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CBT Practice 15/4/2018

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 9hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

All are methods of starting three-phase synchronous motor except:?

a)

By using a damper winding.

b)

By using a slip-ring induction motor.

c)

By using a star delta motor starter.

d)

By using a small D.C machine.

2.

When comparing the capacitor start, capacitor run induction motor with other types of single phase induction motor, it has ______________ starting torque and ___________ power factor and efficiency.

a)

higher ; worse

b)

lower ; better

c)

lower ; worse

d)

higher ; better

3.

When comparing the capacitor run induction motor with the capacitor start one, the capacitor run motor has _____________ starting torque and ___________ power factor and efficiency.

a)

higher ; worse

b)

lower ; better

c)

lower ; worse

d)

higher ; better

4.

When comparing the capacitor start induction motor with the spilt phase one, the capacitor start motor has ___________ starting torque and _________ inrush current.

a)

higher ; higher

b)

lower ; lower

c)

lower ; higher

d)

higher ; lower

5.

Split phase motors have _________ starting torque and ________ power factor.

a)

high ; poor

b)

high ; high

c)

poor ; poor

d)

poor ; high

6.

When there are minimum two alternating fluxes, having a phase difference between them, then the resultant magnetic field is.:

a)

static

b)

rotating

c)

alternating

d)

pulsating

7.

In single phase induction motors, the starting winding is made ______________ whereas the running winding is made with ______________.

a)

highly capacitive ; highly inductive

b)

highly inductive ; highly resistive

c)

highly resistive ; highly capacitive

d)

highly resistive ; highly inductive

8.

Single phase induction motors are extensively used in:

a)

Large machines of high speed.

b)

Heavy-duty machines.

c)

Low power applications such as domestic and light-industrial appliances.

d)

Heavy industrial machines

9.

The wattage for the single-phase induction motor is in the range of:

a)

Multiple kilowatts.

b)

Fractional kilowatt.

c)

Tens kilowatts.

d)

Hundreds kilowatts

10.

The type of motor that is used in applications such as ceiling fans, food mixers, refrigerators, vacuum cleaners, portable drills, hair driers is:

a)

Single-phase induction motor.

b)

Three-phase squirrel-cage induction motor.

c)

Three-phase wound-rotor induction motor.

d)

Three-phase synchronous motor

11.

As compared to the squirrel-cage motor, the wound-rotor (slip-ring) induction motor has __________ inrush current and _____________ starting torque.

a)

higher ; lower

b)

lower ; lower

c)

higher ; higher

d)

lower ; higher

12.

What type of magnetic field is produced in the rotor winding of a three-phase synchronous motor when it is energized?

a)

oscillating

b)

constant

c)

rotating

d)

pulsating

13.

What conditions must be satisfied before connecting two transformers in parallel to share a common load?

a)

Same inductance, same kVA rating

b)

Same number of polarity turns, same voltage regulation

c)

Same polarity resistance, same current ratio

d)

Same voltage ratio, same percentage impedance

14.

What conditions must be satisfied before connecting two transformers in parallel to share a common load?

a)

Same inductance, same kVA rating

b)

Same polarity, same phase sequence

c)

Same polarity resistance, same current ratio

d)

Same number of polarity turns, same voltage regulation

15.

All the followings are advantages of operating transformers in parallel except for:

a)

To maximize the voltage rating of the supply.

b)

To maximize electrical power system efficiency.

c)

To maximize electrical power system availability.

d)

To maximize power system reliability.

16.

A transformer delivers 150 volts at no-load and the voltage drops to 141 volts at full load, the regulation would be:


Hint:


VR = { (VNL - VFL) / VNL } x 100%

a)

4%

b)

5%

c)

6%

d)

7%

17.

If E represents the no-load secondary voltage and represents the full-load secondary voltage, the percentage regulation of a transformer is given as:

a)

VR = [ (E - V) / E ] x 100%

b)

VR = [ (E - V) / v ] x 100%

c)

VR = [ (E / E - V) ] x 100%

d)

VR = [ (V / E - V) ] x 100%

18.

Which property of a transformer is measured by the change in output voltage from no-load to full-load conditions?

a)

voltage ratio

b)

transformer efficiency

c)

voltage regulation

d)

power transformer

19.

With the decrease in temperature, the viscosity of the transformer oil will:

a)

Decrease little

b)

increase

c)

decrease much

d)

does not get affected

20.

Pour point of transformer oil is:

a)

The minimum temperature at which oil just start to vaporize under standard test condition.

b)

The minimum temperature at which oil just start to boil under standard test condition.

c)

The minimum temperature at which oil just start to flow under standard test condition.

d)

The minimum temperature at which oil just start to become intolerably hot under standard test condition.

21.

If the resistance of supply line is 0.32ohms, and the resistance of protective earth conductor is also 0.32 ohms. Find the total earth fault loop impedance of the system (Zs), if the external impedance (Ze) is given as 0.15ohms.

a)

0.79 ohms

b)

0.47 ohms

c)

0.32 ohms

d)

0.64 ohms

22.

Based on Table 41.3 of the SBC 401 given below, what is the maximum earth fault loop impedance in a system connected in a MCB, 16A, type B?

a)

2.30 ohms

b)

4.60 ohms

c)

2.87 ohms

d)

1.44 ohms

23.

_______________ is the low impedance path to earth of fault current.

a)

Fault current loop

b)

Earth Fault loop impedance

c)

Earthing Loop

d)

Leakage current loop to earth

24.

If the voltage drop across the conductor is 6.7%. Which of the following is true?

a)

The conductor is good to be used

b)

The conductor is not long enough

c)

The conductor size (CSA) must be increased

d)

The conductor size (CSA) must be decreased

25.

In the Earthing System, PEN stands for ________________,

a)

Planet Earth Nations

b)

Proposed earth and neutral

c)

Protective earth neutral

d)

Protect the Earth’s Nature

26.

If the size of the conductor is increased, the voltage drop of the conductor will

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

be the same

d)

not be known

27.

Which of the following conductors will have the highest voltage drop?

a)

25 meter 2.5 mm2 black conductor

b)

10 meter 2.5 mm2 brown conductor

c)

30 meter 2.5 mm2 gray conductor

d)

20 meter 2.5 mm2 blue conductor

28.

If Ib<= In <= Iz


which of the following conditions is correct?

a)

IN>IB

b)

IZ<IB

c)

IN<IB

d)

IN>IZ

29.

What is the minimum CSA of conductors that can be used for socket-outlet installations?

a)

1.5 mm^2

b)

2.5 mm^2

c)

4.0 mm^2

d)

6.0 mm^2

30.

Which type of circuit breaker is suitable for purely resistive loads or loads with very small inductive component?


Hint: The minimum trip current is 3 to 5 times the rated current.

a)

Type A

b)

Type B

c)

Type C

d)

Type D

31.

One of the bellow is an example of Earthing types :

a)

TMT

b)

MTANT

c)

TN-C-S

d)

S-C-TN

32.

According to SBC401 the allowance for a voltage drop in consumer’s installations is:

a)

40%

b)

4% or more

c)

4% or less

d)

5%

33.

Electrical resistivity has a unit of ____________________.

a)

Ohms

b)

Ohms * volts

c)

Ohms/mm2

d)

Ohms*mm

34.

If a socket outlet circuit is to be installed in a washing area, what type of protective device would you choose?

a)

MCB

b)

RCBO

c)

MCB or RCBO

d)

CNT

35.

According to SBC401, if the live cable CSA for a given circuit is 50 mm2, the earthing wire CSA should be________________.

a)

2.5mm2

b)

16mm2

c)

50mm2

d)

25mm2

36.

In the coordination of conductor and overcurrent protection device, which of the following is true?

a)

Ib ≤ In ≤ Iz

b)

In ≤ Iz ≤ In

c)

I2 ≤ Ib ≤ Iz

d)

Iz ≤ Ib ≥ In

37.

According to SBC 401, the PEN conductor shall have the color of _____________.

a)

Blue

b)

Green and Yellow

c)

Black

d)

Brown

38.

According to SBC 401, the conductor for Phase 2 of three-phase a.c. circuit shall have the color of _____________.

a)

Blue

b)

Red

c)

Black

d)

Brown

39.

Inside the bathroom, which area or object is Zone 0?

a)

The door

b)

The bathtub

c)

The mirror

d)

The ceiling

40.

What degree of protection is necessary for the installation of electrical equipment in Zone 0 of a swimming pool?

a)

IPX2

b)

IPX4

c)

IPX6

d)

IPX8

41.

What is the maximum residual operating current of an RCD protecting socket-outlets installed in Zone 3 of bathtub and shower basins?

a)

300 mA

b)

30 mA

c)

30 A

d)

300 A

42.

What is the maximum operating temperature of a PVC insulation according to SBC401?

a)

60°C

b)

70°C

c)

80°C

d)

90°C

43.

What does RCD mean

a)

Resistive and Capacitive Device

b)

Residual Capacitance Device

c)

Resistive Current Device

d)

Residual Current Device

44.

The earthing system applicable for Caravans electrical installation is ______________

a)

TT

b)

TN-C

c)

IT

d)

TN-S

45.

What is minimum size of PE conductor to be used in caravan electrical installation?

a)

1.5 mm square

b)

4.0 mm square

c)

1.0 mm square

d)

10 mm square

46.

Which protective measure provides protection against indirect contact?

a)

obstacles

b)

placing out of reach

c)

insulation of live parts

d)

automatic disconnection of supplu

47.

What temperature factor must be applied when confirming compliance of measured fault loop impedance?

a)

0.5

b)

0.66

c)

0.75

d)

0.8

48.

What type of socket outlet circuit does not require additional protection provided by a 30 mA RCD?

a)

Socket-outlet circuits used by ordinary persons

b)

Socket-outlet circuits located within wet areas

c)

Socket-outlet circuits used by skilled persons

d)

Socket-outlet circuits located outdoors

49.

What is the minimum cross-sectional area of a line and CPC, in order to provide ADS in the circuit with a maximum permitted Zs of 0.36 Ω if Ze is 0.17 Ω using the information in the figure below. (t = 0.4s, k = 115)

a)

1.5/1.5 mm2

b)

2.5/2.5 mm2

c)

4.0/4.0 mm2

d)

6.0/6.0 mm2

50.

What test instrument is used to confirm the continuity of protective conductors?

a)

voltage indicator

b)

low resistance ohmmeter

c)

insulation resistance tester

d)

earth electrode resistance tester

51.

Checking that the measured test results meet the required values will enable the inspector to confirm that the electrical installation is:

a)

correctly installed

b)

safe to be in service

c)

nice to see

d)

expensive

52.

Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between prospective fault current and the fault current rating of a circuit breaker?

a)

Ipf >= Icn

b)

Ipf <= Icn

c)

Ipf >= In

d)

Ipf <= In

53.

Which of the following instruments must be used to measure the earth electrode resistance for a standby generator?

a)

earth fault loop tester

b)

IR tester

c)

low resistance ohmmeter

d)

earth electrode resistance tester

54.

Which test is used to confirm the correct connection of a 3 phase socket outlet.

a)

phase sequence

b)

IR test

c)

earth fault loop

d)

operation of residual current devices

55.

Which test would be used to confirm that exposed conductive parts are connected to the main earthing terminal.

a)

IR test

b)

prospective fault current

c)

earth fault loop

d)

continuity of protective conductors

56.

In order to undertake the inspection and testing of an electrical installation a person must be a____________.

a)

competent person

b)

principled person

c)

duty person

d)

registered person

57.

Which installation condition does not affect the current carrying capacity of a cable?

a)

Length of the cable.

b)

Conductor material.

c)

Number of cables run together.

d)

Air temperature around the cable

58.

Which document must be attached to a Test Report?

a)

Instrument calibration certificate.

b)

Saudi Building Code (401).

c)

Generic risk assessment.

d)

Inspection Schedule.

59.

Which document must be attached to a Test Report?

a)

Instrument calibration certificate.

b)

Saudi Building Code (401).

c)

Generic risk assessment.

d)

Inspection Schedule.

60.

What is the effect on an installation if the supply voltage drops below the lower voltage limit?

a)

Circuit breakers may fail to operate if a short-circuit occurs.

b)

Contactors may de-energize, switching off motors.

c)

Discharge lighting may produce more light.

d)

Heaters may overheat and cause a fire.