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Anatomy S2 Study Guide

Total questions: 244

Worksheet time: 4hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the three (3) main parts of the nervous system?

a)

cerebellum, cerebrum, medulla

b)

cochlea, nerves, vestibule

c)

brain, spinal cord, nerves

2.

Which neurons act to connect a sensory neuron to a motor neuron?

a)

interneuron

b)

afferent

c)

efferent

d)

motor

3.

Which letter represents the "cervical region" of the spinal cord and vertebral column?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

4.

Which letter represents the "thoracic region" of the spinal cord and vertebral column?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

E

5.

Which letter represents the "lumbar region" of the spinal cord and vertebral column?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

6.

Which lobe is known for “higher-cognitive functions" like problem solving and decision making?

a)

Frontal Lobe

b)

Parietal Lobe

c)

Temporal Lobe

d)

Occipital Lobe

7.

Which lobe is responsible for hearing, selective attention, and language comprehension?

a)

Frontal Lobe

b)

Temporal Lobe

c)

Parietal Lobe

d)

Occipital Lobe

8.
Which lobe is primarily responsible for processing and relaying visual cues from the eyes?
a)
Frontal Lobe
b)
Temporal Lobe
c)
Parietal Lobe
d)
Occipital Lobe
9.

Which part of the brain controls messages between the cerebrum and the spinal cord. Also maintains vital signs such as breathing and heart beat

a)

Parietal Lobe

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Brain Stem

d)

Pons

10.
The ____________ is the main pathway for information connecting the brain and the peripheral nervous system?
a)
Spinal Cord
b)
Brain Stem
c)
Cerebellum
d)
Frontal Lobe
11.

What is deep brain structure in the Temporal Lobe concerned with maintaining homeostasis?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Hippocampus

c)

Amygdala

d)

Neocortex

12.

What is the deep structure of the brain in the Temporal Lobe important for moving information from short-term memory to long-term memory so we can learn?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Hippocampus

c)

Amygdala

d)

Basal ganglia

13.

What deep structure of the brain in the Temporal Lobe is responsible for intense emotion of fear and anger?

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Hippocampus

c)

Amygdala

d)

Midbrain

14.
What is protected by the vertebral column?
a)
Ligaments
b)
Spinal cord
c)
Muscles
d)
The brain stem
15.

What is the largest part of the brain?

a)

Thalamus

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Spinal Cord

d)

Cerebrum

16.
What letter represents the Frontal Lobe?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
17.
What letter represents the Temporal Lobe?
a)
B
b)
C
c)
D
d)
F
18.
What letter represents the Occipital Lobe?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
F
19.
What letter represents the Parietal Lobe?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
E
20.
What letter represents the Cerebellum?
a)
A
b)
E
c)
F
d)
D
21.
What is the fluid in the space between the meninges that acts as a shock absorber to the brain and spinal cord called? 
a)
Blood-Brain Barrier
b)
Meninges
c)
Cerebrospinal Fluid
d)
Cerebral Cortex
22.

Paralysis of the lower extremities is __________.

a)

paraplegia

b)

hemiplegia

c)

diplegia

d)

quadriplegia

23.

Quadriplegia means the patient is paralyzed from

a)

the neck down

b)

the waist down

c)

only the legs

d)

isn't paralyzed at all

24.

The five regions of the spine are:

a)

Vetebrae,Lumbar,

Thoracic

Sacrum,

Coccygeal

b)

Fascicle, Lumbar, Sacrum, Thoracic, Pericardiac

c)

Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, Sacrum, Coccygeal

d)

Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, Sacrum, Pharyngeal

25.
The spinal cord ends at the _________ vertebra
a)
cervical
b)
thoracic
c)
lumbar
d)
coccyx or coccygeal
26.
Which reflex is shown in the
a)
Babinski
b)
Pupillary
c)
Withdrawl
d)
Knee-Jerk
27.
Which reflex is shown in the
a)
Babinski
b)
Pupillary
c)
Withdrawl
d)
Baroreceptor
28.

Place these vertebrae in order from top to bottom:

A. coccygeal

B. thoracic

C. lumbar

a)

B C A

b)

A B C

c)

B A C

d)

A C B

29.

What part of the brain stem controls heart rate, blood pressure, and digestion and is also responsible for reflexes like vomiting, sneezing, and coughing?

a)

Midbrain

b)

Pons

c)

Medulla

d)

Hypothalamus

30.

Which part of the brain controls breathing?

a)

cerebrum

b)

cerebellum

c)

brain stem

d)

corpus callosum

31.

Which part of the brain controls balance?

a)

cerebrum

b)

cerebellum

c)

brain stem

d)

corpus callosum

32.
What letter represents the Brain Stem?
a)
E
b)
D
c)
C
d)
B
33.
Neurons that transmit impulses the the CNS are called
a)
neuoglia
b)
sensory
c)
efferent
d)
association
34.

Effectors may be all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

cardiac muscle

b)

glands

c)

smooth muscles

d)

sensory cells

35.
What is the central nervous system (CNS) made up of?
a)
brain & spinal cord
b)
sensory neurons
c)
motor neurons
d)
sensory receptors
36.

Division of the ANS that is rest & digest

a)

sympathetic

b)

parasympathetic

37.

Division of the ANS that increases heart rate.

a)

sympathetic

b)

parasympathetic

38.

Division of the ANS that deals with the big meal you just ate.

a)

sympathetic

b)

parasympathetic

39.

Division of the ANS that kicks in when you're giving a speech in front of the class.

a)

sympathetic

b)

parasympathetic

40.

Division of the ANS that is associated with the experience of a broken bone or other injury.

a)

sympathetic

b)

parasympathetic

41.

What is definition of autonomic?

a)

The neutrons detect a stimulus

b)

Controls involuntary actions

c)

The muscles respond

d)

A reaction to stimulus

42.
The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are subdivisions of the
a)
central nervous system
b)
peripheral nervous system 
c)
autonomic nervous system
d)
somatic nervous system
43.

Which one of the following is directly controlled by the somatic nervous system:

a)

smooth muscle

b)

cardiac muscle

c)

skeletal muscle

d)

abdominal muscles

44.

The "fight or flight" response during threatening situations is the role of the:

a)

sympathetic nervous system

b)

parasympathetic system

c)

somatic nervous system

d)

cerebellum

45.

The neurotransmitter(s) that are released during fight or flight is(are):

a)

acetylcholine only

b)

acetylcholine and norepinephrine

c)

norepinephrine only

d)

serotonin and melatonin

46.
The digestive organs are activated by which nerve during parasympathetic systems?
a)
occulomotor nerve
b)
facial nerve
c)
vagus nerve
d)
glossopharyngeal nerve
47.
Release of epinephrine
a)
parasympathetic
b)
sympathetic
48.

Neurotransmitters are _____________ that travel across the ____________ to another cell.

a)

electrical signals; receptors

b)

electrical signals; synapse

c)

chemicals; receptors

d)

chemicals; synapse

49.

What cranial nerves contain parasympathetic nerves?

a)

CN III, CN VII, S1, S2

b)

CN X, CN VII, CN III

c)

CN IX, CN X, CN VI, CN III

d)

Occulomotor, S2, S3, Hypoglossal

50.

Which is true of the parasympathetic nervous system?

a)

Short preganglionic neuron / Long postganglionic neuron

b)

Synapse near the spinal cord

c)

Long preganglionic neuron / Short postganglionic neuron

d)

Arises from C1-C6

51.

Which is true of the sympathetic nervous system?

a)

Short preganglionic neuron / Long postganglionic neuron

b)

Synapse near the spinal cord

c)

Long preganglionic neuron / Short postganglionic neuron

d)

Arises from C1-C6

52.

Term describes most vital organs receiving instructions from both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions

a)

fight and flight

b)

dual innervation

c)

efferent and afferent

d)

rest and digest

53.

What is the location of adrenergic receptors?

a)

Effector organs of the parasympathetic

b)

Sympathetic chain ganglia

c)

Collateral ganglia

d)

Sympathetic effector organs

54.

Which neuron is adrenergic?

a)

Post-ganglionic sympathetic

b)

Pre-ganglionic sympathetic

c)

Post-ganglionic parasympathetic

d)

Pre-ganglionic parasympathetic

55.

All pre-ganglionic neurons of the ANS are _______________ neurons.

a)

cholinergic

b)

adrenergic

56.

A postganglionic neuron of the sympathetic division releases ______________ so it is an ________________ receptor.

a)

Acetylcholine, cholinergic

b)

Acetylcholine, adrenergic

c)

Norepinephrine, adrenergic

d)

Norepinephrine, cholinergic

57.

Cholinergic receptors are:

a)

beta

b)

alpha

c)

muscarinic

d)

nicotinic

58.

A beta 1 receptor is found on the

a)

heart

b)

stomach

c)

lungs

d)

adipose tissue

59.

A beta 2 receptor is found on the

a)
b)
c)
d)
60.

Preganglionic cell bodies in the sympathetic nervous system are located in the

a)

cervical spinal cord

b)

thoracolumbar spinal cord

c)

sacral spinal cord

d)

basal ganglia

61.

Postganglionic nerve cell bodies in the parasympathetic nervous system are located in the

a)

sacral spinal cord

b)

basal ganglia

c)

ganglia in or near target organs

d)

thoracolumbar spinal cord

62.

A drug that causes effects similar to the activation of the sympathetic nervous system; increases heart rate, force of cardiac contraction and blood pressure,

a)

parasympathomiometic

b)

parasympatholytic

c)

sympathomiometic

d)

sympathomiolytic

63.

A drug that causes effects that are similar to a situation where the sympathetic nervous system cannot be activated; prevents increase in cardiac activity,

a)

parasympathomiometic

b)

parasympatholytic

c)

sympathomiometic

d)

sympathomiolytic

64.

A maintaining of nerve background level of activity so you can increase or decrease activity when needed

a)

vasomotor tone

b)

autonomic tone

c)

singing tone

d)

muscle tone

65.

A "sympathetic tone" sympathetically-induced, continuous state of blood vessel constriction

a)

vasomotor tone

b)

autonomic tone

c)

singing tone

d)

muscle tone

66.

The axon of neuron 2 leaves the ganglion and extends to the organ

a)

cholinergic fiber

b)

postgangliionic fiber

c)

preganglionic fiber

d)

adrenergic fiber

67.

A fiber that secretes norepinephrine (NE) as its neurotransmitter

a)

cholinergic fiber

b)

postgangliionic fiber

c)

preganglionic fiber

d)

adrenergic fiber

68.

Neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system leave the CNS at the level of the brain stem and sacrum (S2 to S4)

a)

cholinergic fiber

b)

postgangliionic fiber

c)

preganglionic fiber

d)

adrenergic fiber

69.

Neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system leave the CNS at the level of the brain stem and sacrum (S2 to S4)

a)

thoracolumbar outflow

b)

craniosacral outflow

70.

A type of cholinergic receptor; located on target organs; stimulated by muscarine, not by nicotine; blocked by atropin.

a)

muscarinic receptors

b)

nicotinic receptors

c)

alpha-adrenergic receptors

71.

Located on target organs; when stimulated, can cause an increase in the force of contraction of the heart, an increased heart rate, and bronchial dilation.

a)

muscarinic receptors

b)

nicotinic receptors

c)

alpha-adrenergic receptors

d)

beta-adrenergic receptors

72.

A drug that activates a receptor.

a)

agonist

b)

antagonist

c)

protagonist

d)

protist

73.

What two neurotransmitters are released from the ANS?

a)

ACh

b)

Dopamine

c)

Norepinephrine (NE)

d)

Aceytalpine

74.

What is another name for the sympathetic division?

a)

Craniosacral division

b)

Parasympathetic division

c)

Thoracolumbar division

d)

Autonomic division

75.

What is another name for the parasympathetic division?

a)

Craniosacral division

b)

Parasympathetic division

c)

Thoracolumbar division

d)

Autonomic division

76.

What is not a differences between the sympathetic and parasympathetic?

a)

Sites of origin

b)

Their autonomous nature

c)

Location of ganglia

d)

Relative length of fibers

77.

Which part of a neuron has the nucleus and cell organelles?

a)

axon

b)

dendrite

c)

cell body

d)

axon terminal

78.

A nerve fiber that carries impulses toward the cell body of a neuron is a/an ________________.

a)

dendrite

b)

axon

c)

neuron

d)

myelin

79.
Sensory neurons that carry messages from all parts of the body to the brain and spinal cord are ________. 
a)
afferent
b)
efferent
c)
connecting
d)
mixed
80.
Which cell transmits an impulse from the brain to the muscles in order to respond to a situation?
a)
sensory neuron
b)
motor neuron
c)
axon neuron
d)
dendrite neuron
81.
The part of the neuron that conducts the action potentials is the:
a)
Axon
b)
Dendrite
c)
Axon Terminal
d)
Cell Body
82.

The neurotransmitter most associated with rewards and motivation is:

a)

Dopamine

b)

Serotonin

c)

GABA

d)

Adrenaline

83.

Which event characterizes repolarization?

a)

Na+ rushing into the axon

b)

K+ rushing out of the axon

c)

Ca++ rushing into the axon

d)

Activation of Na/K pumps

84.
Which of the following are the two components of the central nervous system (CNS)?
a)
brain and spinal cord
b)
brain and cranial nerves
c)
spinal cord and spinal nerves
d)
cranial nerves and spinal nerves
85.
A body system that controls and coordinates all body activities through electric impulses/messages between brain, spinal cord and nerves.
a)
endocrine system 
b)
nervous system
c)
nerve
d)
neuron
86.
The two divisions of the nervous system.
a)
The brain and spinal cord
b)
The central nervous and peripheral nervous system 
c)
The neurons and the dendrites
d)
The cerebrum and the medulla
87.

Which part of the neuron is myelinated?

a)

Cell Body

b)

Axon

c)

Synapse

d)

Dendrite

88.

The ______________ is the basic building block of the nervous system.

a)

soma

b)

neuron

c)

axon

d)

terminal

89.

What are the gaps in the myelin sheath called?

a)

Nodes of Schwann cell

b)

Nodes of Ranvier

c)

Oligodendrocytes

d)

Axon Terminals

90.
Which is the correct nerve pathway?
a)
dendrite -> axon -> cell body -> synapse -> dendrite
b)
dendrite -> cell body -> axon -> synapse -> dendrite
c)
axon -> cell body -> dendrite -> synapse -> axon
d)
axon -> cell body -> dendrite -> synapse -> axon
91.

Supporting glia cells, that provide nutrients and oxygen from near by capillaries are __________________.

a)

astrocyte

b)

oligodendrocytes

c)

microglia

d)

ependymal

92.

Glial cells that are phagocytes, and get rid of debris are _____________.

a)

astrocyte

b)

oligodendrocytes

c)

microglial

d)

ependymal

93.
A person has a stroke on her occipital lobe.  What might happen to her?
a)
reduced planning abilities
b)
deafness
c)
coma
d)
blindness
94.
A tumor on the temporal lobe would most affect the career of 
a)
an architect
b)
a musician
c)
a professor
d)
a researcher
95.

The split-brain procedure involves the cutting of this

a)

Cerebral Cortex

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Corpus Callosum

d)

Caudate Nucleus

96.
Controls heartbeat and breathing
a)
Pons
b)
Medulla
c)
Cerebellum
d)
Thalamus
97.
Known as the "Little Brain" and is in charge of balance and coordinating movements
a)
Thalamus
b)
Reticular Formation
c)
Hypothalamus
d)
Cerebellum
98.
Controls arousal  (sleepiness and awakefulness)
a)
Reticular Formation
b)
Thalamus
c)
Amygdala
d)
Medulla
99.
Wrinkled part of the brain's surface where the body processes information
a)
Forebrain
b)
Cerebral Cortex
c)
Corpus Callosum
d)
Cerebellum
100.
Makes decisions, plans, reasons, and carries out behaviors
a)
Frontal Lobe
b)
Parietal Lobe
c)
Occipital Lobe
d)
Temporal Lobe
101.
Controls hearing, and language comprehension
a)
Frontal Lobe
b)
Temporal Lobe
c)
Occipital Lobe
d)
Parietal Lobe
102.
Processes visual information
a)
Frontal Lobe
b)
Temporal Lobe
c)
Occipital Lobe
d)
Parietal Lobe
103.
A  person has difficulty speaking possibly due to a stroke.
a)
Broca's Aphasia
b)
Wernicke's Aphasia
c)
Visual Agnosia
d)
Neglect Syndrome
104.
What lobe is highlighted in red?
a)
frontal
b)
temporal
c)
occipital
d)
parietal
105.
the red portion is the ________
a)
Cerebrum
b)
Cerebellum
c)
Brain Stem
d)
Diencephalon
106.
What lobe is highlighted in red?
a)
go Patriots
b)
go Falcons
c)
frontal
d)
parietal
107.
Which letter on the illustration represents the temporal lobe? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
108.
Which letter on the illustration represents the frontal lobe? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
109.
The brain contains BILLIONS of these
a)
neurotransmitters
b)
axons
c)
myelin sheath
d)
neurons
110.
the part of the brain that includes the pons, medulla oblongata, and midbrain
a)
thalamus
b)
hypothalamus
c)
brain stem
d)
hippocampus
111.
judgement
a)
temporal lobe
b)
parietal lobe
c)
frontal lobe
d)
brain stem
112.
What is this?
a)
Pons
b)
Medulla Oblongata
c)
Cerebellum
d)
Hypothalamus
113.
The membranes around the brain and spinal cord are called
a)
meninges
b)
ventricles
c)
cerebral spinal fluid
d)
arachnoids
114.

The correct order from outermost layer to innermost layer of the meninges is

a)

pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid mater

b)

arachnoid mater, pia mater, dura mater

c)

dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater

d)

dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater

115.

Which two are part of the diencephalon?

a)

pituitary gland, pons

b)

medulla, pineal gland

c)

hypothalamus, pituitary gland

d)

thalamus, hypothalamus

116.
The four regions of the cerebral cortex are referred to as:
a)
lesions
b)
lobes
c)
pons
d)
corpus callosum
117.

Part of brain that plays a major role in memory

a)

limbic system

b)

hypothalamus

c)

hippocampus

d)

amygdala

118.
The part of the neuron that receives signals is the:
a)
Axon
b)
Dendrite
c)
Axon Terminal
d)
Cell Body
119.
Label the Neuron-What does the letter "D" represent?
a)
Dendrite
b)
Axon
c)
Myelin Sheath
d)
Node of Ranvier
120.
What are the 2 major divisions of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?
a)
Sensory & Motor
b)
Peripheral & Central
c)
Somatic & Autonomic
d)
Brain & Spinal Cord
121.

Released from the pancreas' alpha cells; causes liver to convert glycogen to glucose

a)

Glucagon

b)

Insulin

c)

Estrogen

d)

Adrenaline

122.
This hormone triggers to development of the cells (follicles) around the egg cell
a)
LH
b)
FSH
c)
TSH
d)
ACTH
123.

Released from the pituitary; this hormone helps to regulate the body's water balance

a)

TSH

b)

Oxytocin

c)

Aldosterone

d)

ADH

124.

This hormone regulates the thyroid

a)

Thyroxine

b)

Iodine

c)

TSH

d)

Prolactin

125.
Released from the pituitary, this hormone stimulates uterine contractions during birth.
a)
Prolactin
b)
Steroids
c)
Estrogen
d)
Oxytocin
126.

If you have diabetes, you most likely have a problem with this hormone.

a)

ADH

b)

Glucagon

c)

Insulin

d)

PTH

127.

This hormone is released from the thyroid to stimulate the removal of calcium from the bone; balances the calcium levels in blood when it is too high.

a)

Calcitonin

b)

PTH

c)

T3

d)

Cortisol

128.

This hormone stimulates ovulation in the ovary and testosterone production in the testes.

a)

LH

b)

FSH

c)

Estrogen

d)

GH

129.

ADH targets which part?

a)

Liver

b)

Brain

c)

Kidney

d)

Bladder

130.

The hormone released by the anterior pituitary that promotes lactation

a)

prolactin

b)

oxytocin

c)

luteinizing hormone

d)

follicle-stimulating hormone

131.

Hormones from this gland help the immune system develop during childhood.

a)

Thyroid Gland

b)

Testes

c)

Thymus Gland

d)

Pancreas

132.

These release testosterone, which controls changes in a male's body and regulates sperm production.

a)

Ovaries

b)

Target Cells

c)

Parathyroids

d)

Testes

133.

These release estrogen, which controls changes in a female's body and regulates egg production.

a)

Testes

b)

Hormones

c)

Ovaries

d)

Pancreas

134.

Produces the hormone insulin and glucagon, which controls the level of glucose in the blood.

a)

Thyroid Gland

b)

Pancreas

c)

Thymus Gland

d)

Pituitary Gland

135.

Turns on, turns off, speeds up, slows down the activities of different organs and tissues.

a)

Negative Feedback

b)

Target Cell

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Hormone

136.

These recognize the hormone's chemical structure.

a)

Negative Feedback

b)

Target Cells

c)

Parathyroid Glands

d)

Ovaries

137.

The endocrine system uses this system of turning hormones on and off to maintain homeostasis.

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Thymus

c)

Negative Feedback

d)

Target Cells

138.

When you have a fight or flight response, which gland is activated?

a)

Adrenal Gland

b)

Thymus

c)

Parathyroid

d)

Testes

139.

The pineal gland produces melatonin. Melatonin regulates what?

a)

Urge to urinate

b)

Hunger

c)

Sugar metabolism

d)

Sleep Cycle

e)

All of the above

140.

Where is the pituitary gland located?

a)

Near the ovaries

b)

Base of the skull

c)

Base of the spine

d)

Near the pancreas

141.

Which two systems are responsible for communication within the body?

a)

Circulatory and Nervous

b)

Nervous and Endocrine

c)

Circulatory and Endocrine

d)

Nervous and Lymphatic

e)

Endocrine and Lymphatic

142.
The purpose of the endocrine system is to
a)
maintain homeostasis by reacting quickly to stimuli
b)
produce substances that protect the body from bacteria 
c)
maintain metabolism, growth and development in homeostasis 
d)
transport molecules throughout the body
143.

Which of the following is an example of a positive feedback loop?

a)

regulation of body temperature at 37 degrees Celsius

b)

regulation of blood sugar levels

c)

contractions during childbirth

d)

regulation of water levels in humans

144.
Endocrine glands produce __________ which maintain the body in homeostasis
a)
oils
b)
neurotransmitters 
c)
tears
d)
hormones
145.

These hormones promote secondary sex characteristics in females

a)

testosterone and GH

b)

epinephrine and nor-epinephrine

c)

estrogen and progesterone

d)

prolactin and oxytocin

146.

What endocrine disorder is shown in the photo?

a)

acromegaly

b)

Addison's disease

c)

cretinism

d)

Myxedema

147.

What endocrine disorder is shown in the photo?

a)

Cushing's disease

b)

Addison's disease

c)

cretinism

d)

Myxedema

148.

What endocrine disorder is shown in the photo?

a)

Cushing's disease

b)

Addison's disease

c)

cretinism

d)

Graves' disease

149.

What endocrine disorder is shown in the photo?

a)

Cushing's disease

b)

Addison's disease

c)

cretinism

d)

Graves' disease

150.

What endocrine disorder is shown in the photo?

a)

Cretinism

b)

Gigantism

c)

Dwarfism

d)

Cushing's disease

151.

What endocrine disorder is shown in the photo? (two answers)

a)

hypocalcemia

b)

lockjaw

c)

hypoparathyroidism

d)

diabetes

152.

What endocrine disorder accounts for these diagrammed symptoms?

a)

tetany

b)

hypoglycemia

c)

hypocalcemia

d)

hyperglycemia

153.
What part of blood is responsible for fighting infections?
a)
Red Blood Cells
b)
White Blood Cells
c)
Platelets
d)
Plasma
154.
What part of blood is responsible for carrying oxygen and carbon dioxide to body cells?
a)
Red Blood Cells
b)
White Blood Cells
c)
Platelets
d)
Plasma
155.
What part of blood is responsible for clotting blood?
a)
Red Blood Cells
b)
White Blood Cells
c)
Platelets
d)
Plasma
156.
What blood type is the "universal donor" because it can be donated to anyone?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
AB
d)
O
157.

A person with this blood group type can receive any other type of blood.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

0

158.
What is the average normal pH of blood?
a)
8.4
b)
7.8
c)
7.4
d)
4.7
159.

What is the hormone that stimulates RBC production

a)

Testosterone

b)

Erythropoietin

c)

Estrogen

d)

Thyroxine

160.
What element is necessary for RBCs to carry oxygen?
a)
calcium
b)
iron
c)
sodium
d)
magnesium
161.
What might trigger erythropoiesis?
a)
decreased demand for O2
b)
increased demand for O2 
c)
increased RBCs
d)
moving from high altitude to low altitude
162.
Which blood cells are most abundant in the body?
a)
erythrocytes
b)
platelets
c)
lymphocytes
d)
eosinophils
163.

A persistent and irregular clot in an unbroken blood vessel is known as _______

a)

a thrombus

b)

an embolus

c)

hemophilia

d)

leukopenia

164.
The three step process that stops blood flowing from a cut is called _________
a)
hemostasis
b)
homeostasis
c)
coagulation
d)
agglutination
165.
The three steps of hemostasis are:
1. vascular spasm
2. ___________
3. coagulation
a)
platelet plug formation
b)
agglutination
c)
dilation
d)
erythropoieten formation
166.

A soluble protein present in blood plasma, from which fibrin is produced by the action of the enzyme thrombin.

a)

fibrinogen

b)

albumin

c)

globulin

d)

heoglobin

167.

Scientific name for platelets

a)

leukocytes

b)

erthryocytes

c)

thrombocytes

d)

monocytes

168.
Which of the following is NOT one of the functions blood?
a)
Transport gas, nutrients, waste, & processed molecules
b)
Transport hormones & enzymes
c)
Homeostasis of pH, body temperature, & osmoregulation
d)
Blood cells go through cell division to create more blood cells
169.
The extracellular liquid matrix of blood is called
a)
plasma
b)
erythrocytes
c)
buffy coat
d)
lympocytes
170.
Where does hematopoiesis take place, producing new RBCs?
a)
red bone marrow
b)
yellow bone marrow
c)
synovial membrane
d)
articular cartilage
171.
Antibodies binding to antigens on RBCs causes a clumping known as __________
a)
agglutination
b)
coagulation
c)
clotting cascade
d)
hemolysis
172.
About 91% of blood plasma is
a)
Solutes
b)
Proteins
c)
Red blood cells
d)
Water
173.
Blood type is determined by the antigens.
a)
True
b)
False
174.
Oxygen-transporting protein in red blood cells that gives the cells their characteristic red color.
a)
thrombin
b)
hematocrit
c)
hemoglobin
d)
hemostasis
175.

With Sickle-Cell anemia, the red blood cells have an unusual sickle shape?

a)

True

b)

False

176.
What genetic disorder is when a person's blood clots very slowly or not at all?
a)
Down Syndrome
b)
Hemophilia
c)
Cystic Fibrosis
d)
Sickle-Cell
177.

Process by which phagocytes surround, engulf, and destroy foreign cells.

a)

mononucleosis

b)

Rh factor

c)

hemostasis

d)

phagocytosis

178.
How long do red blood cells live for?
a)
3 days
b)
forever
c)
30 days
d)
120 days
179.
What is deoxygenated blood?
a)
Blood with oxygen in it
b)
Blood without oxygen in it
c)
Blood with carbon monoxide in it
180.
If a red blood cell has antigen A on its surface, what is its blood type?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
AB
d)
O
181.
If a red blood cell has no antigens on its surface, what is its blood type?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
AB
d)
O
182.

Deoxygenated blood is scarlet red.

a)

True

b)

False

183.
Any iron that is not reused is stored by the liver as an orange/yellow pigment called ____.
a)
biliverdin
b)
bilirubin
c)
billy goat
d)
erythropoietin
184.

A(n) ____ is a blood clot that is moving through your blood.

a)

embolus

b)

thrombus

185.

A blood thinner; a naturally occurring anticoagulant produced by basophils and mast cells.

a)

histamine

b)

globulin

c)

thrombin

d)

heparin

186.
Proportion by volume of the blood
a)
hemostasis
b)
hematopoeisis
c)
hematocrit
d)
hemoglobin
187.
Enzyme that causes conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
a)
seratonin
b)
thrombin
c)
hemoglobin
d)
albumin
188.
Present in the pus of wounds
a)
esonophils
b)
neutrophils
c)
basophiles
d)
monocytes
189.

What is the shape of a red blood cell?

a)

biconcave

b)

biconvex

c)

flat

d)

sickle

190.

White Blood Cells

a)

thrombocytes

b)

erthryocytes

c)

monocytes

d)

leukocytes

191.

The plasma protein needed for blood pressure regulation

a)

globulin

b)

albumin

c)

fibrinogen

d)

thrombin

192.

These are clotting blood cells.

a)

Erythrocytes

b)

Thrombocytes

c)

Leukocytes

d)

Plasma

193.
Megakaryotes break up to form...
a)
Erythrocytes
b)
Thrombocytes
c)
Leukocytes
d)
Monocytes
194.
During an acute infection your ______ count will likely _____.
a)
Leukocyte, decrease
b)
Leukocyte, increase
c)
Thrombocyte, decrease
d)
Thrombocyte, increase
195.
This organ is responsible for filtering worn out and damaged Red Blood Cells.
a)
Spleen
b)
Pancreas
c)
Liver
d)
Kidneys
196.
This organ is responsible for filtering nitrogenous waste from the blood.
a)
Spleen
b)
Pancreas
c)
Liver
d)
Kidneys
197.
This organ is responsible for filtering toxins from the blood.
a)
Spleen
b)
Pancreas
c)
Liver
d)
Kidneys
198.
I am the WBC that can leave the blood to fight infections.
a)
Lymphocytes
b)
Basophils
c)
Monocytes
d)
Neutrophils
199.
I am the WBC that will 'eat' allergins and parasites.
a)
Lymphocytes
b)
Basophils
c)
Eosinophils
d)
Neutrophils
200.
I am VERY common compared to other immune cells.  I eat microorganisms such as bacteria I encounter.
a)
Lymphocytes
b)
Basophils
c)
Eosinophils
d)
Neutrophils
201.

How many liters of blood does the human body contain?

a)

1-3 gallons

b)

2-3 liters

c)

4-6 liters

d)

4-6 pints

202.

Which of these is NOT a cause for anemia?

a)

The bone marrow stops making RBCs

b)

Lack of amino acids in the diet

c)

Lack of iron levels

d)

Lack of Vitamin B12 and folate.

203.

The name given to immature red blood cells.

a)

reticulocytes

b)

megakayrocytes

c)

granulocytes

d)

blastocytes

204.
Mike has type O+ blood. Mike can donate blood to someone who is type AB-.
a)
True
b)
False
205.

Overproduction of red blood cells making the blood too thick to move through the blood vessels.

a)

anemia

b)

sickle cell anemia

c)

polycythemia

d)

thromocytopenia

206.

A condition caused by hyperbilirubinemia.

a)

iron deficiency anemia

b)

kernicterus

c)

jaundice

d)

sickle cell anemia

207.

Which of these is NOT a cause for anemia?

a)

The bone marrow stops making RBCs

b)

Lack of amino acids in the diet

c)

Lack of iron levels

d)

Lack of Vitamin B12 and folate.

208.

The name given to immature red blood cells.

a)

reticulocytes

b)

megakayrocytes

c)

granulocytes

d)

blastocytes

209.

Commonly used to treat blood clots such as deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism. Select 2 answers.

a)

warfarin

b)

heparin

c)

cumadine

d)

vitamin K

210.

These drugs are called “clot busters” because they dissolve clots.

a)

vitamin K

b)

hypoprothrombinemia

c)

vitamin A

d)

fibrinolytic agents

211.
This layer encloses the heart
a)
myocardium
b)
pericardium
c)
endocardium
d)
epicardium
212.
The space between the layers of the pericardium that contains fluid to reduce friction
a)
pericardial cavity
b)
epicardium
c)
endocardium
d)
myocardium
213.
One complete heartbeat
a)
ECG
b)
systole
c)
diastole
d)
cardiac cycle
214.
The name of the arteries that feed the heart muscle
a)
capillaries
b)
coronary
c)
chordae tendineae
d)
coronary sinus
215.
The inner layer in the wall of the heart
a)
endocardium
b)
myocardium
c)
epicardium
d)
septum
216.

The fibrous chords that attach to the cusps of the valves

a)

Purkinje fibers

b)

chordae tendineae

c)

papillary muscles

d)

cusps

217.

What is the main organ of the circulatory system?

a)

bladder

b)

heart

c)

veins

d)

arteries

218.
SA node is known by this name as it control the rate of the heartbeat
a)
AV node
b)
Purkinje fibers
c)
SV node
d)
pacemaker
219.
A recording of electrical changes that occur during the cardiac cycle
a)
blood pressure reading
b)
ECG
c)
QRS wave
d)
t Wave
220.

Oxygen-poor blood flows into what atrium?

a)

left

b)

bottom

c)

right

d)

top

221.
What is the aorta?
a)
a muscular tube
b)
regulate blood flow
c)
a small vein
d)
the main artery of the body
222.

The two chambers of the heart which receive blood are known as the _________

a)

atria

b)

ventricles

c)

systemics

d)

pulmonic

223.
The valves between the atria and ventricles are known as the ________ valves.
a)
atrioventricular
b)
aortic
c)
semilunar
d)
pulmonary
224.

Blood leaves the right ventricle through the ___________.

a)

pulmonary artery

b)

aorta

c)

superior vena cava

d)

right atrium

225.
Pulmonary circulation involves blood flow to and from the heart and the _______.
a)
body
b)
digestive organs
c)
brain
d)
lungs
226.

What does letter D represent?

a)

aorta

b)

left atrium

c)

left ventricle

d)

right atrium

227.

What does letter B represent?

a)

aorta

b)

superior vena cava

c)

inferior vena cava

d)

right pulmonary artery

228.
Blood passes from 
a)
ventricle to atria
b)
aorta to pulmonary trunk
c)
atria to ventricle
d)
atria to atria
229.
What carries the oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart?
a)
vena cava 
b)
aorta
c)
pulmonary vein
d)
pulmonary artery
230.

What are the functions of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves?

a)

prevent blood from leaking back into he ventricles

b)

prevent blood from leaking back into the atria

c)

allow blood to flow into the atria

d)

allow blood to leave the ventricles

231.
Which of the following define diastole and systole
a)
systole is the contraction of the heart and diastole is the relaxation of the heart
b)
diastole is the contraction of the heart and systole is the relaxation of the heart
c)
diastole and systole are both contractions of the heart
d)
diastole and systole are both relaxation phases of the heart
232.
What is ECG?
a)
electrocardiogram
b)
a tool that collects electrical changes in the heart muscle
c)
will detect any abnormal rhythm of the heart
d)
all of the above
233.
Freshly oxygenated blood is delivered to the _____________ and then it passes into the  __________ to be pumped to the entire body.
a)
right ventricle; right atrium
b)
left ventricle; left atrium
c)
left atrium; left ventricle
d)
right atrium; right ventricle
234.
The most muscular chamber of the heart is the 
a)
left ventricle
b)
left atrium
c)
right atrium
d)
right ventricle
235.

The role of the atrioventricular node (AV node) is to

a)

initiate a sinus rhythm

b)

conduct impulses to the sinoatrial node (SA node)

c)

initiate ventricular depolarization

d)

slow down impulses so that the atria can contract to fill the adjacent ventricles with blood

236.
The P wave of an ECG represents
a)
atrial repolarization
b)
atrial depolarization
c)
ventricular repolarization
d)
ventricular depolarization
237.

Which part of the ECG corresponds to the repolarization of the ventricle?

a)

P wave

b)

QRS complex

c)

T wave

d)

none of the above

238.
The second heart sound (the dup of the lub-dup) is caused by the
a)
opening of the pulmonary and aortic valves
b)
closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves
c)
closure of the pulmonary and aortic valves
d)
opening of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves
239.

Which valve separates the left atrium from the left ventricle?

a)

tricuspid

b)

mitral

c)

pulmonary

d)

aortic

240.

Place the following in the correct order:

1. atria contract

2. AV node

3. Bundle of His

4. Purkinje fibers

5. SA node

6. ventricles contract

a)

5, 1, 2, 3, 4, 6

b)

2, 1, 5, 3, 4, 6

c)

5, 6, 2, 3, 4, 1

d)

2, 6, 5, 3, 4, 1

241.
The name given to the study of the heart structure and function
a)
cardiology
b)
epidemiology
c)
endocrinology
d)
biology
242.

During diastole, where is the blood pressure higher?

a)

atria

b)

ventricles

c)

aorta

d)

pulmonary arteries

243.

Where is the sinoatrial node located?

a)

right atrium

b)

right ventricle

c)

left atrium

d)

left ventricle

244.

What is pulmonary circulation?

a)

Blood travelling to and from the lungs

b)

Blood travelling to and from the body

c)

A blood clot in the lungs

d)

The vessel that brings blood to the lungs

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