free float in the activities

d)

includes all activities that are impossible to compress their duration any further

66.

. How is free float defined?

a)

the amount of slack in a node

b)

the amount of slack between activities

c)

the amount of slack within a series of activities

d)

the amount of slack accumulated throughout the logic network

67.

Which types of activities are considered first when compressing the length of a project?

a)

zero float and least cost to compress

b)

zero float and highest cost to compress

c)

highest floats and least cost to compress

d)

highest floats and highest cost to compress

68.

How is the term fast tracking defined in construction?

a)

planning and scheduling the design

b)

overlapping execution of the construction activities

c)

finalizing the design and procurement before construction begins

d)

overlapping execution of the design, procurement, and construction

69.

What is the name of the term for shifting the activities within their available free floats to produce a uniform workforce and reduce the maximum resource usage requirements?

a)

crashing

b)

crew utilization

c)

resource leveling

d)

time-scaled networking

70.

What is the best source for developing the list of activities for the logic network and schedule?

a)

general requirements

b)

technical specifications

c)

financial reports and balance sheets

d)

estimate and earned work hour report

71.

How is total float defined?

a)

the amount of slack in a node

b)

the amount of slack within an activity

c)

how much a series of activities can be delayed without delaying a project

d)

the amount of slack accumulated throughout the logic network

72.

What is the primary reason the courts disfavor bar chart schedules?

a)

They do not display the activities’ time scale.

b)

They do not show the activity descriptions.

c)

They do not show the interrelationship of activities or the float within activities.

d)

They are too complicated for most members outside the project team to understand.

73.

Using the information provided in Figure 10, what is the total number of days to complete this sequence of activities?

a)

13

b)

14

c)

18

d)

31

74.

. Using the information provided in Figure 10, what are the critical activities for this logic network?

a)

B, G

b)

A, C, F

c)

A, D, E, G

d)

A, C, F, G

75.

Using the information provided in Figure 10, what is the total float for activity B?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

8

76.

Using the information provided in Figure 10, what is the free float between activities B and G?

a)

0

b)

2

c)

4

d)

6

77.

The Safety Standards utilize the abbreviation 29 CFR Part 1926. What does the acronym CFR stand for?

a)

Code of Federal Register

b)

Code of Federal Regulations

c)

Construction Federal Register

d)

Construction Federal Regulations

78.

Which part of the OSHA Standards is designated for record keeping?

a)

5(a)(1)

b)

1904

c)

1910

d)

1926

79.

According to OSHA, which document must the supervisor complete immediately after an accident by describing the accident in detail?

a)

insurance forms

b)

OSHA’s Summary of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses (Form 300A)

c)

OSHA’s Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses (Form 300)

d)

OSHA’s Injury and Illness Incident Report (Form 301)

80.

When and where must a project’s OSHA Summary of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses (Form 300A) be posted?

a)

all year long and easily accessible to all employees at the job site

b)

all year long and in the project manager’s office at the home office

c)

February 11–April 30 and accessible to all employees at the job site

d)

for three months and in the employees’ break room at the home office

81.

According to OSHA, what is the name of the violation where the firm or designated person is aware that a hazardous condition exists, knows that the condition violates a standard, and makes no effort to eliminate the safety hazard?

a)

willful violation

b)

serious violation

c)

de minimis violation

d)

other-than-serious violation

82.

The pipefitting subcontractor is required to lay pipe in a trench that is 10 ft deep and 3 ft wide with vertical walls and no sloping or other protection. The trench was dug by the excavator. The general contractor supervised the work but had no employees in the trench. The concrete subcontractor told the general contractor and excavator that the trench needed to be sloped or shored before their employees could work in the trench. During the OSHA inspection, OSHA observed the general contractor at the trench supervising the pipefitter in the trench. Which contractor(s) would receive a citation for an unsafe trench?

a)

pipefitting only

b)

pipefitting and excavator

c)

pipefitting, excavator, and general contractor

d)

pipefitting, excavator, general contractor, and concrete subcontractor

83.

What is the maximum horizontal travel distance to retrieve a fire extinguisher for a project under construction?

a)

10 ft

b)

25 ft

c)

75 ft

d)

100 ft

84.

4. The job site has a primary vertical control point with a reference benchmark of 100 ft. An instrument is set up with an HI of 5.42 ft above the BM. A grade stake is set at an elevation of 96 ft. What is the height reading on the rod at the grade stake?

a)

1.42 ft

b)

4.00 ft

c)

5.42 ft

d)

9.42 ft

85.

Using the information provided in Figure 11, what is the benchmark elevation at IP #4?

a)

864.62

b)

889.90

c)

896.27

d)

902.64

86.

Which of the following items are never included with a purchase order?

a)

labor

b)

material

c)

tax

d)

rental equipment

87.

The terms on a purchase order indicate FOB Factory. At which point does the responsibility for the goods change?

a)

passes at the invoice date

b)

passes at the payment due date

c)

passes at time of pickup by the carrier

d)

passes at time of receipt at the job site

88.

Which of the following descriptions defines the term 2/10 Net 30?

a)

If paid within 10 days of the arrival of goods, a 2% discount can be deducted; full payment is due in 30 days.

b)

If paid within 10 days of the invoice date, a 2% discount can be deducted; full payment is due in 30 days.

c)

A 2% discount is available for 30 days.

d)

A 2% discount is available through the 10th of the month following the receipt of goods; full payment is due in 30 days.

89.

Which position typically writes the subcontract agreements?

a)

superintendent

b)

project engineer

c)

project manager

d)

planning engineer

90.

Which of the following activities does a millwright perform?

a)

cuts and installs trim and cabinets

b)

assembles and aligns rotating equipment

c)

fits and aligns high-pressure process piping

d)

fabricates and assembles sheet metal for ductwork

91.

Which party typically obtains the general building permit?

a)

owner

b)

subcontractor

c)

contractor

d)

architect/engineer

92.

Which form is filled out by the employees to inform the employer how much money is to be withheld from their paychecks for taxes?

a)

I-9

b)

W-2

c)

W-4

d)

1099

93.

Which of the following posters describes the regulations for wage payment and hours of work for all industries and must be posted at the job site?

a)

Fair Labor Standards

b)

Prevailing Wage Rates

c)

Material Safety Data Sheet

d)

Safety and Health Protection

94.

What is the name of the act that requires the contractor to pay prevailing wage rates on all federally funded projects?

a)

Wagner Act

b)

Taft-Hartley Act

c)

Davis-Bacon Act

d)

Norris-LaGuardia Act

95.

Which document is signed in agreement by the owner, architect, and contractor and modifies the contract’s terms and conditions?

a)

addenda

b)

change directive

c)

contract change order

d)

contract change order proposal

96.

Which document establishes the actual start date from which the beginning of the project is calculated?

a)

notice of award

b)

notice to proceed

c)

contractor’s proposal

d)

supplementary conditions

97.

. Which of the following parties issues the certificate of occupancy?

a)

contractor, architect, and owner

b)

banker, surety, and title company

c)

contractor, mechanical subcontractors, and electrical subcontractor

d)

fire marshal, mechanical inspector, electrical inspector, and building inspector

98.

Which of the following descriptions provides the best example of how to report progress on the job site?

a)

Poured concrete for the columns.

b)

Installed rebar and poured concrete.

c)

Poured 75 cy concrete, placed rebar, and stripped forms for columns D1–D4.

d)

Poured 75 cy concrete, placed rebar, and stripped forms for the building.

99.

Which party is typically the developer of the shop drawings?

a)

owner

b)

architect

c)

construction manager

d)

subcontractors and vendors

100.

Which document explicitly tells the reader the specific shop drawings, product data, and reference standards required on a project?

a)

in part 1 of each section of the general requirements

b)

in part 1 of each section of a technical specification division

c)

in part 2 of each section of a technical specification division

d)

at the beginning of the first section of each technical specification division