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WorksheetsReview Instrument Ground
Total questions: 60
Worksheet time: 30mins
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the left from an east heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.
The compass will remain on east for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a westerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will initially show a turn in the opposite direction, then turn to a northerly indication but lagging behind the actual heading of the aircraft.
The compass will remain on a westerly heading for a short time, then gradually catch up to the actual heading of the aircraft.
The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.
The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading.
What would be the indication on the VSI during entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level flight if the static ports were iced over?
The indication would be in reverse of the actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
The initial indication would be a climb, then descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.
The VSI pointer would remain at zero regardless of the actual rate of descent.
Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
At standard temperature.
When the altimeter setting is 29.92" Hg.
When indicated, and pressure altitudes are the same value on the altimeter.
Which practical test should be made on the electric gyro instruments prior to starting an engine?
Check that the electrical connections are secure on the back of the instruments.
Check that the attitude of the miniature aircraft is wings level before turning on electrical power.
Turn on the electrical power and listen for any unusual or irregular mechanical noise.
What indications should you observe on the turn-and-slip indicator during taxi?
The ball moves freely opposite the turn, and the needle deflects in the direction of the turn.
The needle deflects in the direction of the turn, but the ball remains centered.
The ball deflects opposite the turn, but the needle remains centered.
The displacement of a turn coordinator during a coordinated turn will
indicate the angle of bank.
remain constant for a given bank regardless of airspeed.
increase as angle of bank increases.
The lighter workloads associated with glass panel flight deck instrumentation
are instrumental in decreasing flightcrew fatigue.
have proven to increase safety in operations.
may lead to complacency by the flightcrew.
Which illustration indicates a coordinated turn?
3
1
2
What changes in control displacement should be made so that “1” would result in a coordinated standard rate turn?
Increase right rudder and decrease rate of turn.
Increase right rudder and increase rate of turn.
Decrease right rudder and increase angle of bank.
What effect, if any, will landing at a higher-than-recommended touchdown speed have on hydroplaning?
No effect on hydroplaning, but increases landing roll.
Reduces hydroplaning potential if heavy braking is applied.
Increases hydroplaning potential regardless of braking.
Which OBS selection on the No. 1 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?
175°.
165°.
345°.
To which aircraft position does HSI presentation “H” correspond?
8
1
2
During IFR en route operations using an approved TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS system for navigation,
No other navigation system is required.
Active monitoring of an alternate navigation system is always required.
The aircraft must have an approved TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 and operational alternate navigation system appropriate for the route.
What are the primary benefits of satellite based area navigation (RNAV)?
Provides optimal routing and altitudes.
Radio tuning and controller communication is minimized.
Standard Terminal Arrival Routes and Departure Procedures are not required.
To ensure situational awareness while using an autopilot system
pilots must verify that the aircraft is tracking the intended flight profile.
it is important to ensure that all navigational databases are current.
current navigational charts are required.
After your recent IFR experience lapses, how much time do you have before you must pass an instrument proficiency check to act as pilot in command under IFR?
6 months.
90 days.
12 months.
What is the maximum tolerance allowed for an operational VOR equipment check when using a VOT?
Plus or minus 4°.
Plus or minus 6°.
Plus or minus 8°.
When must an operational check on the aircraft VOR equipment be accomplished when used to operate under IFR?
Within the preceding 10 days or 10 hours of flight time.
Within the preceding 30 days or 30 hours of flight time.
Within the preceding 30 days.
A VOR equipment operational check must have been accomplished and found to be within the limits of permissible bearing error prior to use under IFR within the preceding
60 days.
24-calendar months.
30 days.
What minimum navigation equipment is required for IFR flight?
VOR/LOC receiver, transponder, and DME.
VOR receiver and, if in ARTS III environment, a coded transponder equipped for altitude reporting.
Navigation equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used.
To meet the requirements for flight under IFR, an aircraft must be equipped with certain operable instruments and equipment. One of those required is
a radar altimeter.
a transponder with altitude reporting capability.
a clock with sweep second pointer or digital presentation.
Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out is mandated for aircraft operations in
Class A, B, and C airspace.
Class A, B, and C airspace above 2,500 ft. AGL.
all airspace within the 48 contiguous states above 2,000 ft. AGL.
Each person operating an aircraft equipped with ADS-B Out must operate it in the transmit mode
at all times unless otherwise authorized by the FAA or directed by ATC.
when operating in Class B and C airspace, excluding operations conducted under day VFR.
all classes of airspace when the flight is operated for compensation or hire but not otherwise.
The "ILS critical area boundary" sign identifies the
Area where an aircraft is prohibited from entering.
Edge of the ILS critical area.
Exit boundary for the runway protected area.
When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?
If any crosswind, land on the upwind side of the runway and prior to the jet's touchdown point.
At least 1,000 feet beyond the jet's touchdown point.
Beyond the jet's touchdown point.
Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?
Climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions.
Climb slightly on the right side of the airway when in VFR conditions.
Climb far enough to the right side of the airway to avoid climbing or descending traffic coming from the opposite direction if in VFR conditions.
When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below basic VFR; otherwise, hourly.
Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values.
Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value.
When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?
When visibility is less than 1 mile.
When parallel runways are in use.
When departing from a runway intersection.
During the en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot is advised “Radar service terminated.” What action is appropriate?
Set transponder to code 1200.
Resume normal position reporting.
Activate the IDENT feature of the transponder to re-establish radar contact.
What action should you take if your DME fails at FL 240?
Advise ATC of the failure and land at the nearest available airport where repairs can be made.
Notify ATC that it will be necessary for you to go to a lower altitude, since your DME has failed.
Notify ATC of the failure and continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made.
MOAs are established to
prohibit all civil aircraft because of hazardous or secret activities.
separate certain military activities from IFR traffic.
restrict civil aircraft during periods of high-density training activities.
Operation in which airspace requires filing an IFR flight plan?
Any airspace when the visibility is less than 1 mile.
Class E airspace with IMC and Class A airspace.
Positive control area, Continental Control Area, and all other airspace, if the visibility is less than 1 mile.
If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action should be to
execute a climbing turn to parallel the published final approach course and climb to the initial approach altitude.
climb to the published circling minimums then proceed direct to the final approach fix.
make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course.
If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot is
required to immediately execute the missed approach procedure.
permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.
permitted to continue the approach to the approach threshold of the ILS runway.
You receive this ATC clearance: "...HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL OF ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS..." You arrive at the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350°. Which holding pattern correctly complies with these instructions, and what is the recommended entry procedure?
teardrop.
direct.
direct.
If cleared for an S-LOC 18 approach at Lincoln Municipal from over HUSKR, it means the flight should
land straight in on runway 18.
comply with straight-in landing minimums.
begin final approach without making a procedure turn.
What type entry is recommended for the missed approach holding pattern depicted on the VOR/DME RWY 36 approach chart for Price/Carbon County Airport?
Direct only.
Teardrop only.
Parallel only.
For takeoff on RWY 9 using an average groundspeed of 140 knots, what minimum rate of climb would meet the required minimum rate of climb as specified on the instrument departure procedure?
A. 830 feet per minute.
B. 415 feet per minute.
C. 970 feet per minute.
How do you recognize the missed approach point on the LNAV/VNAV approach?
A. At the RW30 waypoint.
B. At the Decision Altitude (DA) for the LPV portion of this approach.
C. Arrival at the LNAV/VNAV Decision Altitude (DA).
What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected?
A. Breathe at a slower rate by taking very deep breaths.
B. Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal.
C. Consciously force yourself to take deep breaths and breathe at a faster rate than normal.
The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions
A. are frequently encountered by beginning instrument pilots, but never by pilots with moderate instrument experience.
B. occur, in most instances, during the initial period of transition from visual to instrument flight.
C. must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight instruments.
Due to visual illusion, when landing on a narrower-than-usual runway, the aircraft will appear to be
higher than actual, leading to a lower-than-normal approach.
lower than actual, leading to a higher-than-normal approach.
higher than actual, leading to a higher-than-normal approach.
In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?
An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter.
A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea.
Warm, moist air settling over a warmer surface under no-wind conditions.
If squalls are reported at your destination, what wind conditions should you anticipate?
Sudden increases in wind speed of at least 16 knots rising to 22 knots or more, lasting for at least 1 minute.
Peak gusts of at least 35 knots for a sustained period of 1 minute or longer.
A sudden change in direction of at least 20° and changes in speed of at least 10 knots between peaks and lulls.
Cumulus clouds often indicate
possible turbulence.
a temperature inversion.
a dry adiabatic lapse rate.
To recover from a tailplane stall brought on by ice accumulation, the pilot should
retract the flaps and increase power, but only to compensate for the reduction in lift.
decrease power and maintain a speed below VA.
extend the flaps and reduce power to slow the aircraft.
If you experience icing during an approach, you should
extend maximum flaps and keep the autopilot engaged.
retract the flaps as necessary and disengage the autopilot.
fly the airplane manually to the final approach fix and then engage the autopilot.
What is an important characteristic of wind shear?
It is an atmospheric condition that is associated exclusively with zones of convergence.
The Coriolis phenomenon in both high- and low-level air masses is the principal generating force.
It is an atmospheric condition that may be associated with a low-level temperature inversion, a jet stream, or a frontal zone.
What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?
Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute.
One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours.
Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.
Consider this AIRMET which includes your route of flight: DFW WS WA 211445 AIRMET IFR . . . OK TX FROM END TO TXK TO HOU TO LBB TO END CIG BELOW 010. CONDS ENDG 15-18Z. This indicates
there will be icing in clouds below 10,000 feet MSL.
visibility will be less than 3 SM until 15Z.
the area will have low ceilings before 15Z.
The U.S. HIGH-LEVEL SIGNIFICANT WEATHER PROG, area 8, represents the
height of the jet stream (53,000 feet).
height of the tropopause.
height of maximum wind shear (53,000 feet).
Which weather forecast describes prospects for an area coverage of both severe and general thunderstorms during the following 24 hours?
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.
Convective outlook.
Radar Summary Chart.
What is the significance of the symbol at GRICE intersection?
It signifies a localizer-only approach is available at Harry P. Williams Memorial.
The localizer has an additional navigation function.
GRICE intersection also serves as the FAF for the ILS approach procedure to Harry P. Williams Memorial.
What is the MDA and visibility criteria for a straight-in LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at Portland International in a Category B airplane?
1,120 ft. MSL; visibility 1 SM.
700 ft. MSL; visibility 1 SM.
700 ft. MSL; visibility 1 NM.
What is your position relative to the 9 DME ARC and the 206° radial of the instrument departure procedure?
On the 9 DME arc and approaching R-206.
Outside the 9 DME arc and past R-206.
Inside the 9 DME arc and approaching R-206.
On which heading should you plan to depart DELMO intersection?
A. 016°.
B. 039°.
C. 355°.
At which indication or occurrence should you initiate the published missed approach procedure for the ILS RWY 6 approach provided the runway environment is not in sight?
A. When reaching 373 feet MSL indicated altitude.
B. When 3 minutes (at 90 knots ground speed) have expired or reaching 373 feet MSL, whichever occurs first.
C. Upon reaching 373 feet AGL.
How many initial approach fixes serve the VOR/DME RWY 28R (Billings Logan) approach procedure?
A. Three.
B. Four.
C. Five.
