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WorksheetsFinal Study Guide for Psychology
Total questions: 160
Worksheet time: 5hrs 21mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Lobe that is involved in sensing touch, as well as spatial processing, language, and memory.
a)
frontal
b)
temporal
c)
parietal
d)
occipital
2.
Coordinates muscle movements and is important to learning and performing skilled movements.
a)
hypothalamus
b)
thalamus
c)
cerebellum
d)
cerebrum
3.
Lobe that understands words and language. Also involved in visual memory.
a)
occipital
b)
temporal
c)
frontal
d)
parietal
4.
Controls behaviors (hunger, thirst, sleep, body temperature) through the release of hormones.
a)
hypothalamus
b)
thalamus
c)
adrenal glands
d)
pineal gland
5.
Involved in emotional responses like recognizing facial expressions of fear.
a)
amygdala
b)
basal ganglia
c)
brainstem
d)
medulla oblongata
6.
Role in controlling sleep, respiratory function, hearing, as well as motor control and touch in the region of the face.
a)
midbrain
b)
brainstem
c)
pons
d)
medula oblongata
7.
Controls cardiac and respiratory function.
a)
midbrain
b)
pons
c)
brainstem
d)
medulla oblongata
8.
Lobe that interprets vision (visual perception).
a)
parietal
b)
temporal
c)
frontal
d)
occipital
9.
Controls all endocrine glands and is primary hormone secreting structure in the brain. Controls the hypothalamus.
a)
pituitary gland
b)
pineal gland
c)
amygdala
d)
thalamus
10.
Hemisphere that is associated with Verbal and Mathematical abilities
a)
Left Hemisphere
b)
Right Hemisphere
11.
Controls heartbeat and breathing
a)
Pons
b)
Medulla
c)
Cerebellum
d)
Thalamus
12.
Known as the "Little Brain" and is in charge of balance and coordinating movements
a)
Thalamus
b)
Reticular Formation
c)
Hypothalamus
d)
Cerebellum
13.
Wrinkled part of the brain's surface where the body processes information
a)
Forebrain
b)
Cerebral Cortex
c)
Corpus Callosum
d)
Cerebellum
14.
Controls hearing, and language comprehension
a)
Frontal Lobe
b)
Temporal Lobe
c)
Occipital Lobe
d)
Parietal Lobe
15.
A person has difficulty speaking possibly due to a stroke.
a)
Broca's Aphasia
b)
Wernicke's Aphasia
c)
Visual Agnosia
d)
Neglect Syndrome
16.
Possesses the Sensory Cortex
a)
Frontal Lobe
b)
Occipital Lobe
c)
Temporal Lobe
d)
Parietal Lobe
17.
Processes visual information
a)
Frontal Lobe
b)
Temporal Lobe
c)
Occipital Lobe
d)
Parietal Lobe
18.
The brain and brain stem make up the:
a)
Peripheral Nervous System
b)
Somatic Nervous System
c)
Autonomic Nervous System
d)
Central Nervous System
19.
Controls cardiac and respiratory function.
a)
midbrain
b)
pons
c)
brainstem
d)
medulla oblongata
20.
The link between the nervous system and the endocrine system is maintained by the:
a)
hypothalamus
b)
temporal lobe
c)
cerebellum
d)
motor cortex
21.
Feelings of hopelessness and sadness that lasts for more than a few days.
a)
Major Depression
b)
Phobias
c)
Eating Disorders
d)
Hypochondria
22.
Sudden feelings of terror that strike without warning.
Putting oneself in danger by desperately trying to escape the situation.
Putting oneself in danger by desperately trying to escape the situation.
a)
schizophrenia
b)
panic disorder
c)
Bipolar Disorder
d)
Eating Disorder
23.
Excessive or persistent fear of something that may or may not cause danger. Ex: Spiders, Elevators.
a)
phobia
b)
hypochondria
c)
Panic Disorder
d)
Major Depression
24.
Repeated disturbing and unwanted thoughts.
Ritual behaviors that are perceived as impossible to control
Ritual behaviors that are perceived as impossible to control
a)
PTSD
b)
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
c)
ADHD
d)
Phobia
25.
Difficulty Concentrating, completing tasks, following instructions, and hyperactive.
a)
BDHP
b)
ADHO
c)
ADHD
d)
LMNOP
26.
Repeated disturbing and unwanted thoughts.
Ritual behaviors that are perceived as impossible to control
Ritual behaviors that are perceived as impossible to control
a)
PTSD
b)
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
c)
ADHD
d)
Phobia
27.
Avoidance of experiences that could trigger memories of a traumatic experience.
a)
PTSD
b)
OCD
c)
ADHD
d)
OCBLI
28.
obsessive thoughts and behavior about food consumption.
a)
Major Depression
b)
Eating Disorder
c)
Hypochondria
d)
OCD
29.
belief of illness when none is present
a)
OCD
b)
hypochondria
c)
schizophrenia
d)
Eating Disorder
30.
Uncontrollable cycles of extreme happiness and depression.
a)
Bipolar Disorder
b)
Major Depression
c)
Schizophrenia
d)
PTSD
31.
False perceptions of reality including hallucinations.
a)
Schizophrenia
b)
Major Depression
c)
OCD
d)
PTSD
32.
True or False: Phobias can be cured.
a)
True
b)
False
33.
What is Claustrophobia?
a)
The fear of small places.
b)
The fear of peanut butter.
c)
The fear of flying.
d)
The fear of the dentist.
34.
is a condition in which real or imagined fear are difficult to control
a)
Anxiety disorder
b)
Eating disorder
c)
Impulse control disorder
35.
A condition that may develop after exposure to a terrifying event.
a)
Post-traumatic stress disorder
b)
OCD
c)
Generalized anxiety disorder
36.
A mark of shame or disapproval that results in individuals being shunned or rejected.
a)
Stigma
b)
Freckles
c)
Depression
d)
Anxiety
37.
Which of the following is a symptom of post-traumatic stress disorder
a)
nightmares and flashbacks
b)
fear or abandonment
c)
extreme mood changes
d)
irritability and violence
38.
A person who washes their hands 20x a day and obsesses about germs...
a)
OCD
b)
Phobia
c)
PTSD
d)
Addiction
39.
Which are ways for depression to be treated?
a)
Therapy
b)
Medications
c)
Maintaining a healthy lifestyle
d)
All of the above
40.
_________DISORDER IS WHEN YOU CANNOT LEAVE THE HOUSE WITHOUT CHECKING THE LOCKS ON EVERY WINDOW AND DOOR OVER AND OVER.
a)
OCD
b)
PTSD
c)
Tourettes
41.
Motivation is defined by psychologists as
a)
an impulse to accomplish something of significance.
b)
a basic bodily requirement.
c)
a need or desire that energizes and directs behavior.
d)
the underlying cause of all our behaviors.
42.
For a person deprived of water, the satisfaction that follows drinking a thirst-quenching beverage best illustrates
a)
the spillover effect.
b)
drive reduction.
c)
the behavior feedback effect.
d)
the settling point.
43.
Victims of a famine will often eat unappetizing and nutritionally poor foods simply to relieve their constant hunger. Their behavior is best explained by the
a)
arousal theory.
b)
two-factor theory.
c)
drive-reduction theory.
d)
James-Lange theory.
44.
Positive and negative environmental stimuli that motivate behavior are called
a)
needs.
b)
incentives.
c)
set points.
d)
drives.
45.
Which theory would be most helpful for explaining why people are motivated to watch horror movies?
a)
James-Lange theory
b)
drive-reduction theory
c)
Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory
d)
arousal theory
46.
The most basic or lowest-level need in Maslow's hierarchy of human needs includes the need for
a)
self-esteem.
b)
love and friendship.
c)
religious fulfillment.
d)
food and water.
47.
The set point is
a)
the state of arousal that triggers hunger.
b)
the body temperature of a healthy organism, for example, 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit in humans.
c)
the point at which energy output from exercise and from metabolism are equal.
d)
the specific body weight maintained automatically by most adults over long periods of time.
48.
Basal metabolic rate is the body's resting rate of
a)
drive reduction.
b)
insulin secretion.
c)
energy output.
d)
homeostasis.
49.
In addition to secreting orexin, the ________ monitors levels of the body's other appetite hormones.
a)
hippocampus
b)
amygdala
c)
cerebellum
d)
hypothalamus
50.
By highlighting the ecology of eating, psychologists focus on the fact that food consumption often depends on
a)
a hierarchy of needs.
b)
appetite hormones.
c)
the spillover effect.
d)
situational influences.
51.
When offered as many servings of ice cream as they would like to eat, people are likely to eat more if they are
a)
given small rather than large serving bowls out of which they can eat.
b)
offered servings from a wide variety rather than a small variety of ice cream flavors.
c)
eating the servings of ice cream with smaller rather than larger spoons.
d)
eating the servings of ice cream alone rather than in the presence of others.
52.
Obesity is defined as
a)
a body weight 30 percent higher than one's normal set point.
b)
a regular daily consumption of over 3000 calories.
c)
a body mass index of 30 or more.
d)
a basal metabolic rate 30 percent lower than average for people of similar height.
53.
A dieter whose weight falls below his or her set point is likely to experience a(n)
a)
increase in hunger and an increase in metabolic rate.
b)
increase in hunger and a decrease in metabolic rate.
c)
decrease in hunger and a decrease in metabolic rate.
d)
decrease in hunger and an increase in metabolic rate.
54.
If your close friend becomes obese, the odds of you likewise becoming obese increase. This best illustrates the impact of ________ on obesity.
a)
drive reduction
b)
the set point
c)
homeostasis
d)
social influence
55.
Eating food more ________ leads to eating less food. This is especially true for ________.
a)
slowly; women
b)
rapidly; women
c)
slowly; men
d)
rapidly; men
56.
Leiko is more afraid of being alone than of remaining in a physically abusive relationship with her boyfriend. This best illustrates the potentially harmful impact of ________ needs.
a)
self-transcendence
b)
belongingness
c)
sexual
d)
safety
57.
Self-esteem is especially likely to be threatened by the experience of
a)
drive reduction.
b)
self-transcendence.
c)
the spillover effect.
d)
ostracism.
58.
Social networking sites are mostly ________ our connections with people we already know. Face-to-face conversation with family and friends appears to be a ________ predictor of life satisfaction than electronic networking.
a)
strengthening; worse
b)
weakening; better
c)
strengthening; better
d)
weakening; worse
59.
The James-Lange theory of emotion states that
a)
to experience emotion is to be aware of our physiological responses to an emotion-arousing event.
b)
expression of emotion reduces our level of physiological arousal.
c)
an emotion-arousing stimulus simultaneously triggers both physiological arousal and the subjective experience of emotion.
d)
to experience emotion we must be physically aroused and able to cognitively label the emotion.
60.
The idea that an emotion-arousing stimulus is simultaneously routed to the cortex and to the sympathetic nervous system is central to the
a)
James-Lange theory.
b)
drive-reduction theory.
c)
two-factor theory.
d)
Cannon-Bard theory.
61.
The two-factor theory of emotion was proposed by
a)
Walter Cannon and Philip Bard.
b)
Robert Zajonc and Richard Lazarus.
c)
William James and Carl Lange.
d)
Stanley Schachter and Jerome Singer.
62.
According to the two-factor theory, the two basic components of emotions are ________ and ________.
a)
facial expressions; a cognitive label
b)
emotion-arousing events; physical arousal
c)
physical arousal; overt behavior
d)
a cognitive label; physical arousal
63.
Unlike simple fears that involve automatic processing, complex feelings of love and hatred typically involve
a)
bodily arousal.
b)
drive reduction.
c)
conscious interpretation.
d)
homeostasis.
64.
Heart rate, blood pressure, and blood sugar levels are increased in times of emergency by
a)
the parasympathetic nervous system.
b)
stress hormones.
c)
the immune system.
d)
glucose.
65.
The right frontal cortex is more active than the left frontal cortex when people experience
a)
pride.
b)
joy.
c)
disgust.
d)
love.
66.
A polygraph examination of a suspected murderer included an assessment of his reaction to a detailed description of the victim's clothing and death wounds�details that would be known only to a person at the scene of the crime. The investigators were using the
a)
settling point.
b)
facial feedback effect.
c)
guilty knowledge test.
d)
spillover effect.
67.
Chiana and her husband both want to feel and express greater warmth and affection for each other. They would be best advised to spend time looking intently at each other's
a)
eyes.
b)
lips.
c)
hand gestures.
d)
body postures.
68.
The facial expressions associated with particular emotions are
a)
learned in early childhood.
b)
different in Eastern and Western cultures.
c)
very similar throughout the world.
d)
more similar in adults than they are in children or adolescents.
69.
People experience a mood shift when they switch from taking short, shuffling steps to taking long strides and swinging their arms by their sides. This best illustrates
a)
drive reduction.
b)
the spillover effect.
c)
the behavior feedback effect.
d)
narcissism.
70.
Our body tries to maintain a balanced physiological state called
a)
homeostasis
b)
equilibrium
c)
self-actualization
d)
secondary satisfaction
71.
Shaping is
a)
a pattern of responses that must be made before classical conditioning is completed
b)
rewarding behaviors that get closer and closer to the desired goal behavior
c)
completing a set of behaviors in succession before a reward is given
d)
inhibition of new learning by previous learning
72.
A___________is anything that increases behavior
a)
Punishment
b)
Response
c)
Reinforcer
d)
Negative punishment
73.
this psychologist ran a study with children and modeled behavior using a bobo-doll.
a)
Albert Schlansky
b)
John Watson
c)
Edward Toleman
d)
Albert Bandura
74.
Following a rest period, this is when a conditioned response returns despite a lack of further conditioning
a)
spontaneous recovery
b)
discrimination
c)
acquisition
d)
law of effect
75.
This man worked with cats in a puzzle box and developed the law of effect.
a)
Edward Thorndike
b)
B F Skinner
c)
Pavlov
76.
This is when we guide a creature toward the behavior by rewarding behavior that comes closer and closer to the desired behavior.
a)
shaping
b)
discrimination
c)
primary reinforcer
d)
viable interval
77.
Which is being described below?
adding something unpleasant / aversive.
adding something unpleasant / aversive.
a)
positive punishment
b)
positive reinforcement
c)
negative punishment
d)
negative reinforcement
78.
Which is being described below?
taking away something pleasant / desired
taking away something pleasant / desired
a)
positive punishment
b)
positive reinforcement
c)
negative punishment
d)
negative reinforcement
79.
Which of the following is being described below
watching what happens when other people do a behavior and learning from their experiences
watching what happens when other people do a behavior and learning from their experiences
a)
observational learning
b)
mirroring
c)
modeling
d)
vicarious conditioning
80.
Which of the following is being described below
experiencing indirectly, through others
experiencing indirectly, through others
a)
observational learning
b)
mirroring
c)
modeling
d)
vicarious conditioning
81.
Frequent flyer program: getting a free flight after accumulating 1000 flight miles.
a)
Fixed Interval
b)
Fixed Ratio
c)
Variable Interval
d)
Variable Ratio
82.
Selling Girl Scout cookies door to door
a)
Fixed Interval
b)
Fixed Ratio
c)
Variable Interval
d)
Variable Ratio
83.
Watching for shooting stars
a)
Fixed Interval
b)
Fixed Ratio
c)
Variable Interval
d)
Variable Ratio
84.
A toddler is given a cookie after saying “please”
a)
Positive Reinforcement
b)
Positive Punishment
c)
Negative Reinforcement
d)
Negative Punishment
85.
An student is yelled at by a teacher for being late. The student is no longer late.
a)
Positive Reinforcement
b)
Positive Punishment
c)
Negative Reinforcement
d)
Negative Punishment
86.
Getting a candy bar after putting money into a vending machine
a)
Positive Reinforcement
b)
Positive Punishment
c)
Negative Reinforcement
d)
Negative Punishment
87.
you take medicine to make your headache go away
a)
positive reinforcement
b)
negative reinforcement
88.
the states that "rewarded behavior is likely to occur again, and punished is less likely to occur again"
a)
learning
b)
classical conditioning
c)
law of effect
d)
law of cats
89.
you put on your seatbelt to make your car stop beeping
a)
positive reinforcement
b)
negative reinforcement
c)
conditioned reinforcement
d)
unconditioned reinforcement
90.
What is a reinforcer?
a)
Anything that decreases the frequency of a behavior
b)
Anything that the subject likes
c)
Anything that the subject will work for
d)
Anything that follows a behavior and increases the frequency of a behavior
91.
Marie works in a dress factory where she earns $10 for each three dresses she hems. Marie is paid on a
a)
variable ratio
b)
fixed interval
c)
fixed ratio
d)
variable interval
92.
Your teenaged daughter has not cleaned her room in a month. You go in and begin yelling at her to clean her room. She begins to clean up, and you stop yelling. Your daughter's cleaning behavior can be viewed as responding to
a)
classical conditioning
b)
positive reinforcement
c)
punishers
d)
negative reinforcement
93.
Slot machines work on a _____ reinforcement schedule
a)
fixed ratio
b)
variable ratio
c)
variable interval
d)
fixed interval
94.
Charlie gets paid on the 15th of every month. He is reinforced on a ___ schedule
a)
fixed ratio
b)
fixed interval
c)
variable interval
d)
variable ratio
95.
Parents say, “I’m taking away your phone because you failed Chemistry.” Parents are using
a)
positive punishment
b)
negative punishment
c)
positive reinforcement
d)
classical conditioning
96.
When adolescents were asked about their major concerns for their future, top answers on their lists were getting married, having friends, getting a job, and doing well in school. Each of these concerns involves the ability to understand abstract thought and concepts. According to Jean Piaget, what stage of cognitive learning is this?
a)
Sensorimotor
b)
Preoperational
c)
Operational
d)
Formal operational
97.
A failure to develop a consistent identity results in:
a)
Role confusion
b)
Inferiority
c)
Insecurity
d)
Social isolation
98.
Changing one's own behavior and attitudes to fit with the group
a)
cognitive dissonance
b)
conformity
c)
attitude adaptability
d)
reactive formation
99.
Which is NOT a development issue during adolescence?
a)
loneliness or rejection
b)
motor development
c)
crime or drug/alcohol abuse
d)
eating disorders
100.
Adolescents usually form their early identities based on the roles and expectations of
a)
parents
b)
siblings
c)
friends
d)
tv show characters
101.
According to Erikson, what is the major conflict faced during adolescence?
a)
Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
b)
Intimacy vs. Isolation
c)
Identity vs. Role Confusion
d)
Generativity vs. Stagnation
102.
The time period between childhood and adulthood that includes physical, social, emotional and mental changes is called:
a)
Puberty
b)
Maturity
c)
Adolescence
d)
Rebellion
103.
Time during adolescence when the reproductive system begins to mature and physical changes occur.
a)
Menstruation
b)
Puberty
c)
Maturation
d)
Transformation
104.
Robert Havighurst believed adolescents must:
a)
Complete a series of tasks
b)
Fall in love
c)
Graduate college
d)
Find a summer job
105.
What part of the body is where puberty begins?
a)
thyroid
b)
Brain
c)
ovaries
d)
testes
106.
The master gland is called
a)
thyroid gland
b)
pituitary gland
c)
adrenal gland
d)
pancreas
107.
Occurs when fulfilling the expectations of one role causes difficulty in fulfilling the expectations of another role
a)
organic solidarity
b)
nomadism
c)
role strain
d)
role conflict
108.
The four primary agents of socialization in the U.S. are
a)
family, work, religion, peers
b)
school, parents, heredity, culture
c)
family, school, peer group, mass media
d)
mass media, family, school, culture
109.
Theoretical perspective that focusses on those forces in society that promote competition and change
a)
symbolic interactionism
b)
functionalism
c)
conflict
d)
narcissism
110.
Jaywalking would be considered ______________ in sociology.
a)
Stigma
b)
Primary Deviance
c)
Taboo
d)
Secondary Deviance
111.
Choose the statement that best defines “deviance”
a)
behavior that departs from societal norms
b)
behavior that meets social expectations
c)
behavior that conforms to authority
d)
an affirmation of the need for norms
112.
Which theory states that society creates deviance by identifying particular members as deviant
a)
Stigma
b)
Labeling Theory
c)
Anomie
d)
Differential association theory
113.
What is all of the shared products of human groups
a)
Culture
b)
History
c)
Society
d)
Heredity
114.
The system of glands throughout the body that regulate body functions
a)
Endocrine System
b)
Gland
c)
Hormones
d)
Pituitary Gland
115.
The stage of life between childhood and adulthood,
usually beginning somewhere between the ages of 11 and 15 is....
usually beginning somewhere between the ages of 11 and 15 is....
a)
Puberty
b)
Adolescence
c)
Childhood
d)
Stages of Life
116.
A gland that signals other endocrine glands to produce hormones when needed. It is known as the Master Gland.
a)
Testes
b)
Pituitary Gland
c)
Ovaries
d)
Thyroid
117.
Chemical substances produced in certain glands that help to regulate the way your body functions
a)
Pituitary Gland
b)
Hormones
c)
Testosterone
d)
Estrogen
118.
Hormone responsible for physical changes in females
a)
Estrogen
b)
Testosterone
c)
Pituitary Gland
119.
A female hormone other than Estrogen
a)
Progesterone
b)
Estrogen
c)
Testosterone
d)
FSH
120.
A group of cells, or an organ, that secretes a chemical substance/hormones is.....
a)
Hormone
b)
Endocrine System
c)
Gland
121.
Pursuit of thinness through starvation
a)
Anorexia nervosa
b)
Bulimia nervosa
c)
Bingeing
d)
Purging
122.
Uses bingeing and purging pattern. Linked to both depression & low self-esteem.
a)
Anorexia nervosa
b)
Bulimia nervosa
c)
Binge-eating disorder
d)
Don't pick me, this is not the correct answer
123.
Involves consuming large amounts of food.
a)
anorexia nervosa
b)
bulimia nervosa
c)
bingeing
d)
purging
124.
Self-induced method of expelling food by vomiting or laxatives.
a)
anorexia nervosa
b)
bulimia nervosa
c)
bingeing
d)
purging
125.
Part of the brain responsible for emotions & aggression ___________.
a)
Amygdala
b)
Hippocampus
c)
Thalamus
d)
Brainstem
126.
According to Erikson the personality conflict for teens is ______.
a)
Industry vs. Inferiority
b)
Identity vs. Role confusion
c)
Intimacy vs. Isolation
d)
Initiative vs. guilt
127.
Encouraging a friend to study more often or study with them to prepare for an exam would be considered _________ peer pressure.
a)
Negative
b)
Positive
c)
It's not peer pressure at all.
d)
That's what friends do!
128.
This develops when the body becomes reliant on the presence of a drug in the system to properly function.
a)
Substance abuse
b)
Physical dependency
c)
Psychological dependency
d)
I'm not the correct answer.
129.
This develops when a person uses a drug for the feelings it causes. They feel they need the drug to feel "normal".
a)
I'm the wrong answer
b)
Substance abuse
c)
Physical dependency
d)
Psychological dependency
130.
When peers attend scheduled activities in a mixed group setting. Could be planned or unplanned. Less pressure and allows friendships to be formed.
a)
Stage 1- group dating
b)
Stage 2- casual dating
c)
Stage 3- steady dating
d)
No clue, b/c I don't date or I didn't complete the vocabulary
131.
When two people enjoy spending time together. It may also be "random" dating. Not a committed, serious relationship.
a)
Stage 1- group dating
b)
Stage 2- casual dating
c)
Stage 3- steading dating
d)
Where we going on the date??
132.
When two people enjoy spending time together. It may also be "random" dating. Not a committed, serious relationship.
a)
Stage 1- group dating
b)
Stage 2- casual dating
c)
Stage 3- steading dating
d)
Where we going on the date??
133.
Transforming process of changing from children to adults is considered.
a)
infancy
b)
school age
c)
adolescence
d)
Have no clue
134.
Adolescence usually begins between the ages of:
a)
8-12
b)
12-15
c)
15-18
d)
over 18
135.
The sex group (masculine or feminine) to which an individual biologically belongs
a)
androgynous
b)
gender stereotype
c)
gender role
d)
gender identity
136.
Father of behaviorism; Baby Albert experiment - classically conditioned fear
a)
B.F. Skinner
b)
John Watson
c)
Lawrence Kohlberg
d)
Erik Erikson
137.
In classical conditioning, the UR:
a)
happens after the CR
b)
is the response to the CS.
c)
is the response to the US
d)
triggers the US to occur.
138.
Which of the following is an unconditioned response?
a)
clapping after a thrilling concert performance
b)
jumping rope
c)
running through a maze to get a food reward
d)
sweating in hot weather
139.
Learning is defined as
a)
any behavior emitted by an organism without being elicited
b)
A changed in the behavior of the organism
c)
A relatively permanent change in the behavior of an organism due to experience
d)
Behavior based on operant rather than respondent conditioning
140.
Who taught dogs to salivate when they heard a bell?
a)
John B. Watson
b)
B.F. Skinner
c)
Ivan Pavlov
d)
Edward L. Thorndike
141.
The conditioned stimulus (CS):
a)
is the response to the US.
b)
is originally the neutral stimulus that gains the power to cause the CR.
c)
triggers an unconditioned response reflexively or automatically when the CR happens.
d)
is what triggers the US to occur.
142.
The conditioned response (CR) is the usually the same as the
a)
CS
b)
US
c)
UR
d)
CR
143.
Once Pavlov's dogs learned to salivate to the sound of a bell, the bell was a(n)
a)
unconditioned stimulus
b)
neutral stimulus
c)
conditioned stimulus
d)
unconditioned response
144.
In the original Pavlov study, the unconditioned stimulus was
a)
salivation to meat
b)
meat
c)
bell
d)
salivation to bell
145.
The gradual disappearance of a conditioned response is
a)
Modeling
b)
extinction
c)
A token economy
d)
Cognitive learning
146.
Shaping is
a)
a pattern of responses that must be made before classical conditioning is completed
b)
rewarding behaviors that get closer and closer to the desired goal behavior
c)
completing a set of behaviors in succession before a reward is given
d)
inhibition of new learning by previous learning
147.
John loves to fish. He puts his line in the water and leaves it there until he feels a tug. On what reinforcement schedule is he rewarded?
a)
continuous reinforcement
b)
variable interval
c)
fixed ratio
d)
variable ratio
148.
What is a reinforcer?
a)
Anything that decreases the frequency of a behavior
b)
Anything that the subject likes
c)
Anything that the subject will work for
d)
Anything that follows a behavior and increases the frequency of a behavior
149.
Which of the following is a primary reinforcer for humans?
a)
Money
b)
A book
c)
The sound of a bell
d)
Food
150.
Who developed the "law of effect?"
a)
Edward Thorndike
b)
Ivan Pavlov
c)
B. F. Skinner
d)
John B. Watson
151.
In operant conditioning, a reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response only after a specified number of responses:
a)
Fixed-ratio
b)
Variable-ratio
c)
Fixed-interval
d)
Variable-interval
152.
Money is this type of reinforcer
a)
primary
b)
secondary
c)
positive
d)
negative
153.
This type of punishment takes away a desirable stimulus
a)
positive punishment
b)
negative punishment
c)
primary punishment
d)
secondary punishment
154.
You get paid for doing your job
a)
positive reinforcement
b)
negative reinforcement
155.
The addition of something unpleasant
a)
Postive reinforcement
b)
Negative Reinforcement
c)
Positive Punishment
d)
Neutral Stimulus
156.
Requires a random amount of time to elapse before giving the reinforcement
a)
Variable ratio
b)
Variable interval
c)
fixed ratio
d)
fixed interval
157.
Which of the following best reflects negative reinforcement?
a)
Teresa is scolded when she runs through the house yelling.
b)
Greg changes his math class so he doesn't have to see his old girlfriend.
c)
Aditya is raised for having the best essay in class.
d)
Alex takes the wrong medicine and gets violently ill afterward.
158.
Who created the Operant Conditioning Chamber?
a)
Edward Tolman
b)
John Garcia
c)
BF Skinner
d)
Ivan Pavlov
159.
Parents say, “I’m taking away your phone because you failed Chemistry.” Parents are using
a)
positive punishment
b)
negative punishment
c)
positive reinforcement
d)
classical conditioning
160.
Define Unconditioned reflex
a)
A form of learning
b)
A stimulus that produced the response in an unconditioned reflex
c)
A reflex that occurs naturally without any prior learning
d)
A response that has been learned
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