wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

SM II - Final Exam Review Part II

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which artery is along the front margin of the sternocleidomastoid muscle

a)

Brachial

b)

Radial

c)

Popliteal

d)

Carotid

2.

What does OSHA stand for?

a)

Occupational Heath and Safety Administration

b)

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

c)

Occlusive Help and Safety Administration

d)

Occasional Help and Safety Administration

3.

Which type of bleeding involves large spurts of blood of a bright red color?

a)

Capillary

b)

Venous

c)

Arterial

d)

Puncture

4.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of shock?

a)

High blood pressure

b)

Cold clammy skin

c)

Raid/weak pulse

d)

Rapid/shallow breathing

5.

Which type of shock is caused by bacteria?

a)

Cardiogenic

b)

Neurogenic

c)

Septic

d)

Anaphylactic

6.

Which type of shock is treated with Benadryl and/or an Epipen?

a)

Hypovolemic

b)

Anaphylactic

c)

Septic

d)

Cardiogenic

7.

What is PPE? (Referring to the Bleeding and Shock Unit)

a)

Personal Positive Emotion

b)

Pre-Participation Examination

c)

Personal Protective Equipment

d)

Protective Personal Equipment

8.

The epiphysis contains spongy bone that is filled with ____________

a)

Red Bone Marrow

b)

Yellow Bone Marrow

c)

White Bone Marrow

d)

Periosteum

9.

The ends of long bones are called __________?

a)

Diaphysis

b)

Spongy bone

c)

Periosteum

d)

Epiphyses

10.

What type of bone surrounds the marrow cavity?

a)

Yellow Bone Marrow

b)

Red Bone Marrow

c)

Osteocyte

d)

Osteoblast

11.

Which type of fracture is commonly refereed to has a "hairline" fracture?

a)

Compound

b)

Comminuted

c)

Greenstick

d)

Simple

12.

A fracture resulting in 3 or more broken pieces is referred to as:

a)

Simple

b)

Comminuted

c)

Impacted

d)

Greenstick

13.

Which fracture is common with children that have flexible bones?

a)

Comminuted

b)

Compound

c)

Impacted

d)

Greenstick

14.

A muscle that is a major contributor to a particular movement, such as the biceps brachii for arm flexion is known as a __________

a)

Synergist

b)

Prime Mover

c)

Antagonist

d)

Fixator

15.

A muscle that is a major contributor to the opposite movement of a prime mover, such as the triceps brachii (which causes arm extension) is known as a ____________.

a)

Prime Mover

b)

Fixator

c)

Antagonist

d)

Synergist

16.

Muscles that work together with a prime mover to help it produce a smooth, steady movement, such as the brachioradialis helping the biceps brachii during arm flexion are known as ___________.

a)

Synergists

b)

Fixators

c)

Prime Movers

d)

Anatgonists

17.

An isometric contraction refers to any contraction of muscles where little or no movement occurs

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Any contraction where the muscle shortens under load or tension is known as a

a)

Eccentric Contraction

b)

Concentric Contraction

c)

Isometric Contraction

d)

Isokinetic Contraction

19.

The socket of the hip bone is also known as the

a)

Femur

b)

Ilium

c)

Acetabulum

d)

Pubis

20.

The coccyx is inferior to the sacrum

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Name the part of the pelvis:


Broad, flared portion that constitutes the upper and lateral sections of the pelvis

a)

Ischium

b)

Acetabulum

c)

Ilium

d)

Pubis

22.

Which muscle is primarily responsible for performing HIP EXTENSION

a)

Gluteus Maximus

b)

Gluteus Minimus

c)

Gluteus Medius

d)

Sartorius

23.

Which of the following is NOT a part of the QUADRICEPS muscle group?

a)

Vastus Medialis

b)

Biceps Femoris

c)

Rectus Femoris

d)

Vastus Lateralis

24.

The HAMSTRINGS are primarily responsible for which type of movement?

a)

Hip Extension

b)

Hip Flexion

c)

Hip Abduction

d)

Hip Adduction

25.

Which type of hip injury is most commonly located over the outside of the hip at the trochanteric bursa

a)

Hip Fracture

b)

Hamstring Strain

c)

Hip Flexor Strain

d)

Bursitis

26.

Which of the following injuries is characterized by groin pain when running or kicking?

a)

Adductor Strains

b)

Bursitis

c)

Iliotibial Band Syndrome

d)

Quadriceps Contusion

27.

Which of the following injuries occurs by a direct blow to the thigh from a helmet or knee,


Common in football, rugby, soccer and basketball

a)

IT Band Syndrome

b)

Bursitis

c)

Myositis Ossificans

d)

Quadriceps Contusions

28.

Which of the following is NOT an example of an overuse injury?

a)

Chronic muscles strains

b)

Quadriceps Contusion

c)

Tendinitis

d)

Bursitis

29.

Which of the following is NOT considered a major bone of the lower leg?

a)

Patella

b)

Radius

c)

Tibia

d)

Fibula

30.

The difference between the tibiofemoral joint and the patellofemoral joint is that the tibiofemoral joint is weight bearing hinge joint and the patellofemoral joint help extends the knee.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Which is the only palpable ligament in the knee? (You have the ability to physically touch this ligament, especially when conducting a test)

a)

ACL

b)

MCL

c)

LCL

d)

PCL

32.

The role of the quadriceps muscles are to provide which of the following movements?

a)

Flex the knee joint

b)

Extend the knee

c)

Only assist in knee flexion

d)

Rotation of the knee

33.

Which of the following is not a member of the quadriceps group

a)

Vastus Lateralis

b)

Vastus Medius

c)

Rectus Femoris

d)

Semitendinosus

34.

he primary responsibility of the hip flexors muscles are to assist in knee extension.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

The term patella tendinitis usually means what?

a)

Lack of blood to the patella

b)

Inflammation of the patella

c)

Normal functioning patella

d)

Bruising of the patella

36.

ACL tears are more common among female athletes than male athletes; Usually due to women using the quads more than men

a)

True

b)

False

37.

________________ involves inflammation of the thick band of fibrous tissue that runs down the side of the tibia, just below the knee

a)

IT Band Syndrome

b)

Osgood-Schlatter

c)

Fracture

d)

Meniscal Tears

38.

If an injury caused the tibia to move forward on the femur, which ligament would most likely become overstretched or torn?

a)

MCL

b)

ACL

c)

PCL

d)

LCL

39.

Which of the following is NOT a type of ankle motion

a)

Dorsiflexion

b)

Inversion

c)

Plantar flexion

d)

Abduction

40.

Which ankle joint is responsible for dorsiflexion and plantar flexion?

a)

Talor Joint

b)

Subtalor Joint

c)

Knee Joint

d)

Ulnar Joint

41.

Which muscle is the largest of the calf?

a)

Soleus

b)

Peroneus Longus

c)

Gastrocnemius

d)

Achilles Tendon

42.

Which of the following is NOT a ligament of the ankle

a)

Anterior Talofibular Ligament

b)

Deltoid Ligament

c)

Calcaneofibular Ligament

d)

Posterior Cruciate Ligament

43.

Lower leg contusions most often happen to which bone?

a)

Tibia

b)

Fibula

c)

Talus

d)

Metatarsals

44.

Medial Tibial Stress Syndrome is also known as:

a)

Shin Contusion

b)

Shin Abrasion

c)

Shin Splints

d)

Achilles Tendon Strain

45.

Which of the following is a bony projection with a shape likened to a hammer head, especially each of those on either side of the ankle.

a)

Malleolus

b)

Tuberosity

c)

Condyle

d)

Mortise

46.

The ankle is which type of joint?

a)

Ball and Socket

b)

Pivot

c)

Fixed

d)

Hinge

47.

Name the only ligament of the foot that is located on the medial side?

a)

Deltoid Ligament

b)

Anterior Tibiofibular Ligament

c)

Calcaneofibular Ligament

d)

Posterior Talofibular Ligament

48.

Which of the following is NOT a bone of the elbow joint?

a)

Fibula

b)

Radius

c)

Ulna

d)

Humerus

49.

Which of the following muscles is located within the forearm?

a)

Biceps Brachii

b)

Brachialis

c)

Brachioradialis

d)

Anconeus

50.

This happens when your elbow joint is bent beyond its normal range of motion. This type of injury can damage the ligaments and bones of your elbow. It can also cause your elbow to dislocate

a)

Hypoextension

b)

Hydroextension

c)

Extension

d)

Hyperextension

51.

Tommy John Surgery is a procedure that aims to fix which ligament? (Three letter abbreviation)

a)

MCL

b)

UAL

c)

TCL

d)

UCL

52.

What is the order of the wrist bones (From top of the wrist to bottom)

a)

Metacarpals, Carpals, Phalanges

b)

Carpals, Metacarpals, Phalanges

c)

Phalanges, Carpals, Metacarpals

d)

Carpals, Phalanges, Metacarpals

53.

A basketball player was attempting to take a “charge” by standing under the goal while an opponent made a shot. He fell back because of the contact and landed on his arm. After a few minutes he came to the sideline and said that his right elbow was hurting. His ring and little finger was a little numb, but returned to normal shortly. The next day he was unable to bend or straighten his elbow fully. After another evaluation, the trainer noticed some ecchymosis and swelling around the olecranon process.


What type of injury is this?

a)

Ganglion Cyst

b)

Boutonniere Deformity

c)

Dislocation of the elbow

d)

Olecranon Bursitis / Contusion

54.

A tennis player comes to you and complains of a bump that has formed over her wrist. She does not complain of any pain or any other signs or symptoms other than the small bump. When asked how long the bump was present, she said for 2 weeks. What condition/injury is this?

a)

Ganglion Cyst

b)

Boutonniere Deformity

c)

Scaphoid Fracture

d)

Ulnar Nerve Contusion

55.

For the injury listed please write whether the injury is caused by direct trauma, indirect trauma, both, neither


Dislocated Elbow

a)

Both - Direct and Indirect

b)

Direct

c)

Indirect

d)

Neither - Direct or Indirect

56.

A running back, while running the ball is tackled and on his way to the ground attempts to stop himself from falling. You notice his arm “gives” under the pressure. He is on the ground screaming and holding his arm. He explains his pain as an extreme amount of pressure. You notice that his elbow is deformed and he has lost his ROM.


What is the injury?

a)

Ganglion Cyst

b)

Colles Fracture

c)

Tendonitis

d)

Elbow Dislocation

57.

What is one of the first things a ATC can check during an evaluation of a dislocated elbow

a)

Aspiration of the bursa (draining the bursa) by a physician

b)

Prescribe anti-inflammatory medication

c)

Check nerve function of the hand and fingers

d)

Prescribe pain medication

58.

Which of the following is NOT a joint located in the shoulder?

a)

Glenohumeral Joint

b)

Sacroiliac Joint

c)

Acromioclavicular Joint

d)

Sternoclavicular Joint

59.

Which of the following is NOT a muscle that makes up the Rotator Cuff (SITS Muscles)?

a)

Supraspinatus

b)

Teres Minor

c)

Infraspinatus

d)

Sternoclediomastoid

60.

The muscle force couple are formed by which two muscles?

a)

Deltoid and Rotator cuff

b)

Biceps and Pectoralis Major

c)

Teres Major and Pectoralis Minor

d)

Leveator Scapulae and Deltoid

61.

Shoulder Overuse injuries are common among athletes that participate in _____________ movements

a)

Overhead

b)

Internal Rotation

c)

Pronation

d)

Flexion

62.

Name the shoulder injury:


Develops from repetitive overhead movements. Examples: Freestyle swimmer, throwers, and tennis players.


The bones “impinge” or squeeze structures within the space

a)

Impingement Syndrome

b)

Rotator Cuff Tear

c)

Biceps Tendon Rupture

d)

Anterior Shoulder Dislocation

63.

True or False:


Rotator cuff injuries in younger people often caused by degeneration of the muscle and tendon tissues

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Which shoulder injury is more commonly known as a "shoulder stinger or burner"?

a)

Fracture

b)

Brachial Plexus Injury

c)

AC Joint Seperation

d)

Multidirectional Instability Injury

65.

Which injury is usually caused by a blow to the tip of the shoulder?

a)

Acromioclavicular Separation

b)

Anterior Shoulder Dislocation

c)

Biceps Tendon Rupture

d)

Biceps (long head) Tendonitis

66.

This injury can be described as: a sudden onset of pain in the front of the shoulder and an associated “pop”


Symptoms


Drooping of the biceps muscle near the distal upper arm

a)

Biceps Tendonitis

b)

Biceps Tendon Rupture

c)

Anterior Shoulder Dislocation

d)

Glenoid Labrum Injury

67.

The Glenohumeral Joint is which classification of synovial joints

a)

Hinge

b)

Gliding

c)

Ball and Socket

d)

Pivot

68.

Dynamic Stability refers to mobility with instability

a)

True

b)

False

69.

What does the first "R" stand for in RROM?

a)

Rest

b)

Resorb

c)

Resistive

d)

Relax

70.

Fractures of the shoulder girdle most commonly involve which two bones?

a)

Clavicle and Humerus

b)

Radius and Ulna

c)

Scapula and Metacarpals

d)

Sternum and Vertebrae