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WorksheetsSM II - Final Exam Review Part II
Total questions: 70
Worksheet time: 42mins
Which artery is along the front margin of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
Brachial
Radial
Popliteal
Carotid
What does OSHA stand for?
Occupational Heath and Safety Administration
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
Occlusive Help and Safety Administration
Occasional Help and Safety Administration
Which type of bleeding involves large spurts of blood of a bright red color?
Capillary
Venous
Arterial
Puncture
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of shock?
High blood pressure
Cold clammy skin
Raid/weak pulse
Rapid/shallow breathing
Which type of shock is caused by bacteria?
Cardiogenic
Neurogenic
Septic
Anaphylactic
Which type of shock is treated with Benadryl and/or an Epipen?
Hypovolemic
Anaphylactic
Septic
Cardiogenic
What is PPE? (Referring to the Bleeding and Shock Unit)
Personal Positive Emotion
Pre-Participation Examination
Personal Protective Equipment
Protective Personal Equipment
The epiphysis contains spongy bone that is filled with ____________
Red Bone Marrow
Yellow Bone Marrow
White Bone Marrow
Periosteum
The ends of long bones are called __________?
Diaphysis
Spongy bone
Periosteum
Epiphyses
What type of bone surrounds the marrow cavity?
Yellow Bone Marrow
Red Bone Marrow
Osteocyte
Osteoblast
Which type of fracture is commonly refereed to has a "hairline" fracture?
Compound
Comminuted
Greenstick
Simple
A fracture resulting in 3 or more broken pieces is referred to as:
Simple
Comminuted
Impacted
Greenstick
Which fracture is common with children that have flexible bones?
Comminuted
Compound
Impacted
Greenstick
A muscle that is a major contributor to a particular movement, such as the biceps brachii for arm flexion is known as a __________
Synergist
Prime Mover
Antagonist
Fixator
A muscle that is a major contributor to the opposite movement of a prime mover, such as the triceps brachii (which causes arm extension) is known as a ____________.
Prime Mover
Fixator
Antagonist
Synergist
Muscles that work together with a prime mover to help it produce a smooth, steady movement, such as the brachioradialis helping the biceps brachii during arm flexion are known as ___________.
Synergists
Fixators
Prime Movers
Anatgonists
An isometric contraction refers to any contraction of muscles where little or no movement occurs
True
False
Any contraction where the muscle shortens under load or tension is known as a
Eccentric Contraction
Concentric Contraction
Isometric Contraction
Isokinetic Contraction
The socket of the hip bone is also known as the
Femur
Ilium
Acetabulum
Pubis
The coccyx is inferior to the sacrum
True
False
Name the part of the pelvis:
Broad, flared portion that constitutes the upper and lateral sections of the pelvis
Ischium
Acetabulum
Ilium
Pubis
Which muscle is primarily responsible for performing HIP EXTENSION
Gluteus Maximus
Gluteus Minimus
Gluteus Medius
Sartorius
Which of the following is NOT a part of the QUADRICEPS muscle group?
Vastus Medialis
Biceps Femoris
Rectus Femoris
Vastus Lateralis
The HAMSTRINGS are primarily responsible for which type of movement?
Hip Extension
Hip Flexion
Hip Abduction
Hip Adduction
Which type of hip injury is most commonly located over the outside of the hip at the trochanteric bursa
Hip Fracture
Hamstring Strain
Hip Flexor Strain
Bursitis
Which of the following injuries is characterized by groin pain when running or kicking?
Adductor Strains
Bursitis
Iliotibial Band Syndrome
Quadriceps Contusion
Which of the following injuries occurs by a direct blow to the thigh from a helmet or knee,
Common in football, rugby, soccer and basketball
IT Band Syndrome
Bursitis
Myositis Ossificans
Quadriceps Contusions
Which of the following is NOT an example of an overuse injury?
Chronic muscles strains
Quadriceps Contusion
Tendinitis
Bursitis
Which of the following is NOT considered a major bone of the lower leg?
Patella
Radius
Tibia
Fibula
The difference between the tibiofemoral joint and the patellofemoral joint is that the tibiofemoral joint is weight bearing hinge joint and the patellofemoral joint help extends the knee.
True
False
Which is the only palpable ligament in the knee? (You have the ability to physically touch this ligament, especially when conducting a test)
ACL
MCL
LCL
PCL
The role of the quadriceps muscles are to provide which of the following movements?
Flex the knee joint
Extend the knee
Only assist in knee flexion
Rotation of the knee
Which of the following is not a member of the quadriceps group
Vastus Lateralis
Vastus Medius
Rectus Femoris
Semitendinosus
he primary responsibility of the hip flexors muscles are to assist in knee extension.
True
False
The term patella tendinitis usually means what?
Lack of blood to the patella
Inflammation of the patella
Normal functioning patella
Bruising of the patella
ACL tears are more common among female athletes than male athletes; Usually due to women using the quads more than men
True
False
________________ involves inflammation of the thick band of fibrous tissue that runs down the side of the tibia, just below the knee
IT Band Syndrome
Osgood-Schlatter
Fracture
Meniscal Tears
If an injury caused the tibia to move forward on the femur, which ligament would most likely become overstretched or torn?
MCL
ACL
PCL
LCL
Which of the following is NOT a type of ankle motion
Dorsiflexion
Inversion
Plantar flexion
Abduction
Which ankle joint is responsible for dorsiflexion and plantar flexion?
Talor Joint
Subtalor Joint
Knee Joint
Ulnar Joint
Which muscle is the largest of the calf?
Soleus
Peroneus Longus
Gastrocnemius
Achilles Tendon
Which of the following is NOT a ligament of the ankle
Anterior Talofibular Ligament
Deltoid Ligament
Calcaneofibular Ligament
Posterior Cruciate Ligament
Lower leg contusions most often happen to which bone?
Tibia
Fibula
Talus
Metatarsals
Medial Tibial Stress Syndrome is also known as:
Shin Contusion
Shin Abrasion
Shin Splints
Achilles Tendon Strain
Which of the following is a bony projection with a shape likened to a hammer head, especially each of those on either side of the ankle.
Malleolus
Tuberosity
Condyle
Mortise
The ankle is which type of joint?
Ball and Socket
Pivot
Fixed
Hinge
Name the only ligament of the foot that is located on the medial side?
Deltoid Ligament
Anterior Tibiofibular Ligament
Calcaneofibular Ligament
Posterior Talofibular Ligament
Which of the following is NOT a bone of the elbow joint?
Fibula
Radius
Ulna
Humerus
Which of the following muscles is located within the forearm?
Biceps Brachii
Brachialis
Brachioradialis
Anconeus
This happens when your elbow joint is bent beyond its normal range of motion. This type of injury can damage the ligaments and bones of your elbow. It can also cause your elbow to dislocate
Hypoextension
Hydroextension
Extension
Hyperextension
Tommy John Surgery is a procedure that aims to fix which ligament? (Three letter abbreviation)
MCL
UAL
TCL
UCL
What is the order of the wrist bones (From top of the wrist to bottom)
Metacarpals, Carpals, Phalanges
Carpals, Metacarpals, Phalanges
Phalanges, Carpals, Metacarpals
Carpals, Phalanges, Metacarpals
A basketball player was attempting to take a “charge” by standing under the goal while an opponent made a shot. He fell back because of the contact and landed on his arm. After a few minutes he came to the sideline and said that his right elbow was hurting. His ring and little finger was a little numb, but returned to normal shortly. The next day he was unable to bend or straighten his elbow fully. After another evaluation, the trainer noticed some ecchymosis and swelling around the olecranon process.
What type of injury is this?
Ganglion Cyst
Boutonniere Deformity
Dislocation of the elbow
Olecranon Bursitis / Contusion
A tennis player comes to you and complains of a bump that has formed over her wrist. She does not complain of any pain or any other signs or symptoms other than the small bump. When asked how long the bump was present, she said for 2 weeks. What condition/injury is this?
Ganglion Cyst
Boutonniere Deformity
Scaphoid Fracture
Ulnar Nerve Contusion
For the injury listed please write whether the injury is caused by direct trauma, indirect trauma, both, neither
Dislocated Elbow
Both - Direct and Indirect
Direct
Indirect
Neither - Direct or Indirect
A running back, while running the ball is tackled and on his way to the ground attempts to stop himself from falling. You notice his arm “gives” under the pressure. He is on the ground screaming and holding his arm. He explains his pain as an extreme amount of pressure. You notice that his elbow is deformed and he has lost his ROM.
What is the injury?
Ganglion Cyst
Colles Fracture
Tendonitis
Elbow Dislocation
What is one of the first things a ATC can check during an evaluation of a dislocated elbow
Aspiration of the bursa (draining the bursa) by a physician
Prescribe anti-inflammatory medication
Check nerve function of the hand and fingers
Prescribe pain medication
Which of the following is NOT a joint located in the shoulder?
Glenohumeral Joint
Sacroiliac Joint
Acromioclavicular Joint
Sternoclavicular Joint
Which of the following is NOT a muscle that makes up the Rotator Cuff (SITS Muscles)?
Supraspinatus
Teres Minor
Infraspinatus
Sternoclediomastoid
The muscle force couple are formed by which two muscles?
Deltoid and Rotator cuff
Biceps and Pectoralis Major
Teres Major and Pectoralis Minor
Leveator Scapulae and Deltoid
Shoulder Overuse injuries are common among athletes that participate in _____________ movements
Overhead
Internal Rotation
Pronation
Flexion
Name the shoulder injury:
Develops from repetitive overhead movements. Examples: Freestyle swimmer, throwers, and tennis players.
The bones “impinge” or squeeze structures within the space
Impingement Syndrome
Rotator Cuff Tear
Biceps Tendon Rupture
Anterior Shoulder Dislocation
True or False:
Rotator cuff injuries in younger people often caused by degeneration of the muscle and tendon tissues
True
False
Which shoulder injury is more commonly known as a "shoulder stinger or burner"?
Fracture
Brachial Plexus Injury
AC Joint Seperation
Multidirectional Instability Injury
Which injury is usually caused by a blow to the tip of the shoulder?
Acromioclavicular Separation
Anterior Shoulder Dislocation
Biceps Tendon Rupture
Biceps (long head) Tendonitis
This injury can be described as: a sudden onset of pain in the front of the shoulder and an associated “pop”
Symptoms
Drooping of the biceps muscle near the distal upper arm
Biceps Tendonitis
Biceps Tendon Rupture
Anterior Shoulder Dislocation
Glenoid Labrum Injury
The Glenohumeral Joint is which classification of synovial joints
Hinge
Gliding
Ball and Socket
Pivot
Dynamic Stability refers to mobility with instability
True
False
What does the first "R" stand for in RROM?
Rest
Resorb
Resistive
Relax
Fractures of the shoulder girdle most commonly involve which two bones?
Clavicle and Humerus
Radius and Ulna
Scapula and Metacarpals
Sternum and Vertebrae
