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Human Anatomy Prelim Examination

Total questions: 103

Worksheet time: 2hrs 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 34-year-old man presented to the ER for evaluation of right lower quadrant pain. The medical clerk performed the ilio-psoas test. The psoas major muscle is inferiorly attached to the:

a)

Greater Trochanter of the Femur

b)

Lesser Trochanter of the Femur

c)

Internal Lip of Iliac Crest

d)

Anterior Superior Iliac Spine

e)

Posterior Superior Iliac Spine

2.

A model consulted because of a persistent bulging abdomen 6 months after giving birth to twins.  The diagnosis was rectus abdominis diastasis which is the abnormal separation of rectus muscles and a laxity at the linea alba. The linea alba is formed by the:

a)

aponeuroses of the external oblique, internal oblique, & transversus abdominis muscles

b)

aponeuroses of the external oblique muscle and internal oblique muscle

c)

aponeuroses of the external oblique muscle and transversus abdominis muscle

d)

separation of the vertical right and left rectus abdominis muscles

3.

The general surgeon did an open appendectomy at the McBurney point. The peritoneal cavity was entered through the following abdominal wall layers from outermost to innermost:

a)

Skin, Camper Fascia, Deep Membranous Layer of Subcutaneous Tissue, Investing Fascia, External Oblique Muscle, Investing Fascia, Internal Oblique Muscle, Investing Fascia, Transversus Abdominis Muscle, Transversalis Fascia, Extraperitoneal Fat, Parietal Peritoneum

b)

Skin, Camper Fascia, Scarpa Fascia, Investing Fascia, External Oblique Muscle, Investing Fascia, Internal Oblique Muscle, Transversalis Fascia, Transversus Abdominis Muscle, Endoabdominal Fascia, Extraperitoneal Fat, Parietal Peritoneum

c)

Skin, Deep Fatty Layer of Subcutaneous Tissue, Scarpa Fascia, Investing Fascia, External Oblique Muscle, Investing Fascia, Internal Oblique Muscle, Investing Fascia, Transversus Abdominis Muscle, Endoabdominal Fascia, Extraperitoneal Fat, Parietal Peritoneum

d)

Skin, Superficial Fatty Layer of Subcutaneous Tissue, Deep Fatty Layer of Subcutaneous Tissue, Investing Fascia, External Oblique Muscle, Investing Fascia, Internal Oblique Muscle, Investing Fascia, Transversus Abdominis Muscle, Transversalis Fascia, Extraperitoneal Fat, Parietal Peritoneum

4.

A patient complained of abdominal pain after an episode of violent coughing. The diagnosis was Rectus Sheath Hematoma. The following statements about the rectus sheath are true, EXCEPT:

a)

The rectus sheath contains the superior and inferior epigastric arteries and veins.

b)

Between the costal margin and the level of the anterior superior iliac spine: the aponeurosis of the internal oblique splits to enclose the rectus abdominis muscles.

c)

Between the level of the anterosuperior iliac spine and the pubis: the aponeuroses of the external oblique, internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles form the anterior wall of the rectus sheath.

d)

Between the level of the anterosuperior iliac spine and the pubis: the posterior wall of the rectus sheath is absent, and the rectus abdominis muscles lie directly in contact with the peritoneum.

5.

A patient, with gallbladder stones, seeks consult because of fever and abdominal pain.  The medical clerk suspects an inflammation of the gallbladder. At what part of the abdomen should the clerk expect to elicit tenderness?

a)

Right Upper Quadrant

b)

Left Hypochondrium

c)

Left Flank

d)

Epigastric Area

e)

Whole Abdomen

6.

A factory worker was experiencing low back pain. The spine x-ray showed an excessive inward curvature of the lumbar spine.  Strengthening of his anterolateral abdominal wall muscles was advised.  Which of the following  muscles is most helpful to correct the lumbar spine problem?

a)

external oblique

b)

internal oblique

c)

transversus abdominis muscle

d)

rectus abdominis

e)

pyramidalis

7.

The rectus abdominis muscles originate from the pubic symphysis and pubic crest and attach to the:

a)

external surfaces of the 5th-12th ribs

b)

xiphoid process and costal cartilages of three "true ribs"

c)

inferior borders of the 11th-12th ribs

d)

xiphoid process and costal cartilages of three "false ribs"

e)

inferior borders of the 5th-7th ribs

8.

A patient who had a Lower Segment Cesarean Section (transverse skin incision, two finger-breadths above the symphysis pubis) complained of pain in the right pubic area and right medial thigh. Diagnosis: Nerve Entrapment Syndrome. Which nerve was most likely involved?

a)

right superior terminal branch of anterior ramus of spinal nerve L1

b)

subcostal nerve

c)

iliohypogastric nerve

d)

ilio-inguinal nerve

e)

left inferior terminal branch of anterior ramus of spinal nerve L1

9.

Hematoma of the rectus sheath is an uncommon cause of abdominal pain. The source of the bleeding is the inferior epigastric vein or, more rarely, the inferior epigastric artery. The inferior epigastric vein normally drains blood into the:

a)

deep femoral vein

b)

superficial epigastric vein

c)

external iliac vein

d)

superior epigastric vein

e)

deep circumflex iliac vein

10.

What is the entrance by which the spermatic cord in males, or the round ligament in females, enters the inguinal canal?

a)

external inguinal ring

b)

medial third

c)

middle third

d)

superficial inguinal ring

e)

deep inguinal ring

11.

A man complained of pain in the left groin.  There was a large, tender swelling in the left groin which extended down into the scrotum. The impression was indirect inguinal hernia. The following statements about indirect inguinal hernia are true, EXCEPT:

a)

congenital hernias are more common than acquired hernias

b)

there is patency of the processus vaginalis

c)

it is caused by a weakness in the inguinal triangle

d)

the hernia exits the superficial ring

e)

herniating bowel passes lateral to inferior epigastric vessels to enter deep inguinal ring

12.

The inguinal ligament is formed from the:

a)

aponeurosis of the internal oblique muscle

b)

aponeurosis of the transversus abdominis

c)

pyramidalis

d)

rectus abdominis

e)

external oblique muscle

13.

It is the transition between the aponeurotic wall of the rectus sheath that covers the posterior part of the rectus abdominis AND the absence of this aponeurotic posterior wall in the inferior part of the rectus abdominis muscle.  

a)

Spigelian line

b)

inguinal falx

c)

arcuate line

d)

Poupart ligament

e)

neurovascular plane

14.

What is the dermatome level that includes the umbilicus?

a)

Dermatome T9

b)

Dermatome T10

c)

Dermatome T11

d)

Dermatome T12

e)

Dermatome L1           

15.

The skin and subcutaneous tissue of the abdominal wall are served by an intricate subcutaneous venous plexus.  The upper portion of the abdominal wall drain medially to the:

a)

subcostal vein

b)

thoraco-epigastric vein

c)

superficial epigastric vein

d)

axillary vein

e)

internal thoracic vein

16.

An incisional hernia is a protrusion of omentum or an organ through a surgical incision that does not heal properly. The following practices are acceptable, EXCEPT:

a)

The surgeon splits the muscle, without cutting it, in the direction of and between its fibers.

b)

Muscles and viscera are retracted toward their neurovascular supply.

c)

A big branch of motor nerve is cut and the 2 ends of the severed nerve are aligned properly during closure.

d)

Whenever possible, laparoscopic surgery is done instead of the conventional, open surgery.

e)

The rectus abdominis muscle may be transected transversely without causing serious damage.

 

17.

What fascia allows the surgeon an anterior abdominal wall access to the retroperitoneal structures (kidneys, ureters, and bodies of lumbar vertebra) without entering the peritoneal cavity?

a)

camper fascia

b)

scarpa fascia

c)

endoabdominal fascia

d)

investing fascia (middle)

e)

investing fascia (deep)

18.

JK, a medical student, sustained a wound near the periumbilical area, one inch above the umbilicus, when he  went spelunking in Callao cave. The wound got infected. He expected to experience some swelling of the lymph nodes in the:

a)

superficial inguinal lymph nodes

b)

cisterna chyli

c)

axillary lymph nodes

d)

retro-aortic lymph nodes

e)

inferior epigastric lymph nodes

19.

A patient experienced bulging in the right groin area. Diagnosis: femoral hernia.  What is that area of innate weakness in the body wall in the inguinal region which is the site of direct inguinal hernias, indirect inguinal hernias, and femoral hernias?

a)

inguinal triangle

b)

subinguinal space

c)

femoral canal

d)

myopectineal orifice

e)

inguinal canal

20.

The rectus abdominis muscle, superficial and deep abdominal wall of the epigastric and upper umbilical regions are supplied with blood by the:

a)

inferior epigastric artery

b)

subcostal artery

c)

musculophrenic artery

d)

internal thoracic artery

e)

10th and 11th posterior intercostal arteries

21.

The parietal peritoneum is sensitive to the following, EXCEPT:

a)

stretching

b)

pain

c)

laceration

d)

heat

e)

pressure

22.

The portal triad is found within the:

a)

hepatogastric ligament

b)

lesser omentum

c)

triangular ligament

d)

falciform ligament

e)

ligamentum teres hepatis

23.

The peritoneum is derived from the embryonic:

a)

endoderm

b)

mesothelioma

c)

ventral mesentery

d)

mesoderm

e)

dorsal mesentery

 

24.

A patient had a ruptured appendicitis and was operated. The surgeon discovered that the greater omentum had adhered to the appendix. The greater omentum descends from the greater curvature of the stomach and proximal part of the duodenum.  It's attached to the:

a)

superior surface of the transverse colon

b)

superior surface of the right colon

c)

transverse colon and transverse mesocolon

d)

posterior abdominal wall

e)

pubic bones

 

25.

These are secondarily retroperitoneal structures, EXCEPT:

a)

ascending colon

b)

kidneys

c)

descending colon

d)

duodenum

e)

pancreas

26.

In placing trocars in the anterior abdominal wall, what peritoneal fold or reflection should the surgeon avoid in the inner surface of the anterior abdominal wall in order not to cut the inferior epigastric arteries?

a)

median umbilical fold

b)

medial umbilical fold

c)

lateral umbilical fold

d)

fibrous remnant of the urachus

e)

occluded parts of the umbilical arteries

27.

What area is considered as a potential site for acquired inguinal hernia?

a)

deep inguinal ring

b)

lateral inguinal fossa

c)

inguinal groove

d)

medial inguinal fossa

e)

retro-inguinal space

28.

What divides the abdominal cavity into a supracolic compartment (containing the stomach, liver, and spleen) and an infracolic compartment (containing the small intestine and ascending and descending colon)?

a)

mesentery of the small intestine

b)

mesentery of the transverse colon

c)

mesogastrium

d)

mesocolon

e)

lesser omentum

29.

The surgeon, while removing the gallbladder, accidentally cut the cystic artery. To stop the bleeding, the surgeon should insert his index finger into an opening so that he could effectively pinch the hepatic artery.  What's this opening?

a)

omental foramen

b)

umbilical fissure

c)

myopectineal orifice

d)

paracolic gutter

e)

superior recess of the omental bursa

30.

Infections in the pelvis may extend superiorly to the supracolic compartment of the greater sac through the:

a)

left paracolic gutter

b)

right paracolic gutter

c)

omental bursa

d)

epiploic foramen

e)

inferior recess of the lesser sac

31.

What is the name of the structure pointed at by the  arrow?

a)

medial umbilical fold

b)

medial umbilical ligament

c)

lateral umbilical fold

d)

fibrous remnant of the urachus

e)

occluded parts of the umbilical arteries

32.

These statements regarding abdominal hernias in adults are true, EXCEPT:

a)

Nerve compression happens.

b)

They do not occur in the midline.

c)

They result from increased intra-abdominal pressure in the presence of weakness in the abdominal wall.

d)

The stresses of obesity and aging may contribute to the weakening of the abdominal wall.

e)

They can be a consequence of laparoscopic surgery.

33.

This type of incision is ideal for abdominal viscera exploration. It can provide good visualization and easier access to the viscera. The chance of cutting a major blood vessel or nerve is low by using this incision.

a)

subcostal incision

b)

pararectus incision

c)

McBurney incision

d)

supraumbilical median incision

e)

Pfannenstiel incision

34.

The peritoneal cavity contains the:

a)

urinary bladder

b)

stomach

c)

water, electrolytes, white blood cells, antibodies

d)

spleen

e)

kidney

35.

It is a peritoneal formation that connects an organ with another organ or to the abdominal wall.

a)

mesentery

b)

omentum

c)

peritoneal fold

d)

peritoneal recess

e)

ligament

36.

The round ligament of the liver is enclosed in the free edge of the:

a)

lesser omentum

b)

falciform ligament

c)

greater omentum

d)

hepatoduodenal ligament

e)

hepatogastric ligament

37.

What permits free movement of the stomach on the structures posterior and inferior to it?

a)

greater sac

b)

lesser sac

c)

bare area

d)

loose hepatogastric ligament

e)

pancreas

38.

What is true regarding the boundaries of the omental foramen?

a)

The foramen is found in front of the hepatoduodenal ligament.

b)

The foramen is found at the back of the  Inferior Vena Cava and the right crus of the diaphragm.

c)

The foramen is found below the stomach.

d)

The foramen is found below the liver.

e)

The foramen is found below the superior or first part of the duodenum.

39.

During infancy, the fusion of the layers of the greater omentum happens.  After the fusion, the lower portion of the omental bursa extends only up to the:

a)

transverse colon

b)

stomach

c)

ileum

d)

liver

e)

symphysis pubis

40.

The peritoneum covering the stomach is supplied with blood by:

a)

superior epigastric artery

b)

inferior epigastric artery

c)

superior mesenteric artery

d)

inferior mesenteric artery

e)

celiac trunk

41.

The following statements are true about the upper esophageal sphincter, EXCEPT:

a)

It is located in the beginning of the esophagus.

b)

It is a constriction in the esophagus.

c)

It is located at the junction of the pharynx and esophagus.

d)

It is controlled by the cricothyroid muscle.

e)

It is approximately 15 cm from the incisor teeth.

42.

It is the junction between the esophageal mucosa and gastric mucosa:

a)

S-line

b)

inferior esophageal sphincter

c)

physiological sphincter

d)

anatomical sphincter

e)

zigzag line

43.

What is the junction between the esophagus and the dome-shaped upper portion of the stomach?

a)

incisura angularis

b)

cardial notch

c)

cardial orifice

d)

zigzag line

e)

S-line

44.

What is pointed at by the red arrow?

a)

cardial notch

b)

gastric fold

c)

esophago-gastric junction

d)

transpyloric plane

e)

angular notch

45.

A patient was diagnosed with a posterior stomach ulcer.  Ulcers in this location may erode the splenic artery and cause hemorrhage.  What nerve can be cut in order to decrease the production of gastric juice by the stomach?

a)

parasympathetic innervation

b)

sympathetic innervation

c)

greater splanchnic nerve

d)

accessory nerve

e)

abducens nerve

46.

What part of the duodenum has the openings of the ducts that convey or carry bile from the gallbladder and pancreatic juice from the pancreas?

a)

superior part

b)

inferior part

c)

third part

d)

second part

e)

duodenal cap

47.

The oxygenated blood supply of the duodenum originates from the:

a)

superior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric artery

b)

inferior mesenteric artery and celiac trunk

c)

celiac trunk and superior mesenteric artery

d)

gastro duodenal artery, supraduodenal artery, superior pancreaticoduodenal artery, inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery, right gastric artery

e)

superior mesenteric artery, right gastro-omental artery, left gastroepiploic artery

48.

Comparing it to the jejunum, the ileum has the following, EXCEPT

a)

nearly the same caliber

b)

less vascularity

c)

shorter vase recta

d)

sparse circular folds in the distal part

e)

many Peyer patches

49.

Venous blood from the jejunum and ileum are drained by the:

a)

superior mesenteric vein and portal vein

b)

inferior mesenteric vein

c)

superior mesenteric vein and splenic vein

d)

inferior mesenteric vein and splenic vein

e)

inferior mesenteric vein and superior mesenteric vein

50.

The large intestine can be distinguished from the small intestine by the following, EXCEPT:

a)

small, fatty, omentum-like projections

b)

sacculation of the wall of the small intestine between the teniae coli

c)

teniae coli

d)

haustra

e)

diameter

51.

The three bands of longitudinal muscle fibers called teniae coli converge as one in the:

a)

hepatic flexure

b)

splenic flexure

c)

appendix

d)

cecum

e)

sigmoid colon

52.

The transition of the main blood supply, from superior mesenteric artery to inferior mesenteric artery,  of the large intestine happens at the:

a)

ascending colon

b)

hepatic flexure

c)

transverse colon

d)

splenic flexure

e)

rectosigmoid junction

53.

This artery parallels or extends along the length of the colon close to its mesenteric border and provides a collateral or alternative blood supply to the different parts of the colon.

a)

marginal artery

b)

arterial arcades

c)

vasa recta

d)

right colic artery

e)

left colic artery

54.

The relations of the spleen are the following, EXCEPT:

a)

The spleen is lateral to the stomach.

b)

The left 9th–11th ribs are located indirectly behind the spleen.

c)

The left 9th -11th ribs are separated from the spleen by the left part of the diaphragm.

d)

The spleen is above the left colic flexure.

e)

The left kidney is on the medial side of the spleen.

55.

Where does the superior mesenteric vein join the splenic vein to form the portal vein?

a)

posterior to the head of the pancreas

b)

anterior to the uncinate process of the pancreas

c)

posterior to the neck of the pancreas

d)

anterior to the body of the pancreas

     

e)

posterior to the tail of the pancreas

56.

The liver is subdivided into four divisions.  The four divisions are further divided into resectable hepatic segments.  How many  hepatic segments are there?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

9

e)

10

57.

Most of the blood received by the liver comes from the:

a)

hepatic artery

b)

superior mesenteric artery

c)

inferior mesenteric artery

d)

celiac trunk

e)

portal vein

58.

Meckel's diverticulum is caused by the persistence of the embryonic:

a)

umbilical vein

b)

umbilical artery

c)

urachus

d)

omphalo-enteric duct

e)

processus vaginalis

59.

These are causes of extrinsic small bowel obstruction, EXCEPT:

a)

adhesions

b)

hernias

c)

intestinal malrotation

d)

midgut volvulus

e)

ascaris bolus

60.

The most common cause of small bowel obstruction is

a)

adhesions

b)

hernias

c)

intestinal malrotation

d)

midgut volvulus

e)

neoplasms

61.

Small bowel obstruction may manifest with several features in the abdominal x-ray.  What do the red arrows show?

a)

dilated loops of the large bowel

b)

visible valvulae conniventes

     

c)

gas-fluid level

d)

absence of air in the large intestines

 

e)

string-of-beads sign: small pockets of gas within a fluid-filled small bowel

62.

Regional specification of the gut tube into different components (pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, colon, etc.) is initiated by a concentration gradient or different levels of exposure of the gut tube to:

a)

retinoic acid

     

b)

SOXZ

c)

PDX1

     

d)

DXC

     

e)

CDXA

63.

Foregut derivatives include the following, EXCEPT:

a)

esophagus

     

b)

stomach

     

c)

duodenum

     

d)

pancreas

e)

gallbladder

64.

The stomach, as it grows, rotates clockwise around its longitudinal axis, causing its left side to face anteriorly and its right side to face posteriorly.  How many degrees is the rotation?

a)

45 degrees

     

b)

90 degrees

     

c)

120 degrees

     

d)

180 degrees

e)

260 degrees

65.

The lesser omentum is derived from the:

a)

ventral mesogastrium

     

b)

dorsal mesogastrium

     

c)

dorsal mesentery

     

d)

dorsal mesocolon

     

e)

mesentery proper

66.

Baby 3D vomited after her first feeding. She had Duodenal Atresia probably due to failure of duodenal recanalization. In what month of fetal development does the lumen of the duodenum become obliterated?

a)

first month

     

b)

second month

     

c)

third month

     

d)

fourth month

     

e)

fifth month

67.

Inhibitory factors produced by the ectoderm, noncardiac mesoderm, and notochord stop the foregut endoderm to become the liver.  What proteins block the effect of the inhibitory factors so that gut endoderm becomes liver tissue?

a)

bone morphogenetic proteins (BMPs)    

     

b)

hepatocyte nuclear transcription factors (HNF3 and HNF4)

c)

SHH

     

d)

AX4 and PAX6

e)

fibroblast growth factors (FGF2)

68.

The ventral pancreatic bud becomes the:

a)

head of the pancreas

     

b)

uncinate process of the pancreas

     

c)

neck of the pancreas

     

d)

body of the pancreas

     

e)

tail of the pancreas

69.

During fetal development, the primary intestinal loop rotates.  How many degrees of rotation happens during the return of the intestines, from physiological herniation, into the abdominal cavity?

a)

45 degrees

     

b)

90 degrees

     

c)

120 degrees

     

d)

180 degrees

e)

270 degrees

70.

Superior to the pectinate line, the anal epithelium is

a)

simple columnar supplied by the inferior rectal artery

    

b)

  columnar supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery

     

c)

stratified cuboidal supplied by the superior rectal artery

     

d)

simple squamous supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery

     

e)

simple squamous supplied by the superior mesenteric artery

71.

Portal Venous and Systemic Venous communications occur in the following locations, EXCEPT:

a)

submucosa in the inferior esophagus

b)

submucosa of the anal canal

c)

peri-umbilical region

d)

bare areas of secondarily retroperitoneal viscera

e)

varicose veins of the legs

72.

What drains the blood from Segment 1 of the liver?

a)

minor hepatic vein

b)

right hepatic vein

c)

middle hepatic vein

d)

left hepatic vein

e)

hepatic portal vein

73.

What is the portal vein pressure in an individual with normal physiology?

a)

zero

b)

3 to 5 mmHg

c)

5 to 10 mmHg

     

d)

10 to 15 mmHg

     

e)

20 to 30 mmHg

74.

When there is failure of descent of the cecum, pain felt due to appendicitis localizes in the:

a)

hypochondriac region

b)

right lower quadrant

     

c)

right flank

     

d)

epigastric region

     

e)

suprapubic area

75.

Innervation by the vagus nerves supply the inferior esophagus until the:

     

a)

duodenum

     

b)

hepatic flexure

     

c)

splenic flexure

     

d)

descending colon

     

e)

rectum

76.

These nerves supply sympathetic fibers, EXCEPT:

     

a)

least splanchnic nerve

     

b)

lesser splanchnic nerve

     

c)

lumbar splanchnic nerve

     

d)

sacral splanchnic nerve

     

e)

pelvic splanchnic nerve (E)

77.

During the 10th week of fetal development, herniated intestinal loops begin to return to the abdominal cavity. What is the last structure to return into the abdominal cavity?

a)

cecum

b)

ascending colon

     

c)

ileum

     

d)

duodenum

     

e)

descending colon

78.

During the 5th week of development, the embryo receives nourishment from the yolk sac through the:

a)

placenta

     

b)

umbilical cord

     

c)

two umbilical arteries

     

d)

one umbilical vein

     

e)

vitelline duct

79.
a)

caput succedaneum

b)

spider nevus

     

c)

caput medusae

d)

telangiectasia

     

e)

angioma serpiginosum

80.

What among these embryonic structures become the renal pyramids?

     

a)

pronephros

     

b)

mesonephros

     

c)

metanephros

     

d)

ureteric bud

     

e)

urogenital sinus

81.

A one-year-old infant had hematuria (bloody urine). The final impression was ureteropelvic junction obstruction. At the renal hilum, this is the order of structures (from the front to the back) the urologist expects to see.

a)

renal artery, renal vein, renal pelvis

     

b)

renal artery, renal pelvis, renal vein

     

c)

renal vein, renal artery, renal pelvis

     

d)

renal vein, renal pelvis, renal artery

     

e)

renal pelvis, renal vein, renal artery

82.

Why is it that some kidney stones cannot pass down and reach the urinary bladder?

     

a)

These renal stones  have rough edges.

     

b)

The ureteral mucosa is not smooth and slippery enough to facilitate passage of the stones.

     

c)

Presence of the junction between the ureter and renal pelvis.      

d)

The renal stones may not be heavy enough.

     

e)

Some renal stones have very soft matrix.

83.

In cases of displaced rib fractures, what is the rib most likely to injure the right kidney?

     

a)

true rib

     

b)

false rib

     

c)

10th rib

     

d)

11th rib

     

e)

12th rib

84.

A patient was diagnosed with right adrenal cancer.  The surgeon decided to remove the whole adrenal and resect the topmost segment of the kidney.  What artery of the kidney should the surgeon make sure to clamp in order to limit blood loss?

a)

highest segmental artery

     

b)

apical segmental artery

c)

anterosuperior segmental artery

     

d)

first-order segmental artery

     

e)

intertwining artery

85.

Why is the left renal vein longer than the right renal vein?

     

a)

It is because the left kidney is bigger than the right kidney.

     

b)

It is because the left kidney is smaller than the right kidney.

     

c)

It is because the left kidney has a more concave hilum.  

     

d)

It is because the inferior vena cava is on the right side of the body.

     

e)

It is because the inferior vena cava has a curve.

86.

Arterial supply to the ureter may come from the following, EXCEPT:

    

a)

renal artery

     

b)

testicular artery

     

c)

ovarian artery

     

d)

common iliac artery

     

e)

inferior mesenteric artery

87.

The renal vein entrapment syndrome or the nutcracker syndrome may present with the following, EXCEPT:

     

a)

right flank pain

b)

hematuria or blood in the urine

     

c)

proteinuria or protein in the urine

     

d)

testicular pain

     

e)

varicocele

88.

The pain due to ureteral stone obstruction may be felt in the following areas, EXCEPT:

     

a)

lumbar region

     

b)

thigh

     

c)

labia majora

     

d)

testes

     

e)

periumbilical region

89.

In managing renal stones, the procedure associated with the least morbidity and the lowest complication rate is:

     

a)

shockwave lithotripsy

b)

ureteroscopy

     

c)

percutaneous nephrolithotomy

     

d)

open nephrolithotomy

     

e)

laser lithotripsy

90.

What is the structure pointed at by the arrows?

a)

colonic tumor

     

b)

psoas

c)

rectus abdominis

           

d)

ascaris bolus

     

e)

plicae circulares

91.

What is pointed by the arrow?

a)

pneumoperitone-um or air in the peritoneal cavity

       

b)

air-fluid level in the duodenum

     

c)

gastric air bubble

d)

fecal matter

     

e)

dilated bowel loop

92.

Severe bleeding from a big wound on the thigh may be controlled by applying pressure over the umbilicus, while in the supine position,  to compress the abdominal aorta against the vertebra.  What part of the vertebra usually corresponds with the level of the umbilicus?

a)

body of the L1 vertebra

     

b)

body of the L2 vertebra

     

c)

body of the L3 vertebra

     

d)

body of the L4 vertebra

e)

body of the L5 vertebra

93.

Muscles of the posterior abdominal wall include the following, EXCEPT:

     

a)

iliacus

     

b)

quadratus lumborum

     

c)

intrinsic back muscle

d)

psoas major

     

e)

psoas minor

94.

Tuberculous disease of the lumbar vertebrae may result to formation of pus which can gravitate downward into the upper part of the thigh below the inguinal ligament. What fascia can help facilitate the extension of the pus into the thigh?

     

a)

thoracolumbar fascia

     

b)

quadratus lumborum fascia

     

c)

femoral sheath

     

d)

psoas fascia

e)

medial arcuate ligament

95.

Acute appendicitis initially presents with a dull, periumbilical pain. Why?

     

a)

The tip of the appendix, sometimes, is located near the umbilicus.

     

b)

The appendix is supplied by sensory fibers from T10.

c)

The parietal peritoneum is more sensitive  around the umbilicus.

     

d)

There is less sensory innervation around the umbilicus.

     

e)

The pain is masked by intake of analgesic medication.

96.

Perforation of the posterior wall of the stomach results in the passage of its fluid contents into the omental bursa. In the supine position, where will the fluid from the omental bursa flow into?

     

a)

subphrenic recess

     

b)

subhepatic space

     

c)

postero-inferior extension of the subhepatic space

     

d)

inferior recess of the omental bursa

     

e)

hepatorenal recess

97.

The following statements are true about the renal fascia and the perinephric space, EXCEPT:

     

a)

The renal fascia encloses the perinephric space and fat.

b)

The renal fascia encloses the kidney.

     

c)

Abscess within the perinephric space can descend inferiorly and reach the pelvic space.

     

d)

The renal fascia attaches the adrenal gland into the diaphragm.

     

e)

e. The renal fascia does not attach to the renal blood vessels.

98.

Esophageal varices are distended and tortuous submucosal veins in the esophagus. Why do these veins enlarge?

    

a)

The walls of the veins in this area are very weak.

     

b)

The hepatic portal vein and its tributaries have valves.

     

c)

In this area, there is no anastomosis between the portal system and the systemic venous system.

     

d)

It is caused by the blood flow.

e)

The small area of the esophagus cannot adequately accommodate the number of veins draining the area.

99.

The following statements regarding the falciform ligament are true, EXCEPT:

     

a)

It divides the liver into two surgical divisions.

     

b)

It is the remnant of the ventral mesogastrium.

     

c)

It normally attaches along a continuous line to the anterior abdominal wall as far inferiorly as the umbilicus.

     

d)

It  encloses the remnant of the embryonic umbilical vein.

    

e)

It attaches to the diaphragm.

100.

The renal fascia encloses the following structures, EXCEPT:

     

a)

kidney

     

b)

adrenal gland

     

c)

suprarenal gland

     

d)

paranephric fat

     

e)

perinephric fat

101.

It is an imaginary plane midway between the jugular notch or upper border of the manubrium (superiorly) and the pubic crest (inferiorly).

a)

Transtubercular Plane

b)

Transpyloric Plane

c)

Subcostal Plane

d)

Midinguinal Point

e)

Interspinous Plane

102.

Pain sensation due to obstruction and detention of the ureters are conveyed to the spinal ganglia and cord segments:

a)

T9-T12

b)

T10-L1

c)

T11-L2

d)

T12-L3

e)

L1-L4

103.

Contains the Renal Corpuscles

a)

Renal Medulla

b)

Renal Cortex

c)

Renal Sinus

d)

Bowman Capsule

e)

Renal Papilla