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WorksheetsSecond Semester Exam
Total questions: 60
Worksheet time: 30mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Refer to the illustration above. The father listed above is most likely heterozygous for the recessive trait.
a)
True
b)
False
2.
Refer to the illustration above. Child #3 probably has a homozygous recessive phenotype.
a)
True
b)
False
3.
Refer to the illustration above. The trait indicated in the pedigree is sex-linked.
a)
True
b)
False
4.
The strands of a DNA molecule are held together by hydrogen bonding between adenine with guanine molecules and cytosine with thymine molecules.
a)
True
b)
False
5.
During transcription, the information on a DNA molecule is “rewritten” into an mRNA molecule.
a)
True
b)
False
6.
Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments by their size and shape.
a)
True
b)
False
7.
The effort to catalog, locate, and sequence all the chromosomes of every living organism is a goal of the Human Genome Project.
a)
True
b)
False
8.
Natural selection can cause the spread of an advantageous adaptation throughout a population over time.
a)
True
b)
False
9.
The theory of evolution predicts that genes will accumulate more alterations in their nucleotide sequences over time
a)
True
b)
False
10.
The human forelimb and the bat forelimb are homologous structures.
a)
True
b)
False
11.
A virus can only reproduce by controlling a cell.
a)
True
b)
False
12.
Viruses consist of RNA or DNA surrounded by a coat of protein.
a)
True
b)
False
13.
Escherichia coli is a eukaryotic cell with a rigid cell wall made of peptidoglycan.
a)
True
b)
False
14.
The passing of traits from parents to offspring is called
a)
Genetics
b)
Development
c)
Heredity
d)
Maturation
15.
The phenotype of an organism
a)
represents its genetic composition
b)
occurs only in dominant pure organisms
c)
is the physical appearance of a trait
d)
cannot be seen
16.
What is the expected genotypic ratio resulting from a heterozygous ´ heterozygous monohybrid cross?
a)
1:2:1
b)
1:2
c)
1:3:1
d)
1:0
17.
If a characteristic is sex-linked, it
a)
occurs most commonly in males
b)
can never occur in females
c)
is always fatal
d)
occurs only in females
18.
What would be the blood type of a person who inherited an A allele from one parent and an O allele from the other?
a)
Type A
b)
Type B
c)
Type AB
d)
Type O
19.
In humans, gametes contain
a)
22 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome
b)
1 Autosome and 22 sex chromosomes
c)
45 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome
d)
1 autosome and 45 sex chromosomes
20.
diploid : somatic cell :: haploid :
a)
body cell
b)
gamete
c)
chromosome
d)
zygote
21.
People with Down syndrome have
a)
45 chromosomes
b)
47 chromosomes
c)
46 chromosomes
d)
no x chromosomes
22.
If the offspring’s phenotype is intermediate of the parent’s phenotype, ___________ is/are exhibited.
a)
homozygous traits
b)
codominance
c)
Recessive traits
d)
Incomplete dominance
23.
If both traits are expressed in an offspring, then __________ is being displayed.
a)
Partial expression
b)
Independent assortment
c)
Incomplete Dominance
d)
Codominance
24.
Avery’s experiments showed that transformation
a)
is prevented by protein-destroying enzymes
b)
is prevented by DNA-destroying enzymes
c)
causes protein to become DNA
d)
is caused by a protein.
25.
All of the following are true about the structure of DNA except
a)
short strands of DNA are contained in chromosomes inside the nucleus of a cell.
b)
every DNA nucleotide contains a sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base
c)
DNA consists of two strands of nucleotides joined by hydrogen bonds.
d)
the long strands of nucleotides are twisted into a double helix.
26.
Molecules of DNA are composed of long chains of
a)
amino acids
b)
monosaccharides
c)
fatty acids
d)
nucleotides
27.
The entire molecule shown in the diagram above is called a(n)
a)
amino acid
b)
polysaccharide
c)
nucleotide
d)
pyrimidine
28.
Watson and Crick built models that demonstrated that
a)
DNA and RNA have the same structure.
b)
DNA is made of two strands that twist into a double helix.
c)
guanine forms hydrogen bonds with adenine.
d)
thymine forms hydrogen bonds with cytosine.
29.
During DNA replication, a complementary strand of DNA is made for each original DNA strand. Thus, if a portion of the original strand is CCTAGCT, then the new strand will be
a)
TTGCATG
b)
CCTAGCT
c)
AAGTATC
d)
GGATCGA
30.
RNA differs from DNA in that RNA
a)
is single-stranded
b)
Contains Uracil
c)
Contains a different sugar molecule
d)
ALL of these
31.
Each nucleotide triplet in mRNA that specifies a particular amino acid is called a(n)
a)
mutagen
b)
anticodon
c)
codon
d)
exon
32.
Refer to the illustration above. What is the portion of the protein molecule coded for by the piece of mRNA given? (Use the mRNA at the top)
a)
Ser—Tyr—Arg—Gly
b)
Val—Asp—Pro—His
c)
Leu—Lys—Cys—Phe
d)
Pro—Glu—Leu—Val
33.
Refer to the illustration above. The anticodons for the codons in the mRNA given are
a)
GAG—UUC—ACG—AAG.
b)
GAG—TTC—ACG—AAG
c)
CUC—GAA—CGU—CUU.
d)
CUU—CGU—GAA—CUC.
34.
Refer to the illustration above. Which of the following would represent the strand of DNA from which the mRNA strand given was made?
a)
CUCAAGUGCUUC
b)
GAGUUCACGAAG
c)
GAGTTCACGAAG
d)
AGACCTGTAGGA
35.
In order for translation to occur, mRNA must migrate to the
a)
ribosomes.
b)
lac operon.
c)
RNA polymerase.
d)
enhancer.
36.
mRNA : nucleus ::
a)
nucleus : protein
b)
protein : cytoplasm
c)
nucleus : ribosomes
d)
protein : nucleus
37.
The portions of DNA molecules that actually code for the production of proteins are called
a)
mutons
b)
exons
c)
introns
d)
exposons
38.
A strand of DNA formed by the splicing of DNA from two different species is called
a)
determinant DNA
b)
plasmid DNA
c)
restriction DNA
d)
recombinant DNA
39.
The use of genetic engineering to transfer human genes into bacteria
a)
is impossible with current technology.
b)
causes the human genes to manufacture bacterial proteins.
c)
results in the formation of a new species of organism
d)
allows the bacteria to produce human proteins.
40.
Cloning is a process by which
a)
undesirable genes may be eliminated.
b)
many identical protein fragments are produced.
c)
a virus and a bacterium may be fused into one.
d)
many identical cells may be produced.
41.
Plasmids ..
a)
are circular pieces of bacterial DNA.
b)
can replicate independently of the organism’s main chromosome.
c)
are often used as vectors in genetic engineering experiments.
d)
All of these
42.
Enzymes that cut DNA molecules at specific places
a)
have sticky ends
b)
are restriction enzymes.
c)
work only on bacterial DNA.
d)
always break the DNA between guanine and adenine.
43.
The goal of the Human Genome Project is to
a)
create maps showing where genes are located on human chromosomes.
b)
create maps showing where chromosomes are located on human genes.
c)
treat patients with genetic diseases.
d)
identify people with genetic diseases.
44.
genetic engineering : human health ::
a)
vaccine : anticoagulant
b)
anticoagulant : hemophilia
c)
human insulin : diabetes patients
d)
diabetes : insulin
45.
Which of the following describes a population?
a)
dogs and cats living in Austin, Texas
b)
four species of fish living in a pond
c)
dogwood trees in Middletown, Connecticut
d)
roses and tulips in a garden
46.
The process by which a species becomes better suited to its environment is known as
a)
accommodation.
b)
adaptation
c)
variation
d)
selection
47.
The hypothesis that evolution occurs at a slow, constant rate is known as
a)
gradualism
b)
natural selection
c)
slow motion
d)
adaptation
48.
Refer to the illustration above. An analysis of DNA from these organisms would indicate that
a)
they have identical DNA
b)
they all have pharyngeal pouches.
c)
their nucleotide sequences show many similarities.
d)
they all have the same number of chromosomes.
49.
Refer to the illustration above. The similarity of these structures suggests that the organisms
a)
have a common ancestor.
b)
evolved slowly.
c)
all grow at different rates.
d)
live for a long time.
50.
Refer to the illustration above. The bones labeled A are known as
a)
vestigial structures.
b)
homologous structures.
c)
sequential structures.
d)
fossil structures.
51.
Structures that have reduced in size because they no longer serve an important function are called
a)
inorganic
b)
fossilized
c)
mutated
d)
vestigial
52.
struggle for survival : competition ::
a)
time : environment
b)
trait : time
c)
survival of the fittest : best traits
d)
environment : traits
53.
Beak shape in finches is affected by
a)
the number of predators in the area.
b)
the color of the finch.
c)
the size of the finch.
d)
the availability of food.
54.
We know viruses are not alive because
a)
they are not cellular.
b)
they cannot use energy.
c)
they cannot make proteins.
d)
All of these
55.
The study of viruses is a part of biology because
a)
they belong to the kingdom Monera.
b)
they are living organisms.
c)
they are about to become extinct.
d)
they are active inside living cells.
56.
A typical virus consists of
a)
a protein coat and a cytoplasm core.
b)
a carbohydrate coat and a nucleic acid core.
c)
a protein coat and a nucleic acid core.
d)
a polysaccharide coat and a nucleic acid core.
57.
The capsid of a virus is the
a)
protective outer coat.
b)
nucleus.
c)
cell membrane
d)
cell wall and membrane complex.
58.
The cycle of viral infection, replication, and cell destruction is called the
a)
lysogenic cycle.
b)
lytic cycle.
c)
metabolic cycle.
d)
None of these
59.
Nitrogen-fixing bacteria
a)
repair nitrogen-damaged legume roots.
b)
damage the environment by using atmospheric oxygen to produce toxic nitrogen compounds.
c)
convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia.
d)
convert ammonia in the soil into nitrogen gas.
60.
It is important to distinguish between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria in diagnosing a bacterial infection because
a)
Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria differ in their response to different antibiotics.
b)
Gram-positive bacteria never cause fatal diseases.
c)
Gram-positive bacteria destroy antibiotics, preventing them from working.
d)
Gram-positive bacteria do not respond to many antibiotics.
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