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Worksheets

Intro Semester 2 Exam 2018

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Useful product disposal guidelines and first aid information can be found on a:

a)

MSDS

b)

OSHA

c)

HCS

d)

EPA

2.

Chemical products that destroy all bacteria, fungi, and viruses (but not spores) on surfaces are:

a)

antiseptics

b)

disinfectants

c)

sterilizers

d)

sanitizers

3.

Invasion of body tissues by disease-causing pathogenic bacteria can result in a(n):

a)

infection

b)

antitoxin

c)

abrasion

d)

inflammation

4.

Which term means to remove all visible dirt and debris from tools, implements, and equipment by washing with soap and water?

a)

sterilize

b)

disinfect

c)

antiseptic

d)

clean

5.

One-celled microorganisms with both plant and animal characteristics are:

a)

diseases

b)

bacteria

c)

cells

d)

minute

6.

The type of bacteria that rarely shows any active motility is:

a)

cocci

b)

pathogenic

c)

spirilla

d)

flagellum

7.

Bacteria generally consist of an outer cell wall containing a liquid called:

a)

spore-forming

b)

cilia

c)

protoplasm

d)

photosynthesis

8.

A sign of a bacteria infection is the presence of:

a)

lesions

b)

tissue

c)

pus

d)

blood

9.

A pimple or an abscess is an example of a:

a)

blood disease

b)

general infection

c)

daughter cell

d)

local infection

10.

A parasitic submicroscopic particle that infects and resides in the cells of a biological organism is a :

a)

bacteria

b)

parasite

c)

virus

d)

contaminant

11.

Disease-causing microorganisms that are carried in the body by blood or body fluids are called:

a)

positive pathogens

b)

acquired pathogens

c)

inoculation pathogens

d)

bloodborne pathogens

12.

A disease caused by a a bloodborne virus that causes liver damage is:

a)

hepatitis

b)

tuberculosis

c)

pneumonia

d)

blood poisoning

13.

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is the virus that causes:

a)

MRSA

b)

AIDS

c)

hepatitis

d)

HPV

14.

Microscopic plant parasites that include molds, mildews, and yeast are:

a)

blood borne pathogens

b)

fungi

c)

parasites

d)

pathogens

15.

The most frequently encountered infection on the foot resulting from nail services is:

a)

tinea pedis

b)

tinea barbae

c)

tinea capitis

d)

barber's itch

16.

Organisms that grow, feed, and find shelter on or in a host organism are called:

a)

fungi

b)

fumigations

c)

parasites

d)

pathogens

17.

A contagious skin disease that is caused by the itch mite is:

a)

scabies

b)

head lice

c)

pediculosis

d)

barber's itch

18.

The type of immunity that the body develops after overcoming a disease or through inoculations is:

a)

natural immunity

b)

natural healing

c)

acquired immunity

d)

acquired resistance

19.

The term describing the effectiveness with which a disinfecting solution kills germs when used according to the label instructions is:

a)

effect

b)

concentration

c)

efficacy

d)

disinfection

20.

A safe and useful type of disinfectant, commonly called quats, is:

a)

quarter antiseptic solution

b)

Quaternary-based compounds

c)

phenolic quaternary agents

d)

quaternary ammonium compounds

21.

Which of the following is a drawback to using phenolic disinfectants?

a)

can cause some metals to rust

b)

can damage plastic and rubber

c)

are known carcinogens

d)

all the answers are correct

22.

Sodium hypochlorite is the chemical name for:

a)

phenols

b)

bleach

c)

baking soda

d)

soap

23.

Universal Precautions for bloodborne pathogens are regulated by:

a)

DOL

b)

DOE

c)

OSHA

d)

FDA

24.

If an exposure incident should occur, discard all disposable contaminated objects in a:

a)

trash bag

b)

contaminated waste container

c)

paper towel

d)

trash can

25.

The hair, skin, nails, and glands are known collectively as the:

a)

epidermis

b)

integument

c)

dermal papula

d)

trichology

26.

The five main structures of the hair root include all of the following except the:

a)

hair folicle

b)

dermal papilla

c)

arrector pili muscle

d)

epidermis

27.

the pocket or tube like depression in the scalp or skin that contains the hair root is the:

a)

bulb

b)

follicle

c)

shaft

d)

dermal

28.

the thickened, club like structure that forms the lower part of the hair root is the:

a)

cuticle layer

b)

hair bulb

c)

dermal papilla

d)

arrector pili

29.

a small, cone-shaped area located at the base of the hair follicle that fits into the hair bulb is the:

a)

hair follicle

b)

hair strand

c)

dermal papilla

d)

dermal cuticle

30.

the substance secreted by the sebaceous glands is called:

a)

sebum

b)

sulfer

c)

sudoriferous

d)

lymph

31.

The tiny, inv0luntary muscle fiber n the skin inserted in the base of the hair follicle is the:

a)

inner follicle

b)

angled bulb

c)

arrector pili

d)

dermal papilla

32.

which layer of the hair shaft creates the shine and the smooth, silky feel of healthy hair?

a)

cuticle

b)

arrector pili

c)

cortex

d)

medulla

33.

the fibrous protein core formed by elongated cells that contains melanin pigment is the...

a)

cuticle

b)

sebum

c)

cortex

d)

medulla

34.

the hair shaft that emerges from the scalp is a nonliving fiber composed of:

a)

keratinized acids

b)

hydrogen bonds

c)

melanin protein

d)

keratinized protein

35.

the units of structure that build protein and are joined together end to end like pop beads are

a)

oxygenated cells

b)

primary acids

c)

amino acids

d)

lymph glands

36.

a long chain of amino acids linked by peptide bonds is called a:

a)

amino-peptide chain

b)

polymer chain

c)

keratin chain

d)

polypeptide chain

37.

a physical side bond that is easily broken by water and heat is a:

a)

nitrogen bond

b)

hydrogen bond

c)

disulfide bond

d)

sulfur bond

38.

a weak, physical, cross-link side bond between adjacent polypeptide chains that is broken by changes in pH is a:

a)

hydrogen bond

b)

carbon bond

c)

salt bond

d)

sulfur bond

39.

Permanent waving and hair relaxers break disulfide bonds and convert them to:

a)

Hydrogen bonds

b)

Ionic bonds

c)

disulfide bond

d)

amino acids

40.

Hydroxide chemical relaxers break disulfide bonds and convert them to:

a)

lanthionine bonds

b)

sulfur bonds

c)

carbon bonds

d)

hydrogen bonds

41.

All natural hair color is the result of pigment located in the cortex called:

a)

melanin

b)

tissue

c)

sebum

d)

protiens

42.

The melanin that provides brown or black color to hair is:

a)

ionic

b)

eumelanin

c)

pheomelanin

d)

telogen

43.

Which of the following terms is used to describe hairs wave pattern?

a)

curly

b)

straight

c)

extremely curly

d)

all answers are correct

44.

vellus hair is short, fine, and downy hair also known as:

a)

straight hair

b)

melanin

c)

lanugo hair

d)

terminal hair

45.

The three growth cycles of human hair are:

a)

anagen, endocentric, and telogen

b)

catagen, return, and transition

c)

anagen, catagen, and telogen

d)

anagen, transition, and mature

46.

The resting phase or final phase of the hair cycle that lasts until the fully grown hair is shed is the

a)

telogen phase

b)

anagen phase

c)

catagen phase

d)

transition phase

47.

The sudden falling out of hair in round patches or baldness in spots is:

a)

postpartum alopecia

b)

androgenic alopecia

c)

alopecia totalis

d)

alopecia areataa

48.

The technical term for fray hair is:

a)

alopecia

b)

canities

c)

albino

d)

ringed hair

49.

The condition of abnormal hair growth of terminal hairis referred to as:

a)

monilethrix

b)

ringed hair

c)

hypertrichosis

d)

trichoptilosis

50.

Trichoptilosis is the technical term for

a)

split ends

b)

hair loss

c)

knotted hair

d)

beaded hair

51.

A condition that is characterized by brittleness and the formation of nodular swellings along the hair shaft is:

a)

fragilitas

b)

trichorrhexis nodosa

c)

alopecia areata

d)

hypertrichosis

52.

The medical term used to describe dandruff is:

a)

alopecia

b)

selnium

c)

pityriasis

d)

pyrithione

53.

Current research confirms that dandruff is the result of a fungus called:

a)

pyrithione

b)

steatoides

c)

capitis

d)

malassezia

54.

A severe type of dandruff characterized by an accumulation of greasy or waxy scalp scales mixed with sebum is:

a)

pityriasis capitis

b)

tinea favosa

c)

pityriasis papules

d)

pityriasis steatoides

55.

Tinea is characterized by itching scales and sometimes painful circular lesions and is caused by:

a)

seborrheic dermatitis

b)

parasites

c)

subcutaneous tissue

d)

fungal organisms

56.

Which of the following scalp disorders is characterized by dry, sulfur-yellow, cup-like crusts on the scalp?

a)

tinea capitis

b)

pediculosis furuncle

c)

tinea favosa

d)

tinea barbae

57.

A highly contagious skin disease caused by a parasite called a mite is:

a)

dandruff

b)

pediculosis

c)

scabies

d)

tinea

58.

An infestation of the hair and scalp with head lice is

a)

pediculosis capitis

b)

pediculosis furuncle

c)

alopecia areata

d)

vesicles parasites

59.

An acute, localized bacterial infection of the hair follicle that produces constant pain is a

a)

alopecia

b)

furuncle

c)

capitis

d)

tinea

60.

The thickness or diameter of the individual hair strand is referred to as hair

a)

dryness

b)

texture

c)

elasticity

d)

porosity

61.

hair that has the largest diameter and usually requires more processing is:

a)

fine hair

b)

coarse hair

c)

medium hair

d)

density

62.

the measurement that describes the number of individual hair strands on 1 square inch of the scalp is:

a)

porosity

b)

diameter

c)

elasticity

d)

density

63.

the ability of the hair to absorb moisture is:

a)

porosity

b)

elasticity

c)

density

d)

saturation

64.

chemical services performed on hair with low porosity require a solution that is

a)

less alkaline

b)

absorbent

c)

gentle

d)

more alkaline

65.

the ability of hair to stretch and return to its original length without breaking is referred to as hair:

a)

density

b)

elasticity

c)

porosity

d)

resistance

66.

hair flowing in the same direction, the result of follicles sloping in the same direction form a:

a)

section

b)

hair stream

c)

hair whorl

d)

cowlick

67.

dry hair and scalp should be treated with products that contain moisturizers and:

a)

sulfur

b)

chemicals

c)

alcohol

d)

emollients

68.

Do not massage or manipulate a client's scalp if you detect the presence of :

a)

color

b)

keratin

c)

meddication

d)

abrasions

69.

Massage is contraindicated for clients with:

a)

circulatory conditions

b)

severe, uncontrolled hypertension

c)

diabetes

d)

All of these answers are correct.

70.

Antidandruff shampoos and conditioners contain antifungal agents that suppress the growth of:

a)

malasseia

b)

keratin

c)

proteins

d)

collagen

71.

Brushes with bristles that have tiny overlapping layers or scales, which clean and add luster to the hair, are:

a)

natural

b)

nylon

c)

rounded

d)

synthetic

72.

To be effective, a shampoo must remove all dirt, oil, cosmetics, and skin debris without:

a)

clarifying scalp and hair

b)

cleaning residue and products

c)

adversely affecting scalp or hair

d)

stripping hair of bacteria

73.

To prevent fatigue, muscle aches, and back strain when performing a shampoo, maintain good:

a)

movements

b)

balance

c)

leverage

d)

posture

74.

water is the most abundant and important element on earth and is classified as an:

a)

complete solvent

b)

natural solvent

c)

universal solvent

d)

acidic solvent

75.

the water-attracting head of the surfactant molecule is

a)

deionized

b)

hydrophilic

c)

lipophilic

d)

a salt atom

76.

the lipophilic tail if a surfactant molecule is considered to be:

a)

water-resistant

b)

water-loving

c)

oil-resistant

d)

oil-attracting

77.

two conditioning agents that restore moisture and elasticity to the hair shaft are:

a)

protein and oils

b)

melanin and biotin

c)

protein and biotin

d)

collagen and niacin

78.

Substances that absorb moisture or promote the retention of moisture are known as

a)

astringents

b)

humectants

c)

keratin

d)

deionized

79.

which of the following conditioning agents removes oil accumulation from the scalp and is used after a scalp treatment and before styling

a)

scalp conditioners

b)

scalp astringent lotions

c)

spray on thermal protectors

d)

deep conditioning treatments

80.

When securing a cape as draping for a basic shampoo, do not let cape touch the

a)

clients skin

b)

shampoo sink

c)

clients towel

d)

clean towel

81.

surfaces on the head changes, such as the cars, jawline, and occipital bone are referred to as

a)

junction point

b)

reference point

c)

apex point

d)

technique points

82.

reference points in a haircut are used to establish

a)

head forms

b)

preferred techniques

c)

design lines

d)

tension points

83.

Achieving balance within a design can be accomplished by understanding the _____ and reference points.

a)

sample proportions

b)

head shape

c)

four corners

d)

technical specifications

84.

what is the widest part of the head, starting at the temples and ending at the bottom of the crown, that can be found by placing a comb flat on the side of the head.

a)

parietal ridge

b)

occipital ridge

c)

temporal ridge

d)

technical specifications

85.

What bone protrudes at the base of the skull

a)

parietal bone

b)

occipital bone

c)

temporal bone

d)

frontal bone

86.

The ______ is the highest point on the top of the head, and can be located easily by placing a comb on top of the head and noticing that the comb is resting on the highest point

a)

apex

b)

crown

c)

front

d)

nape

87.

The location of the four corners signals a change in_______.

a)

head shape

b)

bone shape

c)

hair shape

d)

hair growth

88.

The two front corners represent the part of the _____.

a)

apex area

b)

parietal area

c)

bang area

d)

nape area

89.

Hair that grows below the parietal ridge, or crest, hangs because of ________.

a)

the cut

b)

the color

c)

gravity

d)

the style

90.

What area of the head is located between the apex and back of the parietal ridge?

a)

Crown

b)

Front

c)

Sides

d)

Top

91.

The ______ area is defined as the back part of the neck and consists of the hair below the occcipital bone.

a)

crown

b)

neckline

c)

side

d)

nape

92.

By making a parting or drawing a line from the apex to the back of the ear, you can locate the ____ of the head, which consists of all the hair that falls naturally behind the ear.

a)

crown

b)

back

c)

sides

d)

nape

93.

What is the triangular section of the head that begins at the apex and ends at the front corners?

a)

Bang area

b)

Crown

c)

Nape

d)

Top

94.

A(n) ______ is a thin, continuous mark, curved or straight, used as a guide while cutting hair.

a)

line

b)

angle

c)

diagonal

d)

section

95.

What is the working area of the hair that is separated prior to cutting?

a)

Line

b)

Angle

c)

Diagonal

d)

Section

96.

A(n) ______ is created when the space between two lines or surfaces intersects at a given point.

a)

formation

b)

angle

c)

bang

d)

line

97.

An important element in creating a strong foundation and consistency in haircutting and creating shape is the use of _____.

a)

angles

b)

corners

c)

graduation

d)

long layers

98.

The three types of straight lines in haircutting inclede horizontal, vertical, and_____ lines.

a)

straight

b)

diagonal

c)

curved

d)

elevated

99.

What type of haircutting lines are parallel to the floor and relative to the horizon?

a)

Horizontal lines

b)

Vertical lines

c)

Elevation lines

d)

Weight Lines

100.

What type of haircutting lines are perpendicular to the horizon, and are used to remove weight to create graduated or layered haircuts, and higher elevation?

a)

Diagonal lines

b)

Vertical lines

c)

Horizontal lines

d)

Beveled lines