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NFAPES Final Exam

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Resilience of ecosystems depends greatly on

I.the ecosystem's cultural services

II.species diversity

III.the ecosystem's instrumental value

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and II

e)

I, II, and III

2.

A(n)_____in species diversity is associated with a(n)_____in the functions of an ecosystem.

a)

increase; decrease

b)

decrease; exponential increase

c)

decrease; unobserved changed

d)

decline; decline

e)

decline; increase

3.

What is the primary reason that species are overharvested?

a)

Market demand for goods associated witha species

b)

Apathy towards species conservation

c)

Lack of awareness about endangering species

d)

Lack of legislation to proct species

e)

Lack of food support from the United Nations

4.

Increased CO2 , has led to an increase in ocean acidification. This decrease in pH can casue calcium carbonate to dissolve, and disupt the ability of marine organisms to make or protect shells. What does this example illustrate?

a)

How climate change can decrease marine biodiversity

b)

How climate change can increase marine biodiversity

c)

How artificial selection operates in marine biomes

d)

How natural selection affects survival

e)

How calcium carbonate bioaccumulates in the ocean

5.

What is the best way to connect separate populations in order to promote gene flow?

a)

Catch and release programs

b)

Captive breeding in zoos

c)

Habitat corridors

d)

An increase in edge habitat

e)

Introduction of exotic species

6.

The concept of sustainabile development does NOT include

a)

the development of alternative materials.

b)

efficient use of energy.

c)

meeting human needs.

d)

replanting tropical rainforests.

e)

consideration of future generations.

7.

Sustainable development

a)

requires giving up the use of all fossil fuels in the next 50 years.

b)

requires resources to be stored for future generations.

c)

is achieved when the amount of food grown equals the amount needed.

d)

balances human needs and resource management.

e)

is not possible on a planet of over 7 billion people.

8.

An ecological footprint considers

a)

per capita resource use of a nation.

b)

how much individual consumes in terms of land area.

c)

average yearly individual consumption of resources.

d)

resources that an entire nation consumes in an average year.

e)

the ration of resources consumed in developed nations to less developed nations.

9.

Check ALL statements that provide a hypothesis for Passage 1-1?

a)

Wheat grows taller when planted by itself than whe it is alternated with clover

b)

Clover grows bettwe when planted by itself.

c)

Wheat grows better when planted together clover.

d)

Clover grows better when planted together with wheat

10.

Natural experiments lack

a)

any basis for comparison.

b)

an exact replication of the experiment.

c)

similar constats.

d)

a dependent variable.

e)

All of these answers are correct

11.

When mosquitoes are very abundant in an area, purple martins flock to that area and specialize on them. When mosquito populations are not large, purple martins go elsewhere. The movement of the birds is related to

a)

a density-independent factor

b)

a density-dependent factor

c)

ecosystem carrying capacity

d)

community carrying capacity

e)

both ecosystem carrying capacity and community carrying capacity

12.

A population of river otters has a population growth rate of 0.2 per year. If the population starts out with 50 individuals and there is no death and no migration, how many individuals would you expect after one year and after two years?

a)

10; 2

b)

52; 54

c)

60; 70

d)

60; 72

e)

70; 90

13.

Which of the following is not a K-selected species?

a)

Elephant

b)

Human

c)

Mouse

d)

Panda

e)

Zebra

14.

Which is NOT an example of two organisms in a mutualistic relationship?

a)

Humans and the protozoa that cause malaria

b)

Flowering plants and their pollinators

c)

Cows and the bacteria in their guts

d)

Fungi and algae within a lichen

e)

Nitrogen-fixing bacteria and legume plants

15.

Use Figure 6-1 to select the option that correctly labels point A and point B

a)

A = point where overshoot begins; B = growth rate

b)

A = point where growth begins to slow; B = carrying capacity

c)

A = point of slowest growth; B = carrying capacity

d)

A = point where growth begins to slow; B = growth rate

e)

A = point where die-off begins; B = highest growth rate

16.

The cost of a good or service that is not included in the economic price is

a)

a supply anomaly

b)

an externality

c)

a demand equilibrium

d)

price gouging

e)

a transaction

17.

A farmer overgrazes his sleep in a common pasture. This is an example of

a)

urban blight

b)

the tragedy of the commons

c)

the invisible land

d)

a positive externality

e)

free market enterprise

18.

The most common use of land in the United States is

a)

forest

b)

plant agriculture for human consumption

c)

plant agriculture for animal consumption

d)

rangelands

e)

urban landscape

19.

Use Figure 10-1. The United States has a total land area of about 980,000,000 hectares. Approximately how many hectares are used for cropland

a)

9,800,000 hectares

b)

19,600,000 hectares

c)

98,000,000 hectares

d)

196,000,000 hectares

e)

245,000,000 hectares

20.

Use Figure 10-1. The United States has a total land area of about 980,000,000 hectares. Approximately how many hectares are used for recreational and wildlife lands?

a)

9,800,000 hectares

b)

19,600,000 hectares

c)

107,500,000 hectares

d)

196,000,000 hectares

e)

245,000,000 hectares

21.

The concentration level of which greenhouse gas is least affected by human activity?

a)

Water Vapor

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Chloroflurocarbons

d)

Methane

e)

Carbon Monoxide

22.

What is not considered a greenhouse gas?

a)

Carbon Dioxide

b)

Ozone

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Methane

e)

Chlorofluorocarbon

23.

Which greenhouse gas is not found in nature?

a)

Carbon Dioxide

b)

Nitrous Oxide

c)

Chlorofluorocarbon

d)

Methane

e)

Ozone

24.

Which fuel releases the most carbon dioxide in producing a given amount of energy?

a)

Natural Gas

b)

Nuclear power

c)

Hydro power

d)

Oil

e)

Coal

25.

What is the only developed country that has not ratified the Kyoto Protocol?

a)

Russia

b)

France

c)

United states

d)

France

e)

Japan

26.

Which explains the rise of MSW generated by individuals in developing countries?

a)

growing populations and the increase in disposable income of individuals

b)

growing populations of young people and urbanization

c)

growing populations and increased numbers of individuals in the work force

d)

growing populations and the mass production of consumer goods for developed countries

e)

stable populations and their increase in disposable income of individuals

27.

Which is the largest component of MSW in the United States?

a)

paper

b)

yard trimmings

c)

metal

d)

wood

e)

plastic

28.

once a landfill is capped and sealed____ decomposition begins. One result is the production of _____.

a)

aerobic, methane

b)

aerobic, nitrogen oxides

c)

aerobic, greenhouse gases

d)

anaerobic, methane

e)

anaerobic, sulfur oxides

29.

Which U.S. legislation is designed go track hazardous waste from cradle to grave?

a)

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

b)

Clean Water Act

c)

Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act

d)

Nation Priorities Act

e)

National Environmental Policies Act

30.

All of the following should not be placed in a landfill, except

a)

food

b)

paper

c)

garden waste

d)

aluminum cans

e)

batteries

31.

The goal of using resources to meet the needs of both current and future generations is referred to as

a)

NAFTA

b)

Sustainability

c)

Preservation

d)

Remediation

e)

Environmental Science

32.

Which is NOT considered an example of natural capital?

a)

Copper Ore

b)

Potable Water

c)

Wind

d)

Plastic Bottles

e)

Soil

33.

Which best explains the decline in sulfur emissions between 1970 and 1990

a)

Rachel Carson wrote about pesticide problems in Silent Spring, published in the 1960's

b)

The Clean Water Act was enacted in 1972

c)

The Clean Air Act was enacted in 1970

d)

The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act went into effect in 1976

e)

Earth Day was established in 1970

34.

Which is an example of environmental injustice?

a)

U.S. auto makers are mandated to increase emission standards

b)

Public schools are required to maintain indoor air quality standards

c)

The EPA requires localities to meet certain water quality standards

d)

Exotic species are targeted for elimination in affected areas

e)

Landfills tend to be located near minority communities

35.

Which piece of legislation is concerned with preventing injury from physical and chemical dangers in the workplace

a)

Clean Water Act

b)

Occupational Safety and Health Act

c)

Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act

d)

National Environmental Policy Act

e)

Clean Air Act

36.

Wordwide, Which is the largest component of the human diet?

a)

Grain products

b)

Meat products

c)

Dairy products

d)

Raw and processed sugars

e)

Fruits and vegetables

37.

Which is NOT an advantage of synthetic fertilizers

a)

Ease of application

b)

Highly adjustable nutrient content

c)

Bioavailbility of nutrients

d)

Fewer nutrient runoff problems

e)

Highly concentrated when produced

38.

Atrazine is chemical sprayed onto a golf course in order to prevent the spread of broadleaf weeds from emerging in the grass. Atrazine is

a)

Synthetic fertilizer

b)

an herbicide

c)

an insecticide

d)

an organic fertilizer

e)

a genetically modified crop

39.

Sulfur dioxide is emitted into the atmosphere through

I. volcanic eruptions

II. transpiration

III. the combustion of coal

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and III

e)

I, II, and III

40.

The pesticide treadmill is

I. a negative feedback loop

II. a cycle of pesticide development following pesticide resistance

III. An improvement in pesticide efficiently

a)

I Only

b)

II Only

c)

III Only

d)

I and II

e)

I, II, and III

41.

Which pollutant bonds with hemoglobin and interferes with O2 transport in the blood stream?

a)

CO2

b)

CO

c)

O3

d)

NO

e)

PM

42.

In the figure, the global fish production line includes both wild-caught fish and aquaculture-raised fish. About how many metric tons of fish were wild-caught in 1990?

a)

105 Million metric tons

b)

80 Million metric tons

c)

65 Million metric tons

d)

15 Million metric tons

e)

5 Million metric tons

43.

Which best describes the pH of acid deposition?

a)

pH < 5.6

b)

7 > pH > 5.6

c)

7 < pH < 5.6

d)

pH < 8.6

e)

7 < pH < 8.6

44.

The breakdown of stratospheric ozone

I. can originate from the emission of chlorofluorocarbons (CFC's)

II. is catalyzed through a free chlorine (Cl) atom

III. prevents UV rays from reaching the Earth's surface

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II

d)

I and III only

e)

I, II, and III

45.

Which agreement allowed for a reduction, and eventual elimination of CFC production and use?

a)

The Montreal Protocol

b)

The Quebec Protocol

c)

The Kyoto Protocol

d)

The Clean Skies Initiative

e)

The Clean Air Act

46.

A country has a total fertility rate equal to replacement level fertility, and emigration equal to immigration. Which of the following must be true?

a)

The population is shrinking

b)

The population is stable

c)

The population is rising

d)

The country has population momentum

e)

The country has low GPP

47.

Population A is most lilkely

a)

Growing rapidly

b)

Growing slowly

c)

Stable

d)

Going to decline in the next 20 years

e)

Going to remain stable for the next 20 years and then increase rapidly

48.

Population B would be most likely in which phase of demographic transition?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

Between 3 and 4

49.

Population A would most likely be in which phase of demographic transition?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

50.

Sustainable development refers to

a)

the improvement in the standard of living for individuals with a sustainable lifestyle

b)

an improvement in living conditions through use of resources without causing environmental harm or depletion of resources

c)

the improvement of living conditions in nations such as Denmark and Sweden, which have sustainable energy programs

d)

the development of urban slums into more affluent communities within a city

e)

the increase in green energy use within a nation

51.

Choose the correct sequence for energy flow within an ecosystem

a)

Herbivores - producers - carnivores - scavengers

b)

Producers - herbivores - carnivores - scavengers

c)

Producers - carnivores - herbivores - carnivores

d)

Scavengers - producers - herbivores - carnivores

e)

Carnivores - scavengers - producers - herbivores

52.

Use Figure 3-1. Which organism is a secondary consumer?

a)

Zebra

b)

Beetle

c)

Lion

d)

Earthworm

e)

Giraffe

53.

Use figure 3-1. Which organism occupies a lower trophic level than the others?

a)

Hyena

b)

Cheetah

c)

Vulture

d)

Giraffe

e)

Lion

54.

At which stage of the hydrologic cycle are conditions most likely to contribute to the development of an algal bloom?

a)

Evaporation

b)

Precipitation

c)

Transpiration

d)

Infiltration

e)

Runoff

55.

After a forest fire, a badly damaged ecosystem recovered rapidly. This ecosystem has

a)

high resistance.

b)

low resistance.

c)

high resilience.

d)

low resilience.

e)

equal amounts of resilience and resistance.

56.

A substance with a pH of 4 has __ times the hydrogen ion concentration of a substance with a pH of 6

a)

2

b)

5

c)

10

d)

100

e)

1,000

57.

According to the law of conservation of matter,

1: Matter can be created

2: Matter cannot be destroyed

3: Matter can change form

a)

1 only

b)

2 only

c)

3 only

d)

1 and 2

e)

1,2, and 3

58.

Scientists can use carbon-14 to determine when an ancient organism died because....

a)

over time carbon-14 decays to carbon-13

b)

the proportion of carbon-14 is stable

c)

the proportion of carbon-14 rises predictably after the death of the organism

d)

the proportion of carbon-14 decreases predictably after the death of the organism

e)

over time carbon-14 decays to carbon-12

59.

The sun emits electromagnetic radiation, which is a form of energy that includes

1: Visible light rays

2: Ultraviolet rays

3: Infrared rays

a)

1 only

b)

2 only

c)

3 only

d)

1 and 3

e)

1,2, and 3

60.

According to the first law of thermodynamics

1: energy can never leave or enter the system

2: energy can never change form

3: energy is not created or destroyed

a)

1 only

b)

2 only

c)

3 only

d)

1 and 3

e)

1,2, and 3

61.

Which is an example of a non point source of water pollution?

a)

Waste overflow from a water treatment plant due to excessive rains

b)

Mercury emissions from coal burning power plants

c)

Runoff from sprayed agricultural fields

d)

Garbage dumped at an abandoned landfill

e)

Acid drainage from an abandoned mine

62.

Which is NOT a characteristic of a dead zone?

a)

A reduced number of shellfish

b)

Fish die-off events

c)

Low oxygen concentrations in the water

d)

Low nitrogen concentrations

e)

A reduced number of marine plant species

63.

Which is a phenomenon in which a body of water becomes rich in nutrients?

a)

Fishery collapse

b)

Nutrient runoff

c)

Wastewater

d)

Dead zones

e)

Eutrophication

64.

Which is a class of carcinogens formerly used in the production of plastics?

a)

Reproductive hormones

b)

DDT

c)

PCBs

d)

PBDEs

e)

Perchlorates

65.

Methods used to remove spilled oil from the surface of the ocean include

I. containment boom and oil vacuums

II. chemical dispersants

III. large screens

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II

d)

I and III

e)

I, II, and III

66.

Use Table 5-1. Which community has the highest species evenness?

a)

Community 1

b)

Community 2

c)

Community 3

d)

Community 4

e)

All have equal species evenness

67.

Use Table 5-1. Which community clearly has low species evenness?

a)

Community 1

b)

Community 2

c)

Community 3

d)

Community 4

e)

All communities show relatively equal evenness.

68.

According to Figure 5-3, Species A has a _______ range of tolerance in terms of pH because ______.

a)

larger; Species A has a higher level of species performace

b)

larger; Species B is more competitive

c)

larger; Species B can only survive with a low variability of pH

d)

smaller; Species A can only survive with a neutral pH

e)

smaller; Species A can only survive in a narrower pH band

69.

Climate changes poses a threat to niches of living organisms and to their survival. Niche ________ are more likely to survive changing climate conditions because ______.

a)

specialists; they have a variety of food sources and acceptable temperature range

b)

specialists; they are more populous on Earth

c)

generalist; they have a variety of food sources and acceptable habitats

d)

specialists; they have a larger quantity of available food sources

e)

generalists; they have less competition

70.

A koala's diet is mainly composed of eucalyptus leaves. Although eucalyptus leaves are low in nutritional value and poisonous to many animals, koalas inhabit eucalyptus woodlands and generally sleep on the trees themselves. In this example the koala is most likely

a)

a niche generalist

b)

a community specialist

c)

a habitat specialist

d)

a niche specialist

e)

a habitat generalist

71.

Select the correct rock type connected with its mode of origin.

a)

Igneous: liquid magma

b)

Sedimentary: exposure to high temperatures and pressures

c)

Metamorphic: compression of mud by overlying sediments

d)

Sedimentary: compression of magma

e)

Igneous: exposure to high temperatures and pressures.

72.

Within the rock cycle, the three distinct categories of rocks are igneous which is derived from____; metamorphic which is derived from_____: and sedimentary which is derived from___.

a)

Pressure; heat; the layering of sediments

b)

Volcanoes; oceans; mountain ranges

c)

Magma and lava; heat and pressure; the layering of sediments

d)

Heat and pressure; magma; the formation of lake beds

e)

intrusion; faulting; folding

73.

The freeze- thaw cycle is an example of

a)

Chemical weathering

b)

Physical erosion

c)

Physical weathering

d)

Chemical erosion

e)

Both physical and chemical weathering

74.

What role do lichens play in weathering?

a)

Lichens play a role in chemical weathering because they produce weak acids.

b)

Lichens play a role in chemical weathering only when they are in contact with limestone.

c)

Lichens play a role in chemical weathering because they create carbon dioxide.

d)

Lichens play a role in physical weathering because their roots contribute to erosion.

e)

Lichens play a role in preventing physical weathering by clinging to plant roots.

75.

Which material is best as a liner for a landfill?

a)

Clay

b)

Sand

c)

Silt

d)

Basalt

e)

Loam

76.

89. The Dust Bowl that occurred on the Great Plains in the 1930s was caused by

a)

a. sand deposition.

b)

b. a severe drought.

c)

c. salt water intrusion.

d)

d. a loss of floodplains.

e)

e. flooding.

77.

90. What is the purpose of an aqueduct?

a)

a. To protect river channels

b)

b. To store water

c)

c. To move water from one place to another

d)

d. To create wells

e)

e. To help fish migrate

78.

91. Of the world's freshwater, roughly ___ percent is used for agriculture, ___ percent is used for industry, and ___ percent is for household use.

a)

a. 10; 20; 70

b)

b. 70; 20; 10

c)

c. 70; 10; 20

d)

d. 40; 20; 40

e)

e. 33; 33; 33

79.

92. Over the last 50 years, the amount of water used for irrigation throughout the world has

a)

a. tripled because of the increase in food needed to feed the growing human population.

b)

b. doubled because of the increase in food needed to feed the growing human population.

c)

c. been cut in half as a result of water conservation technologies.

d)

d. been decreased slightly as a result of water conservation technologies.

e)

e. decreased about 1 percent as a result of water conservation technologies.

80.

94. Hydroponic agriculture

I. uses soil.

II. uses a nutrient rich solution.

III. uses little or no pesticides.

a)

a. I only

b)

b. II only

c)

c. I and II

d)

d. II and III

e)

e. I, II, and III

81.

Which represents the correct sequence of increasing energy resource use in the United States from late 1800s to the 1950s?

a)

Wood, coal, oil, natural gas, hydroelectric

b)

Coal, hydroelectric, natural gas, oil, wood

c)

Wood, oil, natural gas, hydroelectric, coal

d)

Coal, wood, hydroelectric, natural gas, oil

82.

What form of nonrenewable energy is currently the least expensive to use for electricity production in terms of cost per kWh?

a)

Oil

b)

Coal

c)

Natural gas

d)

Nuclear

e)

Oil sands

83.

What is a benefit of natural gas?

I.There is almost no trace metals or sulfur dioxide.

II.Methane is released in smaller proportions.

III.Groundwater contamination is prevented through hydraulic fracturing.

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and II

e)

I, II and III

84.

A sample of U-235 has a half-life of 700 million years. What fraction of the parent material will remain after 2800 million years?

a)

1/2

b)

1/4

c)

1/8

d)

1/16

e)

1/32

85.

Which is NOT a disadvantage of nuclear energy?

a)

Nuclear power plants are very difficult to build.

b)

Acquiring nuclear fuel requires mining

c)

Radioactive waste can be dangerous for thousands for thousands of years

d)

Air pollution occurs while the nuclear is active

e)

Nuclear meltdowns can lead to catastrophic consequences

86.

What best describes the temperature of the Atmosphere?

a)

It decreases with an increase in altitude in the troposphere.

b)

It increases with an increase in altitude.

c)

It maintains a constant level throughout the atmosphere.

d)

It fluctuates up and down randomly throughout the layers of the atmosphere.

e)

It falls in the stratosphere.

87.

Use Figure 4-1. Which position would correspond with spring in the Northern Hemisphere.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

88.

Use figure 4-1. Which position would correspond with summer in the Southern Hemisphere?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

89.

Oligotrophic lakes

a)

are synonymous with eutrophic lakes

b)

contain many fish because they are free of pollutants

c)

are polluted by nitrogen and phosphorus

d)

have low productivity due to low amounts of nutrients

e)

are the result of flooding

90.

Eutrophic lakes

a)

have very low productivity as a result of acid rain

b)

have very high productivity as a result of high levels of nutrients

c)

have low nutrient levels

d)

are formed by glaciers

e)

usually have no fish

91.

To construct a house using sustainable design, the building materials should

a)

hive a high thermal mass to reduce the need for heating

b)

have a low thermal mass to reduce the need for heating

c)

have a low thermal mass to retain heat

d)

be a light color to increase heat retention

e)

be a dark color to increase shade

92.

Hydroelectric dams generate electricity by

a)

using run-of-the-river systems, in which turbines are placed into the natural water flow

b)

using generators that are placed on the bottom of a river

c)

water impoundment, in which dams operators control the rate of water flow to turbines.

d)

using the energy of the river to produce steam

e)

converting kinetic energy of the water impounded behind a dam into potential energy

93.

Which type of energy is utilized to produce tidal power?

a)

Radiation

b)

Kinetic energy

c)

Solar energy

d)

Potential energy

e)

Heat energy

94.

Potential drawbacks to the use of solar energy systems include the need for

1) a large power grid

2) a large amount of water

3) toxic metals for production of components

a)

1 only

b)

2 only

c)

3 only

d)

1 and 3 only

e)

1,2, and 3

95.

Which is an aspect of geothermal energy?

1) Geothermal energy emits almost no carbon dioxide

2) Geothermal energy is a renewable source of energy

3) Geothermal energy can be used to produce heat and electricity

a)

1 only

b)

2 only

c)

3 only

d)

1 and 2

e)

1,2, and 3

96.

A growing problem in the healthcare systems of developed nations is an increase in

a)

the plague

b)

multiple drug resistance

c)

acute diseases

d)

mad cow disease

e)

AIDS/HIV

97.

You have a friend who has breathing difficulties and hives when consuming peanuts. In this example, peanuts would be considered a(n)

a)

allergen

b)

antihistamine

c)

pathogen

d)

mutagen

e)

disruptor

98.

An ED50

a)

effective dose that causes 100% of individuals to display deadly effects

b)

effective dose that causes 100% of individuals to display harmful effects

c)

effective dose that causes 50% of individuals to display lethal effects

d)

effective dose that causes 50% of individuals to display harmful effects

e)

effective dose that causes 50% of individuals to display beneficial effects

99.

The way in which an organism might come into contact with an environmental hazard is called

a)

bioaccumulation

b)

route of exposure

c)

persistence

d)

synergistic interaction

e)

environmental interaction

100.

The persistence of a chemical refers to

a)

the amount of time the chemical remains in the environment

b)

the amount of harm the chemical does to the environment

c)

the increase in chemical concentrations in animal tissue in the food chain

d)

the dose of a chemical concentrations in animal tissue in the food chain

e)

a nonlethal, but harmful effect of a chemical

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