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GEO-Science Final Exam

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How old is the earth?

a)

approximately 6000 years

b)

4.6 billion years

c)

probably like a million years

d)

5 billion years

2.

What percentage of the Earth's surface is covered with water?

a)

70%

b)

50%

c)

30%

d)

90%

3.

Which of the following did Alfred Wegener not cite as evidence of Continental Drift?

a)

Lots of earthquakes around the Ring of Fire

b)

Shape of Continents

c)

Evidence from the Paleoclimate

d)

The fossil record

4.

Wegener proposed the theory of Continental Drift, which stated:

a)

Over time, the continents don't move due to the dinosaurs

b)

Over time, the continents move relative to each other.

c)

Over time, the continents change shape but don't actually move at all.

d)

Drifting continents are a possibility, but only on the moon.

5.

The theory of plate tectonics states all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

The earth's surface is composed of rigid plates, which are pieces of the Lithosphere

b)

The Lithospheric plates "float" on the Mesosphere

c)

The Lithospheric plates move relative to each other.

d)

There are three main types of plate boundaries

6.

There are two types of crust, including:

a)

oceanic and lithospheric

b)

Lithospheric and asthenospheric

c)

Continental and oceanic

d)

asthenospheric and continental

7.

The formation of a mid ocean ridge?

a)

divergent

b)

convergent

c)

transform

8.

Formation of inland lakes or seas?

a)

divergent

b)

convergent

c)

transform

9.

The deepest ocean trenches are formed at:

a)

Divergent

b)

convergent

c)

transform

10.

The Himalayas, including Mt. Everest?

a)

Divergent

b)

Convergent

c)

Transform

11.

The San Andreas Fault?

a)

Divergent

b)

Convergent

c)

transfrom

12.

Volcanic islands

a)

divergent

b)

convergent

c)

transform

13.

The place where slippage first occurs is called the earthquake's....

a)

focus

b)

epicenter

c)

magnitude

d)

intensity

14.

To determine how far away from a seismograph station an earthquake occurred, scientists plot the difference in arrival times between...

a)

P and S waves

b)

S and L waves

c)

P and L waves

d)

seismic waves and tsunamis

15.

What is the minimum number of seismograph stations a scientist must have data from in order to locate the epicenter of an earthquake?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

16.

Which type of seismic wave causes rock particles to move together and apart in the same direction as the wave is moving?

a)

L wave

b)

S wave

c)

P wave

d)

surface wave

17.

Which type of seismic wave travels the fastest?

a)

L wave

b)

S wave

c)

P wave

d)

surface wave

18.

The Pacific Ring of Fire is an earthquake zone that forms a ring around

a)

the atlantic ocean

b)

south America

c)

the Pacific ocean

d)

North America

19.

The San Andreas Fault Zone has formed where the edge of the Pacific plate is slipping....

a)

under the North American plate

b)

over the North American plate

c)

South along the North American plate

d)

North along the North American plate

20.

Most earthquakes occur along or near the edges of the

a)

north American Plate

b)

earth's oceans and lakes

c)

Eurasian plate

d)

Earth's lithospheric plates

21.

The force that can change the size and shape of rocks is called

a)

stress

b)

magnitude

c)

elasticity

d)

friction

22.

Which of the following best describes aftershocks?

a)

a series of small tremors occurring after a major earthquake

b)

seismic waves that cannot travel through liquids

c)

areas along a fault where slippage and fracturing first occur

d)

giant ocean waves that originate at a fault zone

23.

Before a volcanic eruption, seismic activity seems to

a)

increase in frequency and decrease in intensity

b)

decrease in both frequency and intensity

c)

decrease in frequency and increase in intensity

d)

increase in both frequency and intensity

24.

What is formed when a magma chamber empties and collapses?

a)

a crater

b)

a fissure

c)

a caldera

d)

a vent

25.

What is the name of the volcano which erupted in 1980 and caused widespread damage in the Washington and Oregon region?

a)

Mt. Vesuvius

b)

Mt. St. Helens

c)

Mt. Rushmore

d)

Mt. McKinley

26.

Which of the following formations would most likely result from a single violent volcanic eruption:

a)

shield volcano

b)

vent

c)

cinder cone

d)

caldera

27.

The broad volcanic feature formed by quiet eruptions on thin lava flows is called a

a)

shield zone

b)

cinder cone

c)

rift

d)

strato-volcano

28.

Most magma forms in

a)

continental crust

b)

the lithosphere

c)

the asthenosphere

d)

ocean crust

29.

Volcanoes often are found in areas on Earth where

a)

mountains are found

b)

rivers are found

c)

plates fit together perfectly

d)

plates collide

30.

high levels of silica causes magma to become

a)

less dense

b)

thicker

c)

thinner

d)

more fluid

31.

What is the difference between lava and magma

a)

After magma reaches the surface its called lava

b)

they originate from different places

c)

they are made of different types of rock

d)

they are different colors

32.

Shield volcanoes are the result of

a)

granitiic lava flows

b)

basaltic lava flows

c)

basaltic and andestic lava flows

d)

andesitic lava flows

33.

Lichens and mosses produce weathering agents called

a)

exfoliation

b)

organic activities

c)

organic acids

d)

sulfuric acids

34.

Sedimentary rocks that weather most quickly contain

a)

that clay

b)

calcite

c)

quartz

d)

crystal

35.

Plant and animal activities cause what kind of weathering

a)

chemical

b)

mechanical

c)

chemical and mechanical

d)

none

36.

Parent rock rich in fieldspar or aluminum rich minerals creates soil with a lot of

a)

silt

b)

clay

c)

sand

d)

iron

37.

Residual soil generally consists of all of the following layers EXCEPT

a)

partially weathered bedrock

b)

subsoil

c)

topsoil

d)

lava

38.

Arctic and desert climates generally form soil that is thin contains mostly

a)

humus

b)

regolith

c)

pedocal

d)

laterites

39.

Which of the following is NOT an agent of erosion?

a)

wind

b)

glaciers

c)

gravity

d)

sun

40.

Which of the following is a form of mechanical weathering?

a)

oxidation

b)

abrasion

c)

hydrolysis

d)

carbonation

41.

Which of the following is NOT a process of chemical weathering?

a)

carbonation

b)

oxidation

c)

acid precipitation

d)

exfoliation

42.

In what climates is the weathering rate slowest?

a)

cold, wet climates

b)

alternating hot and cold climates

c)

hot dry climates

d)

warm, humid climates

43.

Particles of rock material in soil with diameters from .004 to .006mm are called

a)

humus

b)

clay

c)

sand

d)

silt

44.

Which of the following is not a common agent of erosion?

a)

water

b)

wind

c)

burrowing

d)

gravity

45.

Areas with low, rolling hills formed from mountains are

a)

plateaus

b)

mountains

c)

plains

d)

peneplains

46.

Oxidation, hydrolysis, acid precipitation, and carbonation are examples of

a)

mechanical weathering

b)

abrasion

c)

erosion

d)

chemical weathering

47.

Ice, plants, and animals gravity running water, and wind are common agents of;

a)

mechanical weathering

b)

carbonation

c)

exfoliation

d)

chemical weathering

48.

When overlaying rocks are removed from granite that was formed deep beneath Earth's surface, pressure decreases, and the granite forms long curved cracks called

a)

exfoliation

b)

joints

c)

gullies

d)

valleys

49.

A common type of mechanical weathering that occurs in cold climates and is strong enough to split even huge boulders

a)

abrasion

b)

crackling

c)

exfoliation

d)

ice wedging

50.

The process by which softer, less weather resistant rocks wear away at a faster rate than harder, more weather resistant rocks do is called

a)

weathering

b)

chemical weathering

c)

differential weathering

d)

mechanical weathering

51.

The movement of a large block of soil and rock downhill in one piece when it becomes unstable is called a

a)

slump

b)

rockfall

c)

landslide

d)

creep

52.

The local water budget usually changes with

a)

local consumption

b)

desalination

c)

the seasons

d)

sedimentation

53.

What are two ways that fresh water supplies can be maintained?

a)

conservation and alternative methods of obtaining fresh water

b)

conservation and condensation

c)

conservation evapotranspiration

d)

converstion and declassification

54.

Which of the following factors affect the local water budget?

a)

conservation, usage, drought

b)

temperature, vegetation, rainfall

c)

irrigation, industry, recreation

d)

income, outflow, prediction

55.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of rock?

a)

igneous

b)

magma

c)

sedimentary

d)

metamorphic

56.

When magma cools what type of rock forms

a)

igneous

b)

metamorphic

c)

lava

d)

sedimentary

57.

What processes occurs when sediment turns to rock

a)

cooling

b)

melting

c)

compaction and cementation

d)

weathering and erosion

58.

What type of rock forms when sediment turns to rock

a)

igneous

b)

metamorphic

c)

lava

d)

sedimentary

59.

If granite undergoes high temperatures and high pressures at depth within Earth, what type of rock will be formed? assume that the granite does not melt.

a)

a sedimentary rock

b)

a metamorphic rock

c)

magma

d)

an igneous rock

60.

All of the energy that drives Earth's rock cycle comes from

a)

God the creator of the Universe

b)

Earth's interior and the sun

c)

the breakdown of organic matter

d)

the movement of water over Earth's surface

61.

A rock that forms when magma hardens beneath Earth's surface is called an

a)

intrusive metamorphic rock

b)

intrusive igneous rock

c)

extrusive sedimentary rock

d)

extrusive igneous rock

62.

A rock that forms from cooling lava is classified as an

a)

intrusive igneous rock

b)

extrusive igneous rock

c)

extrusive metamorphic rock

d)

intrusive volcanic rock

63.

When large masses of magma solidify far below Earth's surface they form igneous rocks that have a

a)

glassy texture

b)

clastic texture

c)

fine grained texture

d)

coarse grained texture

64.

The igneous rock texture that is characterized by two distinctly different crystal sizes is called

a)

coarse grained texture

b)

fine grained texture

c)

glassy texture

d)

porphyritic texture

65.

Lava that cools so quickly that ions do not have time to arrange themselves into crystals will for igneous rocks with a

a)

porphyritic texture

b)

glassy texture

c)

coarse grained texture

d)

fine grained texture

66.

A conglomerate is a rock that forms as a result of

a)

intense heat and pressure

b)

compaction and cementation

c)

rapid cooling

d)

slow cooling

67.

Which of the following represents the correct order of the processes involved in sedimentary rock formation?

a)

erosion, weathering, compaction cementation, deposition

b)

compaction, cementation, deposition, weathering, erosion

c)

deposition, cementation, compaction, erosion, weathering

d)

weathering erosion, deposition, compaction, cementation

68.

Which sedimentary rock most likely be deposited in a very high-energy stream?

a)

shale

b)

coal

c)

siltstone

d)

conglomerate

69.

Which of the following is a use for fossils found in sedimentary rocks?

a)

interpreting past environments

b)

indicating when the rock formed

c)

matching rocks of the same age found in different places

d)

all of the above

70.

What type of rock is composed of very fine crystaline quartz dark in color

a)

chalk

b)

sandstone

c)

rock gypsum

d)

flint

71.

A clastic sedimentary rock with particles that are 1.5 mm in diameter would be classified as a

a)

conglomerate

b)

coquina

c)

siltstone

d)

sandstone

72.

A course grained rock with angular fragments would be classified as

a)

conglomerate

b)

sandstone

c)

breccia

d)

crystaline limestone

73.

Fossils are only found in

a)

intrusive igneous rock

b)

foliated metamorphic rocks

c)

sedimentary rocks

d)

nonfoliated metamorphic rocks

74.

In which of the following settings would a metamorphic rock most likely form?

a)

an ocean floor

b)

a desert

c)

8 km below Earth's surface

d)

on the slopes of an active volcano

75.

Most of the heat for contact metamorphism is supplied by

a)

a nearby mass of magma

b)

radioactive elements

c)

frictional heating along a fault

d)

deep burial within Earth

76.

Which of the following changes may occur during metamorphism?

a)

certain minerals may recrystalized

b)

The rock becomes more compact

c)

crystals may grow larger

d)

all of the above

77.

Which of the following is an example of a renewable resource?

a)

cotton

b)

copper

c)

natural gas

d)

coal

78.

renewable resources

a)

can be replenished over months, years, or decades

b)

are all living resources

c)

have finite supplies that will one day be used up

d)

include iron, natural gas, and copper

79.

Which of the following is an example of a nonrenewable resource?

a)

cotton

b)

trees

c)

cattle

d)

uranium

80.

The advantages of solar energy include the fact that it is

a)

nonrenewable

b)

non polluting

c)

expensive

d)

absent at night

81.

What is one of the drawbacks to the extensive use of solar energy?

a)

it is nonrenewable

b)

necessary equipment and installation are expensive

c)

it is available only at night

d)

it produces toxic pollution

82.

The fuel for nuclear fission in nuclear reactors is

a)

petroleum

b)

carbon

c)

hydrogen

d)

uranium

83.

Which of the following is a problem associated with the increased use of nuclear energy:

a)

cost of building safe nuclear facilities

b)

major hazards involved in nuclear waste disposal

c)

concern over the possibility of a serious nuclear accident

d)

all of the above

84.

one problem with wind energy as a major source of electricity is

a)

it is nonrenewable

b)

it causes major air pollution

c)

it does not work during the night

d)

the expense of large tracts of land in populated areas

85.

Hydroelectric power is produced by

a)

falling water that turns a turbine

b)

tides that pour through a dam barrier

c)

hot water that comes from deep underground

d)

electric current that flows across a dam

86.

What is the source of geothermal energy?

a)

sunlight heating surface waters

b)

the splitting of atoms to release energy

c)

natural underground reservoirs of steam and hot water

d)

very hot minerals deep underground

87.

How is tidal power harnessed?

a)

by building a dam across a swiftly flowing river

b)

by bombarding uranium, nuclei with neutrons

c)

by building a dam across the mouth of a by or an estuary in a coastal area

d)

by tapping into underground steam reservoirs

88.

What amount of Earth's total water supply is usable fresh water?

a)

25%

b)

less than 1%

c)

50%

d)

75%

89.

The process that occurs when physical forces break rock into smaller pieces without changing the rock's chemical composition is called

a)

differential weathering

b)

chemical weathering

c)

mechanical weathering

d)

erosiion

90.

When water freezes its volume

a)

decreases slightly

b)

increases

c)

stays the same

d)

decreases greatly

91.

Which of these factors affects the rate of weathering?

a)

climate

b)

chemical composition of the exposed rock

c)

surface area of the exposed rock

d)

all of the above

92.

Which process is considered to be rainfall

a)

precipitation

b)

evaporation

c)

runoff

d)

infiltration

93.

When waterfall seeps into the ground or soil this is called

a)

precipitation

b)

evaporation

c)

runoff

d)

infiltration

94.

what is the main energy source for the water cycle?

a)

running water

b)

sun

c)

earth's internal heat

d)

gravity

95.

The water cycle is the

a)

distribution of drinking water of Earth

b)

unending circulation of Earth's water supply

c)

the recycling of water after industrial use

d)

the evaporation of water from Earth's surface

96.

Plants release water into the atmosphere through a process called

a)

evaporation

b)

transpiration

c)

infilltration

d)

precipitation

97.

balance in the water cycle means that

a)

the average annual precipitation over Earth equals the amount of water that evaporates

b)

water that falls to Earth only enters oceans

c)

the amount of water that falls to Earth weighs the same as the amount that condenses in clouds

d)

water that evaporates from Earth's surface remains forever in the atmosphere

98.

how does nuclear fission produce energy/

a)

Moving water turns turbines to produce electricity

b)

controlled nuclear chain reaction produces heat, driving steam turbines to produce energy

c)

uncontrolled nuclear reaction produces heat driving steam turbines to produce energy

d)

carbon atoms are bombarded by neutrons

99.

Wind power generates

a)

noise pollution

b)

air pollution

c)

water pollution

d)

soil pollution

100.

Fresh water is used for which of the following

a)

drinking

b)

growing food

c)

cooking

d)

all of the above

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