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Molecular & Cellular Biology (35% of EOC)

Total questions: 56

Worksheet time: 2hrs 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Cell theory was first proposed in 1838. Evidence obtained through additional scientific investigations resulted in the current cell theory. Which statement describes a component of the original cell theory that was removed because of the new scientific knowledge?

a)

All living things are made of cells.

b)

All cells come from other preexisting cells.

c)

Cells form through spontaneous generation.

d)

Cells are the basic structural and functional units of life.

2.

Which invention from the 17th century allowed for the development of modern cell theory?

a)

X-rays

b)

Computers

c)

The light microscope

d)

The scanning electron microscope

3.

There are some similarities between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. Which of the following structures is found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

lysosome

b)

mitochondrion

c)

nucleus

d)

ribosome

4.

Cells need to bring in molecules to carry out cellular processes. Often, this requires moving the molecules across the cell membrane against the concentration gradient. How do these molecules get into the cell?

a)

passive transport by diffusion

b)

active transport using ATP

c)

passive transport by osmosis

d)

phagocytosis

5.

Which type(s) of cells have genetic material that is contained in a nucleus?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Only Animal Cells

c)

Protists

d)

Both plant and animal cells

6.

Which characteristic do most plants have in common?

a)

They are unicellular

b)

They are prokaryotic

c)

They produce seeds

d)

They are autotrophic

7.

Which cell structure is correctly paired with its primary function?

a)

Ribosome - protein synthesis

b)

Mitochondrion - movement

c)

Vacuole - cell division

d)

Nucleus - storage of nutrients

8.

The diagram below represents a cell of a green plant.


Solar energy is used to produce energy-rich compounds in which structure?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

9.

A person with swollen gums rinses his mouth with warm salt water, and the swelling decreases. Which of the following has occurred?

a)

The swollen gums have absorbed the saltwater solution.

b)

The saltwater solution lowers the temperature of the water in the gums.

c)

The salt in the solution has moved against the concentration gradient.

d)

The water in the gums has moved out due to the high concentration of salt in the solution.

10.

Which organelle is the site where amino acids are synthesized into proteins?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

11.

Which of these best completes this concept map?

a)

An animal cell

b)

A prokaryotic cell

c)

A virus

d)

A plant cell

12.

The cell membrane of the red blood cell will allow water, oxygen, and carbon dioxide to pass through. Because other substances are blocked from entering, this membrane is called

a)

Perforated

b)

Semi-permeable

c)

Non-conductive

d)

Permeable

13.

Why can bacteria recognize a human gene and then produce a human protein?

a)

DNA replication in bacteria and humans is the same.

b)

Bacterial cells contain the same organelles as human cells.

c)

The basic components of DNA are the same in humans and bacteria.

d)

Bacterial cells and human cells contain the same kind of chromosomes.

14.

Which choice describes DNA after replication has taken place?

a)

one molecule with two original strands and one molecule with two new strands

b)

two molecules, each with one original and one new strand

c)

two molecules, each with two new strands

d)

two molecules, each with two old strands

15.

At what point in the cell cycle does DNA replication occur and why?

a)

before a cell divides, to provide each of the two resulting cells with a complete set of DNA instructions

b)

before a cell divides, to ensure that the DNA will fit into the resulting cells

c)

during cell division, to ensure that the DNA will fit into the resulting cells

d)

after a cell divides, to provide each of the two resulting cells with a complete set of DNA instructions

16.

Four different segments of a DNA molecule are represented below.


There is an error in the DNA in which molecule?

a)

Segment 1 only

b)

Segment 3 only

c)

Segment 2 & 3

d)

Segment 2 & 4

17.

The sequence of DNA below is part of a gene. How many amino acids are coded for by this segment?

5' ATCAGCGCTGGC 3'

a)

4

b)

8

c)

12

d)

20

18.

A scientist puts nucleotide chains of UUUUUU in a test tube under conditions allowing protein synthesis. Soon the test tube is full of polypeptide chains composed only one the amino acid phenylalanine. What does this experiment indicate?

a)

The amino acid phenylalanine is composed of uracil.

b)

UUU codes for the amino acid phenylalanine.

c)

Protein synthesis malfunctions in test tubes.

d)

Most proteins contain only one type of amino acid.

19.

Which of the following would most likely cause a mutation?

a)

the placement of ribosomes on the endoplasmic reticulum

b)

the insertion of a nucleotide into DNA

c)

the movement of transfer RNA out of the nucleus

d)

the release of messenger RNA from DNA

20.

Which of the following identifies the process shown at point Z?

a)

Translation

b)

Translocation

c)

Replication

d)

Transcription

21.

Which of the following identifies the process shown at point Y?

a)

Translation

b)

Translocation

c)

Replication

d)

Transcription

22.

Which of the following identifies the process shown at point X?

a)

Translation

b)

Translocation

c)

Replication

d)

Transcription

23.

During transcription the DNA base sequence is transcribed into a complementary mRNA sequence. A codon table like the one shown below lists the amino acids coded for by particular triads of mRNA bases. A segment of DNA has undergone a mutation in which one nucleotide has been changed. The original sequence was ACG and the new sequence is ACA. Use the codon table to determine whether or not this mutation will cause a change in the phenotype of the organism.

a)

yes, the phenotype of the organism would change because a new amino acid will be coded for.

b)

yes, the phenotype of the organism would change because any change in the DNA sequence will cause a change in phenotype.

c)

Even though the DNA sequence changed, the sequence still codes for the same amino acid, so no change in phenotype will occur.

d)

It is impossible to determine if a change in phenotype will occur using only the DNA sequence.

24.

Which of the following carries amino acids to the site of protein synthesis?

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

nRNA

25.

Mitosis and meiosis are processes involved in cellular reproduction. Which of the following describes and event that results from mitosis but NOT meiosis?

a)

two stages of cell division

b)

replication of cellular genetic material

c)

daughter cells that are identical to the parent cell

d)

four daughter cells that are produced from each parent cell

26.

How are sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction different from each other?

a)

sexual reproduction requires two parents and asexual reproduction requires only one parent

b)

asexual reproduction requires two parents and sexual reproduction requires only one parent

c)

mutation rates are lower in sexual reproduction than in asexual reproduction

d)

asexual reproduction occurs only in multicellular organisms

27.

Which type of reproduction leads to increased genetic variation on a population?

a)

Parthenogenesis

b)

asexual reproduction

c)

Sexual reproduction

d)

Vegetative reproduction

28.

Which of the following phrases best describes cancer?

a)

absence of cyclins in the DNA

b)

multiple gene mutations on a chromosome of DNA

c)

uncontrolled cell growth caused by mutations in genes that control the cell cycle

d)

presence of genetic defects caused by hereditary disorders

29.

Which of the following phases of mitosis is represented by the diagram below?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

30.

A scientist wants to change the DNA of a sexually reproducing organism and have the new DNA present in every cell of the organism. In order to do this after fertilization, she would change the DNA in which of the following?

a)

Zygote

b)

Placenta

c)

Testes of the father

d)

Ovaries of the mother

31.

Which row in the chart below indicates the correct process for each event indicated?

a)

Row 1

b)

Row 2

c)

Row 3

d)

Row 4

32.

What is the name of this process

a)

Meiosis

b)

Mitosis

c)

Endocytosis

d)

Phagocytosis

33.

The diagram below shows homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis.


Which of the following correctly describes the process being illustrated?

a)

mutation in which the DNA content of the gene is altered

b)

segregation of sister chromatids

c)

condensation and segregation of alleles

d)

crossing-over in which alleles are exchanged

34.

Which of the following best describes meiosis?

a)

It is carried out in all tissues that require cell replacement.

b)

It occurs only in cells in the reproductive structures of organisms.

c)

It happens in all tissues except the brain and spinal cord.

d)

It is the first stage of mitosis.

35.

The diagram below shows two strawberry plants.


Plant 2 is produced asexually from Plant 1. If the leaf cells of Plant 1 have 56 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will be found in the leaf cells of Plant 2?

a)

14

b)

28

c)

56

d)

112

36.

As food travels through the digestive system, it is exposed to a variety of pH levels. The stomach has a pH of 2 due to the presence of hydrochloride acid (HCl), and the small intestine has a pH ranging from 7 to 9. HCl converts pepsinogen into pepsin, an enzyme that digests proteins in the stomach. Which of the following most likely happens to pepsin as it enters the small intestine?

a)

It becomes inactive.

b)

It begins to replicate.

c)

It's shape changes to engulf large proteins.

d)

It's activity increases to digest more proteins.

37.

In living cells, enzymes act as catalysts, which may reduce the amount of activation energy required for a chemical reaction to occur. In the graphs below, pathway x is a solid line representing the uncatalyzed reaction. The dotted line shows the catalyzed reaction. Which graph best illustrates the changes in a reaction when the catalyst reduces the amount of energy required?a

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

38.

The diagram below shows the general structure of an amino acid. Which type of molecule is formed from amino acids?

a)

Lipids

b)

Proteins

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Nucleic Acids

39.

You are analyzing a compound in the laboratory. You find that it is made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a ratio of two hydrogen atoms for each carbon atom. How will you classify the compound?

a)

Lipid

b)

Protein

c)

Carbohydrate

d)

Nucleic Acid

40.

Fats, oils and cholesterol are all types of what?

a)

Cell Membranes

b)

Hormones

c)

Lipids

d)

Fatty Acids

41.

RNA and DNA are which type of macromolecules?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Nucleic Acid

d)

Protein

42.

What will most likely happen if an appropriate enzyme is added to a chemical reaction?

a)

The reaction rate will increase.

b)

The equilibrium of the reaction will be maintained.

c)

The reaction rate will decrease.

d)

The reaction will stop.

43.

A sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base form the building blocks of which organic compound?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Proteins

44.

The human body maintains a temperature of around 98.6 degrees at all times. Enzymes are involved in almost every chemical reaction in the body. Which of the following describes the connection between these two statements?

a)

Enzymes function best at a specific temperature.

b)

The body needs to be warm to prevent hypothermia.

c)

The body is kept relatively warm to prevent too much enzyme action.

d)

There is no connection between the two statements.

45.

The enzyme lactase will break down the sugar lactose into which of the following components?

a)

Monosaccharides

b)

Nucleic Acids

c)

Amino Acids

d)

Phospholipids

46.

The diagram below shows the relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration and the organelles in which they occur.


Which statement describes how photosynthesis and cellular respiration are interrelated?

a)

Oxygen is produced during cellular respiration and stored during photosynthesis.

b)

Carbon dioxide and water released by cellular respiration are used in photosynthesis.

c)

Photosynthesis releases the energy that is stored during the process of cellular respiration.

d)

Glucose is used during cellular respiration to produce food that is broken down during photosynthesis.

47.

Which gas is removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Oxygen

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Carbon Dioxide

48.

A weightlifter is using heavy weights in short bursts for a competition. Because his muscle cells are not able to take in enough oxygen to make very much ATP the weightlifter begins to get fatigue in his muscles. Which of the following processes is most likely going on in the muscles of the weightlifter as he competes in his event?

a)

As the cells run out of oxygen they switch to anaerobic respiration, which allows the cell to make small amounts of ATP in the absence of oxygen.

b)

As the cells run out of oxygen, they die off gradually and the weightlifter's muscles have fewer contracting muscle cells.

c)

The cells will never run out of oxygen if the weightlifter is breathing.

d)

As the cells run out of oxygen, they will continue to make the same amount of ATP, since oxygen is not required to make ATP.

49.

What function does ATP carry out in living things?

a)

aids in protein folding and coiling

b)

used to capture and transfer energy

c)

identifies DNA start sequences for transcription

d)

helps maintain the fluidity of cell membranes

50.

How are cellular respiration and photosynthesis related, in terms of energy?

a)

The energy captured in photosynthesis is used to power cellular respiration.

b)

The energy transformed in cellular respiration is used to power photosynthesis.

c)

Photosynthesis and respiration perform the same task in terms of energy transformation.

d)

Energy is not involved in either photosynthesis or cellular respiration.

51.

Two different species of bacteria are examined. Scientists find that species X always produces CO2 and H2O during cellular respiration. Species Y always produces ethyl alcohol and CO2. Which conclusion can be made from these observations?

a)

Only species Y is aerobic.

b)

Only species Y is anaerobic.

c)

Both species X and Y are aerobic.

d)

Both species X and Y are anaerobic.

52.

A diagram representing the relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration is shown below.


The numbered boxes in the diagram represent which of the following?

a)

1 - water; 2 - nitrogen

b)

1 - nitrogen; 2 - oxygen

c)

1 - oxygen; 2 - carbon dioxide

d)

1 - carbon dioxide; 2 - water

53.

Water is essential for life. Its special properties make water the single most important molecule in plant life. Which of the following properties of water enables it to move from the roots to the leaves of plants?

a)

Water expands as it freezes.

b)

Water is an excellent solvent.

c)

Water exhibits cohesive behavior.

d)

Water is able to moderate temperature.

54.

Large bodies of water, such as lakes and oceans, do not quickly fluctuate in temperature. What is the reason for this phenomenon?

a)

Water is an acid.

b)

Water is a versatile solvent.

c)

Water has a high heat capacity.

d)

Water acts as a buffer.

55.

Why does ice stay at the top of oceans instead of sinking to the bottom?

a)

Ice is colder than liquid water.

b)

Ice is less dense than liquid water.

c)

Ice is more dense than liquid water.

d)

Ice is warmer than liquid water.

56.

Water is often called the "universal solvent" because many substances can be dissolved in water. What property of water allows it to be such a versatile solvent?

a)

Purity

b)

Polarity & Cohesion

c)

High Heat Capacity

d)

Expansion Upon Freezing