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Biology 1 Final Exam Review

Total questions: 62

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Science is based on

a)

faith

b)

evidence

c)

popularity

d)

observation

2.

How many independent variable(s) should there be in an experiment?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

As many as possible

d)

One per constant

3.

Before controlled experiments, many people believed non-living things could give rise to living things. This was known as

a)

Scientific Method

b)

Cell Theory

c)

Evolution

d)

Spontaneous Generation

4.

When using a compound microscope, how many lenses are you looking through?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Seven

d)

10x

5.

When cells work together to perform a specific function they are known as

a)

Organelles

b)

Cells

c)

Organs

d)

Tissues

6.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of living things?

a)

Respond to Stimuli

b)

Energy Consumption

c)

Contains organelles

d)

Growth and Development

7.

A covalent bond forms when

a)

atoms are shared

b)

elements are transferred

c)

electrons are transferred

d)

electrons are shared

8.

Water is _______________, therefore it cannot easily pass through the _______________ center of the phospholipid bilayer

a)

polar, nonpolar

b)

polar, polar

c)

non-polar, polar

d)

hydrophobic, hydrophobic

9.

All organic compounds contain ______________ because it can make a maximum of _______________ covalent bonds with other atoms.

a)

ATP, 3

b)

Carbon, 4

c)

Proteins, 2

d)

Nitrogen, 3

10.

Cohesion of water molecules is possible because of

a)

Hydrogen Bonding

b)

Covalent Bonding

c)

Capillary Action

d)

Phospholipid Bilayer

11.

Which of the four macromolecules provides a short-term supply of energy and carbon?

a)

Lipids

b)

Nucleic Acids

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Proteins

12.

Where is the active site in this diagram?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

13.

Why do you need to eat food?

a)

Source of Energy

b)

The molecules in your food are broken down into monomers which are then used to rebuild other molecules needed in your body

c)

Source of Vitamins

d)

All of the above

14.

If a substance has a low pH, this means it

a)

has more hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions

b)

is a base

c)

is neutral

d)

is water

15.

When an enzyme denatures it...

a)

has been exposed to an extreme change in its environment

b)

has changed shape

c)

can no longer function

d)

all of the above

16.

After an enzyme has catalyzed a chemical reaction

a)

it cannot be reused

b)

it has been duplicated

c)

it can be reused

d)

it is denatured

17.

When using a microscope, an increase in magnification causes

a)

An increase in the field of view

b)

A decrease in the field of view

c)

The object you are looking at to get bigger

d)

The field of view to change shape

18.

Which of the following are found in animal cells, but not plant cells

a)

Chloroplasts

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Bacteria

d)

Centrioles

19.

Prokaryotic cells do not have

a)

membrane bound organelles

b)

genetic material

c)

proteins

d)

ribosomes

20.

During diffusion, molecules move

a)

by active transport

b)

from high concentration, to low concentration

c)

from low concentration, to high concnentration

d)

through pumps in the phospholipid bilayer

21.

Which of the following is not a component of the cell theory?

a)

living things are made up of one or more cells

b)

all cells have a nucleus

c)

cells arise from pre-existing cells

d)

cells are the basic unit of structure and function

22.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the cell membrane?

a)

Selective Permeability

b)

Bilayer

c)

Allows all large non-polar molecules to pass through it

d)

Contains phospholipids, cholesterol and proteins

23.

When placed in a hypotonic solution, a cells volume will

a)

stay the same

b)

swell

c)

shrink

d)

none of the above

24.

a net movement of molecules from one solution to another will continue until

a)

one solution is hypotonic to the other

b)

one solution is hypertonic to the other

c)

the solutions are isotonic

d)

the molecules explode

25.

Most multicellular organisms require aerobic respiration because

a)

it produces the most lactic acid

b)

it produces the most pyruvate

c)

it produces the most glucose

d)

it produces the most ATP

26.

How do autotrophs make their own food?

a)

Converting organic molecules into inorganic molecules

b)

Converting light energy into chemical energy

c)

They eat other organisms

d)

They use ATP to make DNA

27.

Plant produce glucose in their ______________, which is then used during cellular respiration in the __________________ to make ATP.

a)

chloroplasts, mitochondria

b)

mitochondria, chlorplasts

c)

cell wall, centriole

d)

Krebs Cycle, Calvin Cycle

28.

The first step of photosynthesis is

a)

the splitting of water

b)

chlorophyll trapping sunlight

c)

carbon fixation

d)

production of glucose

29.

What is missing from this cellular respiration equation?

a)

Sunlight

b)

Chlorophyll

c)

Coefficients

d)

Glycogen

30.

Energy is released from ATP when

a)

The Adenine is broken off

b)

The chemical bond holding the third phosphate is formed

c)

the chemical bond holding the third phosphate is broken

d)

Cellular respiration is complete

31.

Which process requires carbon dioxide and water as reactants?

a)

Cellular respiration

b)

Fermentation

c)

Glycolysis

d)

Photosynthesis

32.

Why can't plants use green light to conduct photosynthesis?

a)

They absorb it

b)

They reflect it

33.

Where does the glucose needed to convert ADP to ATP in animal cells ultimately come from?

a)

Cellular Respiration in plants

b)

Photosynthesis in plants

c)

Lactic Acid Fermentation

d)

Glycolysis

34.

Before cell division, genetic material must first be

a)

replicated

b)

condensed

c)

refurbished

d)

reduced

35.

Asexual reproduction requires ___________, while sexual reproduction requires _____________.

a)

two parents, one parent

b)

binary fission, cloning

c)

genetically diverse offspring, genetically identical offspring

d)

one parent, two parents

36.

Variation within a population may occur through

a)

crossing over during meiosis

b)

independent assortment during meiosis

c)

mutation during DNA replication

d)

all of the above

37.

As the volume of a cell increases, what happens to the cell's surface area to volume ratio?

a)

it stays the same

b)

it decreases

c)

increases

d)

it expands exponentially

38.

As a cell's surface area to volume ration increases

a)

diffusion becomes easier

b)

osmosis becomes harder

c)

diffusion becomes equal

d)

diffusion becomes an active process

39.

Mitosis and meiosis are very similar, but do have some differences. Which of the statements below is false?

a)

Meiosis involves two divisions, while mitosis involves only one division

b)

Meiosis starts with haploid cells, while mitosis starts with diploid cells

c)

During meiosis homologous chromosomes pair up, while in mitosis they do not

d)

Meiosis results in genetically varied gametes, while mitosis creates genetically identical cells

40.

If a fruit fly gamete contains 4 chromosomes, then the germ cells contain __________.

a)

4

b)

2

c)

8

d)

16

41.

In plant cells, mitosis is concluded once

a)

telophase ends

b)

a cleavage furrow is formed

c)

the cell plate is formed

d)

single stranded chromosomes move to opposite ends of the spindle

42.

DNA and RNA are both made up of monomers called

a)

glucose

b)

simple sugars

c)

nucleotides

d)

codons

43.

Which of the following is not a protein?

a)

Enzymes

b)

Glucose

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Polymerases

44.

When making RNA, Adenine is complementary to

a)

Thymine

b)

Uracil

c)

Amino Acids

d)

DNA

45.

The amino acid sequence of a _____________, is determined by the sequence of _______________ in DNA

a)

codon, phosphates

b)

protein, nucleotides

c)

polypeptide, codons

d)

nucleic acid, nitrogenous bases

46.

Replication and Transcription of DNA occur in the

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

ribosomes

d)

mitochondria

47.

The breeding of corn to have a particular seed size is an example of

a)

Natural selection

b)

Asexual Reproduction

c)

Artificial Selection

d)

Lamarckian Evolution

48.

The amino acid sequences of hemoglobin found in two different species of reptile are almost exactly the same. This suggests that the reptiles

a)

Are actually the same species

b)

Share a common ancestor

c)

Live in the same environment

d)

Are evolving into the same species

49.

A mutation in DNA is the same as

a)

a sudden change in the genetic material of the organism

b)

Natural Selection

c)

Artificial Selection

d)

Competition for resources such as food and water

50.

True or False: both Bacteria and Archaea lack a nucleus

a)

true

b)

false

51.

Solely from its name, you know that Rhizopus nigricans must be

a)

In the genus nigricans

b)

a plant

c)

in the genus Rhizopus

d)

an animal

52.

According to Natural Selection, each of the 14 species of Galapagos finch could have gotten their characteristic beaks because

a)

of the tendency for perfection

b)

they inherited the beaks their parents acquired

c)

they randomly acquired mutations which created variability in the population. This variability allowed for some finches to out-compete others, and therefore survive and reproduce more often.

d)

the environment consciously choose what beaks the birds got

53.

Species with analogous structures are considered to

a)

have a recent common ancestor

b)

live in a similar environment

c)

be evolving into the same species

d)

have no relation

54.

Evidence for evolution can come from all but

a)

Fossils

b)

Pictures of extinct dinosaurs

c)

Biochemical molecules like DNA or Proteins

d)

Embryological Studies

55.

Which gas is increasing in the atmosphere and threatening the world with the greenhouse effect?

a)

carbon monoxide

b)

ozone

c)

nitrogen

d)

carbon dioxide

56.

In a given food chain where would you find the smallest number of organisms living in the population?

a)

Primary Producers

b)

Secondary Consumers

c)

Tertiary Consumers

d)

Decomposers

57.

90% of the energy originally found in a trophic level is transferred

a)

to the primary producer

b)

to the sun

c)

to the organism that eats it

d)

to the environment

58.

The carrying capacity of this deer population is around

a)

80

b)

100

c)

10

d)

7.5

59.

In a commensalistic relationship

a)

Both organisms benefit

b)

One organism benefits, and the other is neutral

c)

Both organisms are harmed

d)

One organism benefits, and the other dies

60.

A tertiary consumer is threatened by deforestation, global warming, and destruction of habitat. How could a conservationist assure that the population of consumers gets as much energy and resources as it possibly can?

a)

Increase the number of trophic levels

b)

Increase the number of decomposers

c)

Decrease the number of trophic levels

d)

Add an invasive species into the food web

61.

In an ecosystem which resource is not recycled?

a)

carbon

b)

energy

c)

water

d)

nitrogen

62.

During carbon cycling, __________________ removes carbon dioxide from the air

a)

Cellular Respiration

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Burning of Fossil Fuels

d)

Decomposition of waste and animal remains